Exam : 220-301
Title
: A+ Core technologies
Ver
: 01.31.06
220-301
QUESTION 1:
The USB port can supply power for a device?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: Some USB devices, such as hard drives, have their own power supply, while other USB
devices, like keyboards, use power from the USB interface.
QUESTION 2:
When replacing a power supply what must you observe?
A. Voltage
B. Current
C. Wattage
D. Resistance
Answer: C
Explanation: The wattage should be checked. The replacement power supply should supply the same
Wattage.
QUESTION 3:
What would a Multimeter be used to measure?
A. CD-ROM data
B. Power-supply voltage
C. Floppy drive speed
D. RAID controller synchronization
Answer: B
Explanation: A multimeter can be used to measure voltage.
QUESTION 4:
What is your first action when windows report that your hard drive is developing bad sectors?
A. Replace the hard drive.
B. Run Secclean from DOS
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C. Run the defrag utility on the hard Drive.
D. Run Scan Disk with the thorough option.
Answer: D
Explanation: Scan disk should be run to check and repair hard disk.
Incorrect Answers
A: Eventually we could be forced to replace the hard drive, but should not be the first action.
B: Secclean is a UNIX utility.
C: Defragmenting the hard drive could make things worse. We should repair the disk first.
QUESTION 5:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the power connector.
Answer:
QUESTION 6:
Which CPU is intended to operate at a 66MHZ motherboard speed?
A. Intel 80486
B. Pentium 75
C. Pentium II 350
D. Pentium II 300
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Answer: D
Explanation: The CPU speed must be a multiple of the bus speed. A 66MHz bus speed times 4.5 gives 300
MHz.
Incorrect Answers
A: No 486 processor had a bus speed of 66MHz: The maximum bus speed of a 486 processors is 33MHz.
B, C: Neither 75MHz and 350MHz are not dividable with 66MHz. The CPU speed must be a multiple of the
bus speed.
Pentium 75 works at 50Mhz bus speed.
QUESTION 7:
A customer has a PC that supports an AMD Athlon XP 2100 + processor. What is the Front side Bus speed of
the customer's main broad?
A: 133 MHz
B: 166 MHz
C: 200 MHz
D: 266 MHz
Answer: D
QUESTION 8:
You are the technician at Certkiller . The Certkiller CEO wants to migrate to a 64 bit processor. Which of
following processors would you suggest using? (Choose two)
A. AMD Opteron
B. Intel Itanium
C. Intel k64
D. AMD k64
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 9:
A customer has a motherboard with a Slot A socket. What processor can the customer use?
A. An AMD K7
B. An Intel MMX
C. An AMD Athlon
D. An Intel Pentium Coppermine
E. AMD K6
F. Intel Pentium 3
Answer: C
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QUESTION 10:
Which IRQ does the system timer use?
A. IRQ 0
B. IRQ 1
C. IRQ 2
D. IRQ 3
Answer: A
IRQ Number Typical Use Description
IRQ 0 System timer This interrupt is reserved for the internal system timer. It is never available to peripherals
or other devices.
IRQ 1 Keyboard This interrupt is reserved for the keyboard controller. Even on devices without a keyboard, this
interrupt is
exclusively for keyboard input.
IRQ 2 Cascade interrupt for IRQs 8-15 This interrupt cascades the second interrupt controller to the first.
IRQ 3 Second serial port (COM2) The interrupt for the second serial port and often the default interrupt for the
fourth serial port
(COM4).
IRQ 4 First serial port (COM1) This interrupt is normally used for the first serial port. On devices that do not
use a PS/2 mouse, this
interrupt is almost always used by the serial mouse. This is also the default interrupt for the third serial port
(COM3).
IRQ 5 Sound card This interrupt is the first choice that most sound cards make when looking for an IRQ setting.
IRQ 6 Floppy disk controller This interrupt is reserved for the floppy disk controller.
IRQ 7 First parallel port This interrupt is normally reserved for the use of the printer. If a printer is not being
used, this interrupt can
be used for other devices that use parallel ports.
IRQ 8 Real-time clock This interrupt is reserved for the system's real-time clock timer and can not be used for
any other purpose.
IRQ 9 Open interrupt This interrupt is typically left open on devices for the use of peripherals.
IRQ 10 Open interrupt This interrupt is typically left open on devices for the use of peripherals.
IRQ 11 Open interrupt This interrupt is typically left open on devices for the use of peripherals.
IRQ 12 PS/2 mouse This interrupt is reserved for the PS/2 mouse on machines that use one. If a PS/2 mouse is
not used, the interrupt
can be used for other peripherals, such as network card.
IRQ 13 Floating point unit/coprocessor This interrupt is reserved for the integrated floating point unit. It is
never available to
peripherals or other devices as it is used exclusively for internal signaling.
IRQ 14 Primary IDE channel This interrupt is reserved for use by the primary IDE controller. On systems that
do not use IDE
devices, the IRQ can be used for another purpose.
IRQ 15 Secondary IDE channel This interrupt is reserved for use by the secondary IDE controller.
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QUESTION 11:
What should you do if the fan in the power supply stops working?
A. Replace the fan.
B. Replace the case.
C. Lubricate the fan.
D. Replace the bearing
E. Replace the power supply.
Answer: E
Explanation: The whole power supplier should be replaced. PC technicians should not try to repair
power supplies.
QUESTION 12:
Which is the main communication method from one PDA (Personal Assistant) to another PDA (Personal
Digital Assistant)?
A. IR (Infrared)
B. USB
C. RS-232
D. IEEE 1394
Answer: A
QUESTION 13:
What PC component normally comes in PGA, SEDC & SEP packaging?
A.Network Adapter
B.Motherboard
C.Memory
D.Processor
Answer: D
QUESTION 14:
What Color-Code is used for the mouse Port on a new PC that uses a DIN 6 Connector?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Purple
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Answer: C
PS/2 purple mini-din 6 pin for keyboard
PS/2 green mini-din 6 pin for mouse
QUESTION 15:
Which device allows a laptop/notebook computer to easily connect and disconnect with external
monitors, keyboards, mice and other peripherals?
A. expansion card
B. port replicator
C. Fibe Channel
D. keyboard wedge
Answer: B
A Port Replicator is device containing common PC ports, such as serial and parallel ports, that plugs into a
notebook computer. The purpose of the device is to allow you to easily attach a portable computer to standard,
non-portable devices such as a printer and monitor. For example, if you use a computer both at home and at
work, you could set up both work areas with a port replicator. Then, you just plug in your notebook computer to
the port replicator at either location and you're ready to work.
Most notebook computer manufacturers offer a port replicator as an additional option. A port replicator is
similar to a docking station, but docking stations provide additional slots for adding expansion boards and
storage devices.
QUESTION 16:
Hard disks with ________ can improve PC performance.
A. cooler running temperatures
B. faster rotation speeds
C. greater storage capacities
D. smaller footprints
Answer: B
They are faster.
QUESTION 17:
Which of the following devices are hot-swappable?
A. PS/2 mouse
B. AGP video card
C. CardBus network card
D. Parallel port printer
Answer: C
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QUESTION 18:
Based on the exhibit, in what type of I/O bus should the card shown be used?
A. PCI
B. ISA
C. EISA
D. MicroChannel
Answer: A
QUESTION 19:
Which of the following would NOT be repaired onsite?
A. Virus infectionB. Faulty video card
C. File system errors
D. CRT high voltage supply
Answer: D
Explanation: Only a specialist should try to repair a monitor.
QUESTION 20:
What media would you use to send 800 MB to 2 GB files?
A. Diskette
B. CD-ROM
C. DVD-ROM
D. External Hard drive
Answer: C
QUESTION 21:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the sound card speaker connection?
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Answer:
QUESTION 22:
How should you open the tray on an inoperative CD-ROM drive?
A. Push the eject button.
B. Push in on the lower-right corner door.
C. Right-click the CD icon and select Eject.
D. Insert a paper clip into the CD drive eject hole.
Answer: D
Explanation: The eject hold of the CD Drive can be used to mechanically open the drive.
QUESTION 23:
Which memory address range is reserved for VGA video card?
A. C000-C3FF
B. C000-C7FF
C. D000-D7FF
D. D000-DFFF
Answer: B
Explanation: The video BIOS is usually mapped to the upper memory address range C000-C7FF
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QUESTION 24:
Which motherboard type allows you to turn off the computer via software?
A. AT
B. ATX
C. MCA
D. VESA
Answer: B
Explanation: ATX has a soft power switch.
Incorrect Answers
A: AT motherboards are older and do not support a soft power switch.
C, D: MCA and VESA are slot types, not motherboard types.
QUESTION 25:
On the dot-matrix you only see the bottom half of the characters. What is a possible cause of this?
A. Defective print head. B. Wrong paper thickness.
C. Paper text incorrectly on tractor.
D. Defective home position sensor.
Answer: A
Explanation: The print head is defective and should be replaced.
QUESTION 26:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the Monitor connector.
Answer:
Explanation:
The monitor connector has three rows. The joystick connector has two rows.
QUESTION 27:
How many bits wide is the AGP Bus?
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A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: C
Explanation: AGP (Advanced Graphic Port) is a 32-bit bus designed for the high demands of 3-D
graphics.
QUESTION 28:
With respect to the interface network card, what does the term 10/100 refer to?
A. Protocol speed.
B. A fiber network.
C. Megabits per second.
D. Minimum and maximum server speed.
Answer: C
Explanation: 10/100 refers to the transfer rate which is measured in Megabits per seconds (Mbps). More
specifically it specifies that the network adapter supports both the 10Mbps and the 100Mbps speed.
QUESTION 29:
What is a type of IDE translation?
A. LBA
B. UTB
C. QIC
D. USB
Answer: A
Explanation: LBA, Logical Block Addressing, is a translation standard for BIOS to support IDE drives
larger than 528 MB. LBA is on old IDE translation.
QUESTION 30:
You are the technician at Certkiller . The sales director's computer shuts down and reboots unexpectedly.
Which of the following could be a cause of this problem?
A. The BIOS is set to reboot automatically every day.
B. Her external SCSI CD-RW is using too much power.
C. The CMOS is configured to cycle power at a certain time.
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D. The power supply is not providing enough power to the system.
Answer: D
Explanation: One likely cause of sporadic system reboots could a malfunctioning power supply.
Fluctuations in the voltage would cause reboots.
Incorrect Answers
A: There is no BIOS setting that reboots the system every day.
B: Most external devices use their own power supply. Furthermore, if an external device needs more power than
the system can handle, the external device fails, not the computer.
C: There is no such CMOS configuration.
QUESTION 31:
WRAM is used on a?
A. Modem.
B. Video card.
C. Motherboard.
D. ATA controller.
Answer: B
Explanation: WRAM (Windows Accelerator Card RAM) is used on Video cards.
QUESTION 32:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the keyboard connector.
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Answer:
QUESTION 33:
How much video RAM is needed to display 1024 into 768 at 24bit color?
A. 1MB.
B. 4MB.
C. 8MB.
D. 512KB.
Answer: B
Explanation: With 24-bit color we need 3 bytes per pixel. In total we need 1024 * 768 *3 bytes which
roughly is 2.4MB of RAM. 4 MB of video RAM would be sufficient.
QUESTION 34:
You have just installed a new internal PCI modem in your desktop. It will not dial out. What is the
problem?
A. The port speed is set too high.
B. The modem has not been set up in control panel properties
C. The phone line is plugged in to the line-in port on the modem card.
D. The phone line out of the wall is plugged into the phone port on the modem card.
Answer: D
Explanation: The phone line should be plugged to the line-in port on the modem card (not to the port
out).
Incorrect Answers
A: A port speed that is too high would not prevent the modem from dialing.
B: Internal modems do not appear in the control panel properties.
C: This is the proper procedure.
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QUESTION 35:
What are benefits of cleaning the inside of the computer? (Choose Two)
A. Increase connectivity speed.
B. Provide better system cooling
C. Increase CPU processing speed.
D. Increase the value of your computer.
E. Reduce the risk of component failure.
Answer: B, E
Explanation: Less dust would improve the system cooling and reduce the risk of component failure.
QUESTION 36:
A customer calls and says that her computer will not boot. She can hear noises and see lights on the box
but nothing comes on the screen. What should you take to the site to fix the problem?
A. Hard Drive
B. Video Card
C. Power Cable
D. Power Supply
Answer: B
Explanation: The computer is starting but nothing is displayed on the screen. The Video Card might
have to be replaced.
QUESTION 37:
The resolution on a new 19" ULTRA VGA monitor was set to 640 x 480 16 colors. You change the
resolution to 800x600 High color 16-bit. But the monitor goes blank. What could be the problem?
A. The video card is using an IRQ
B. The video card is not installed properly
C. The monitor trapezoid setting is wrapped.
D. The refresh rate is too fast for the monitor
Answer: D
Explanation: The monitor does not support the selected refresh rate.
Incorrect Answers
A: The video card should use an IRQ to be able to communicate.
B: The video card worked at 640 x 480 so it is physically installed correctly.
C: The monitor trapezoid setting would not cause the monitor to go blank.
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QUESTION 38:
The computer will not boot from the floppy drive. What are the most likely causes? (Choose two)
A. The floppy drive is defective.
B. There is no partition on the hard drive.
C. The boot floppy is formatted on FAT 16.
D. The boot sequence in the BIOS is incorrect
E. The hard drive has more than one partitions defined.
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
A: The floppy drive could be defective.
D: If the boot sequence does not include A: the system would never be able to boot from the diskette, and we
would have to correct it in BIOS.
Incorrect Answers
B: PCs should be able to boot from the diskette even though no hard drive is present.
C: Diskettes use the FAT16 file format.
E: The partitioning of the hard drive would not affect the diskette boot process.
QUESTION 39:
How many devices does USB support?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 127
D. 256
Answer: C
Explanation: 127 devices are supported on a single USB chain.
QUESTION 40:
The monitor is displaying mostly in green and not in normal colors. Which of the following would cause
this? (Choose Two)
A. The monitor is defective
B. The refresh rate is too fast.
C. The resolution is set too high
D. A pin on the connector is bent.
E. The drivers are installed incorrectly.
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Answer: A, D
Explanation: Either the monitor could be defective or a pin could be bent.
Incorrect Answers
The refresh rate, the resolution, or the video adapter device driver would not cause this type of color distortion.
QUESTION 41:
A customer calls for support with a monitor problem but can't wait for a service technician. She
describes the problem being no monitor signal, no screen saver and no hibernation and she reports that
she thinks it is the video card. The customer also mentions that she has three identical functioning
systems in her office. What could you ask the customer to do to eliminate the video card as the cause of
the problem switch with one of the functioning systems?
A. The monitor.
B. The motherboard.
C. The video driver chip.
D. All flat ribbon cables.
Answer: A
Explanation: Either the monitor or the video adapter could be the cause of this problem.
By replacing the monitor we could be sure if the video adapter is the source of the problem or not.
Incorrect Answers
B: It would too much trouble to replace the motherboard at this early stage of the troubleshooting process.
C: We should replace the monitor before we replace the video adapter.
D: Neither the monitor or the Video adapter use flat ribbon cables.
QUESTION 42:
What does a 28 dot pitch refer to in describing a monitor?
A. .28 cm wide.
B. .28 millimeter wide.
C. .28 cm apart.
D. .28 millimeter apart
Answer: D
Explanation: A 28 dot pitch refers to a 28 millimeter distance between the dots.
Incorrect Answers
A, B: Dot pitch refers to the distance between dots, not the size of a dot.
C: Dot pitch is measured in millimeters, not centimeters.
QUESTION 43:
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Which of the following configuration settings are set in EEPROMS on a NIC? (Choose three)
A. IRQ
B. Protocol
C. IP Address
D. I/O Address
E. MAC address
Answer: A, D, E
Explanation: An EEPROM of a NIC is configured with IRQ, I/O address and MAC address.
Incorrect Answers
B, C: Protocol and IP address are implemented in the operating system not in the EEPROM.
QUESTION 44:
What is the main difference between AT and ATX motherboards? (Choose two)
A. PS/2 port
B. BNC connector
C. Soft power switch
D. Serial connectors
E. Parallel connectors
Answer: A, C
Explanation: AT motherboards, but not ATX motherboards, support the PS/2 port and a Soft power
switch.
Incorrect Answers
B: A BNC connecter is used on Network adapters to connect to bus network. A BNC connector is not built-in
on AT motherboards.
D: The serial connectors are about the same on AT and ATX motherboards.
E: The parallel connector are the same on AT and ATX motherboards.
QUESTION 45:
Which of the following source present a risk factor for virus infection on a PC? (Choose two)
A. A floppy disk received from a friend.
B. A downloaded file from the internet.
C. FDISK/MBR file on the hard drive.
D. . DLL file that was loaded with a new machine.
E. . CAB file that was loaded with the new machine.
Answer: A, B
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Explanation: Floppy disks and downloaded internet files can be infected by viruses.
Incorrect Answers
C: FDISK/MBR clears the master boot sector.
D, E: .DLL and .CAB are not executed and does not contain viruses.
QUESTION 46:
A bent pin on a three row DB-15 male connector plug could cause problems with which device or
component?
A. Monitor
B. Joy sticks
C. Laser-Jet Printer
D. External Modem
Answer: A
Explanation: The monitor port got 15 pins in three rows (see below)
Incorrect Answers
B: The games/joystick port got 15 pins in two rows.
C: Printers use the parallel interface.
D: External modems use the serial interface.
QUESTION 47:
Which ports are most often used to connect a digital camera to a computer? (Choose two)
A. USB Port
B. SCSI Port
C. PS/2 Port
D. Parallel Port
E. RS-232 Port
Answer: A, E
Explanation: The new USB and the older RS-232 serial interfaces are most often used to connect a digital
camera to a computer.
Incorrect Answers
B: The SCSI interface is not used in digital cameras.
C: The PS/2 is interface is used for keyboard and mouse.
D: Not many digital cameras use the parallel interface-
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QUESTION 48:
A video resolution of 800 into 600 would constitute which video mode?
A. EGA
B. VGA
C. CGA
D. SVGA
Answer: D
Explanation: 800x600 is SVGA mode.
Incorrect Answers
A, C: EGA and CGA are older standards with lower resolutions. These standards are not in use any more.
B: 640x480 is VGA mode.
QUESTION 49:
Which device would you plug into an AGP slot?
A. Hard drive
B. Serial port
C. Video card
D. External storage device
Answer: C
Explanation: The AGP port is used for video cards.
Incorrect Answers
A: Hard drives are most often connected through the IDE or the SCSI interface.
B: A serial port is not plugged into any slot.
D: External storage devices use the USB, SCSI, parallel interfaces, not the AGP slot.
QUESTION 50:
What should you do first if the mouse pointer is not moving correctly across the screen?
A. Clean the mouse
B. Reconfigure the system
C. Plug into a different port
D. Check the mouse drivers in the operating system
Answer: A
Explanation: The mouse could be dirty. We should clean it first.
Incorrect Answers
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B, D: This is most likely not a configuration problem.
C: A faulty port seems unlikely.
QUESTION 51:
A workstation has just been installed on the Ethernet LAN but cannot communicate with the network.
What should you do first?
A. Reinstall the network protocols.
B. Reinstall the network interface card driver.
C. Verify the IP configuration on the workstation.
D. Verify the link status on the computer's network card.
Answer: D
Explanation: First we should verify physical connectivity. Link status of the network adapter indicates
that the adapter is connected to the network.
Incorrect Answers
A, B; C: Before checking the protocol configuration, device drivers, and the IP configuration we should check
if we have physical connectivity.
QUESTION 52:
A customer just installed a new CD-RW. The system was working fine before the installation, but now
the CD-RW does not work. What should you suggest that the customer should do?
A. Flash or upgrade the BIOS
B. Check the CONFIG.SYS setup
C. Add the CD-RW in the device manager
D. Check the jumper settings on the CD-RW
Answer: D
Explanation: Most CD-RWs are connected through IDE interface. Modern PCs has two IDE interfaces.
Each interface can host two devices: one master and one slave. Each IDE should either be configured as
master or as slave through jumper settings. If an IDE device is misconfigured it will not function. This is
the most likely cause of the problem in this scenario
Incorrect Answers
A: It is not likely that a BIOS upgrades would affect the IDE interface in any direct way.
B: The CONFIG.SYS command does not contain any device drivers. Furthermore, CONFIG.SYS is only used
on legacy operating systems.
C: CD-RWs are not added through the Device Manager.
QUESTION 53:
When installing an ISA Modem it would be good practice to know available ____
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and___________to use before installing the modem.(Select Two).
A. SCSI/IDs
B. COM Ports
C. ISA address
D. IRQ number.
Answer: B, D
Modem use serial ports. A serial port is a COM port. Each COM port has an IRQ number.
Incorrect Answers
A: Modem do not use the SCSI interface.
C: There is no such thing as an ISA address.
QUESTION 54:
A client wants to upgrade the storage in a computer. The original drive is working, just the owner needs
additional free space. The technician installs a new 40GB ATA Hard drive in the system. It can be heard
spinning up, but the drive is NOT recognized by the system's BIOS. Select the MOST likely problems.
(Select Two)
A. Faulty Harddrive
B. Incompatible Operating System
C. Drive capacity too large for BIOS
D. Incorrect termination
Answer: A, C
The hard drive could be faulty. Or the drive capacity too large for the BIOS.
Incorrect Answers
B: The Operating System does not communicate directly with the hard drive.
D: SCSI bus are terminated, not IDE channels.
QUESTION 55:
Which of the following will allow you to use a laptop as a desktop system? (Select two)
A. External Hard drive
B. Port Replicator
C. Hot Swappable drive
D. Docking station
E. Home base
Answer: B, D
B: A Port Replicator is device containing common PC ports, such as serial and parallel ports, that plugs into a
notebook computer. The purpose of the device is to allow you to easily attach a portable computer to standard,
non-portable devices such as a printer and monitor. For example, if you use a computer both at home and at
work, you could set up both work areas with a port replicator. Then, you just plug in your notebook computer to
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the port replicator at either location and you're ready to work.
Most notebook computer manufacturers offer a port replicator as an additional option. A port replicator is
similar to a docking station, but docking stations provide additional slots for adding expansion boards and
storage devices.
D: A docking station is a platform into which you can install a portable computer. The docking station typically
contains slots for expansion cards, bays for storage devices, and connectors for peripheral devices, such as
printers and monitors. Once inserted in a docking station, the portable computer essentially becomes a desktop
model computer. When it is taken out, it becomes a portable computer again. Most importantly, the same data is
accessible in both modes because it resides on the portable computer's drives. The idea behind docking stations
is to let you simultaneously enjoy the expansion possibilities of desktop model computers with the portability of
notebook computers. In addition, the docking station enables you to use a full-size keyboard and monitor when
you're not traveling.
Incorrect Answers
A: Not required.
C: Not required.
E: No such thing in this context.
QUESTION 56:
When installing a new video card in a system which previously used an onboard video controller, the
onboard video controller needs to be:
A. disabled in the windows control panel
B. disable in the BIOS
C. Physically removed.
D. disable using the jumper pin on the new video card.
Answer: B
You need to disable the onboard video controller in BIOS.
QUESTION 57:
Identify the I/O port described below. An external D Shaped connectors with a total of 15 female pins in
3 rows.
1. Parellel Port.
2. Serial Port.
3. VGA Video Port
4. Joy Stick-MIDI Port.
5. USB Port.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The monitor port got 15 pins in three rows.
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QUESTION 58:
Upgrading to a new AGP video card from a PCI video card has which of
the following benefits?
A. Reduces heat inside the system unit
B. Frees up a USB slot
C. AGP type video cards have a newer design over the PC vide cards
D. Increases the video performance
Answer: D
Better data throughput.
QUESTION 59:
An ATX motherboard usually has:
A. An Integrated PS/2 mouse connector.
B. An AT keyboard connector.
C. Two IEEE 1284 Ports.
D. Two IEEE 1394 Ports.
Answer: A
QUESTION 60:
Which Printer interface Operates at either 400 or 800 Mbps?
A. Ethernet
B. FireWire
C. Parallel
D. Serial
Answer: B
FireWire, also referred to as IEEE 1394, supports data transfer speeds of 400 Mbps, although IEEE 1894b has a
data transfer speed of 800 Mbps.
QUESTION 61:
What is IEEE 1394b also known as?
A. Firewire 400
B. USB 1.0
C. Firewire 800
D. USB 2.0
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Answer: C
Explanation:
There is a new standard of Firewire called IEEE 1394b offering double the speeds of traditional firewire (up to
800 MB/sec). IEEE1394 plugs won't fit into a IEEE 1394b socket. Note also that most of the new IEEE 1394b
cards are 64 bit cards and fit into server motherboards but don't fit into standard motherboards used in the
average home PC and video editing PC.
QUESTION 62:
A customer's monitor remains blank after she boots her PC. There were no error messages or beeps.
What is the first thing the customer should check?
A. The monitor power is plugged into a power source.
B. The monitor data cable is plugged into the computer.
C. The video card is properly seated in the computer.
D. The monitor has been degaussed.
Answer: A
QUESTION 63:
A customer has a cable that has a connector with 15 pins. The pins are arranged in three rows of 5 pins.
What would this cable be used for?
A. Game Port
B. COM Port
C. VGA Monitor
D. LPT Port
Answer: C
QUESTION 64:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what voltages
an ATX power supply supports. What would your reply be?
A. 1.2 volts
B. 3.3 volts
C. 5.7 volts
D. 7.3 volts
Answer: B
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QUESTION 65:
A customer complains that a recently upgraded computer shuts down after a few minutes of operation.
You verify the power supply is working correctly.
Which of the following is the NEXT component you should check?
A. CPU cooling fan
B. Computer memory
C. IDE Harddrives
D. CMOS battery
Answer: A
QUESTION 66:
What is the benefit of an Energy Star compliant computer? (Choose two)
A. Will last longer before breaking down.
B. Is manufactured with less toxic chemicals.
C. Runs cooler.
D. Uses less electricity.
Answer: C, D
QUESTION 67:
One of the Certkiller customer has recently installed a Wireless router at their site and now wants a technician
to
integrate their laptop into that Wireless environment. Which of the following are valid solutions to resolve this
request? (Choose two)
A: IEEE 1394 FireWire Wireless connection device.
B: parallel Port Wireless connection device.
C: USB Wireless connection device.
D: PCMCIA wireless connection device.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION 68:
Which of the following should be placed between a heatsink and a processor setting them in place?
A: Thermal grease.
B: Rubber cement.
C: Plastic plate.
D: Ceramic plate.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
The surface of a CPU or a heatsink is never entirely flat; if you place a heatsink directly on a CPU, there will be
tiny (invisible) gaps between the two. Since air conducts heat poorly, these gaps have a very negative effect on
the heat transfer. Therefore, an interface material with a high thermal conductivity is needed to fill these gaps,
and thus improve heat conductivity.
The most commonly used interface material in the electronics cooling area is thermal compound, a sticky paste
applied directly on the heatsink or CPU. A good-quality thermal compound will provide the best possible
performance.
QUESTION 69:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the Level
1 Cache size of a Pentium 2 is.
What would your reply be?
A: 16 KB
B: 32 KB
C: 64 KB
D: 128 KB
Answer: B
QUESTION 70:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know why expansion
slot covers are installed in a computer.
What would your reply be? (Choose two)
A: Keep the CPU warmer.
B: Prevent dust build up.
C: Eliminate static charge.
D: Improve air circulation.
E: Prevent installing unnecessary components.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION 71:
A customer complains that they are getting buffer underrun errors every time they try to burn a CD-RW. What
would you suggest the customer do to fix their problem? (Choose two.)
A: Turn the CD-RW over and use the other side.
B: Turn off all background tasks.
C: Burn at a slower speed.
D: Reboot computer.
Answer: B, C
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QUESTION 72:
A customer has a notebook with a single Type II PCMCIA slot. The customer wants to upgrade the system
memory but can only afford a Type I PCMCIA memory card. Will the customer be able to use this card?
A: Yes, the card is compatible.
B: Yes, but it will require an adapter to convert the card to Type II.
C: No, Type I cards are incompatible with Type II Slots.
D: No, PCMCIA is for peripheral expansion and not memory.
Answer: A
QUESTION 73:
Which of the following statements BEST describes the characteristics of USB 2.0?
A: Connects up to 15 devices with maximum transfer rate of 100 Mbps.
B: Connects up to 63 devices with maximum transfer rate of 800 Mbps.
C: Connects up to 127 devices with maximum transfer rate of 12 Mbps.
D: Connects up to 127 devices with maximum transfer rate of 400 Mbps.
Answer: D
USB 2.0 has a raw data rate at 480Mbps, and it is rated 40 times faster than its predecessor interface, USB 1.1,
which tops at 12Mbps. Originally, USB 2.0 was intended to go only as fast as 240Mbps, but then, USB 2.0
Promoter Group increased the speed to 480Mbps in October 1999.
QUESTION 74:
You are the technician at Certkiller . A Certkiller user's external PS/2 style mouse dies. You don't want to shut
the computer off. What type of mouse can you replace the faulty mouse with?
A: USB mouse.
B: Serial mouse.
C: PS/2 mouse.
D: Laser servo mouse.
Answer: A
QUESTION 75:
You are the technician at Certkiller . A Certkiller user complains that the program applications displayed on her
display monitor are too small to read. How would you change the video settings?
A: Decrease the amount of pixels in screen.
B: Increase the hardware graphics acceleration.
C: Increase the horizontal setting on the monitor.
D: Decrease the vertical display settings on the monitor.
Answer: A
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QUESTION 76:
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . You install two new SCSI Harddrives in a server. When
you boot the server, the drives are not recognized correctly. What is the MOST likely problem with the
SCSI drive connection?
A: The computer BIOS is not set to boot to SCSI devices.
B: The SCSI cable is defective.
C: One of the drives is bad.
D: The SCSI ID is incorrectly set.
Answer: D
QUESTION 77:
A customer complains that her PC boots and runs fine for a short period of time. Then it starts to exhibit various
intermittent problems. What is the MOST probable cause of this?
A: Bad location in memory.
B: Disk drive that has a bad sector.
C: Heat problem caused by a bad fan.
D: Defective power supply.
Answer: C
QUESTION 78:
A customer complains that her monitor remains blank after she turns on her computer. Before telling the
customer to bring in the computer, what should the technician do?
A: Ask the customers if the monitor has power, and to check the cord. Then confirm that all the cords are
connected in the back of both computer and monitor.
B: Tell the customer to reboot the computer a few times to see if that makes a difference. If it does not, tell the
customer to let the computer sit, as it maybe overheated and to try the next day.
C: Explain that the monitor is probably broken and another should be purchased.
D: Have the customer disconnect the power from the computer, then try and plug it into a different outlet.
Answer: A
QUESTION 79:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know the major
design difference between the Pentium 3 and Pentium 2 is.
What would your reply be?
A. Pipeline cache size
B. Capacitor technology
C. High core temperature
D. Additional instruction set
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Answer: D
Internet streaming SIMB extensions were added to the Pentium III processor.
QUESTION 80:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know how many
devices can be connected to a USB port on a PC.
What will your reply be?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 32
D. 127
Answer: D
QUESTION 81:
A Certkiller technician connects a joystick to a sound card. What IRQ would the joystick use?
A. IRQ 2
B. IRQ 5
C. IRQ 10
D. Joystick does not use an IRQ.
Answer: B
QUESTION 82:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which bus slots
an ISA card would work in.
What will your reply be? (Choose two)
A. In a PCI slot
B. In an ISA slot
C. In a MCA slot
D. In an AGP slot
E. In an EISA slot
Answer: B, E
Explanation: ISA cards work in ISA and Extended ISA (EISA) slots.
Incorrect Answers
A: The PCI bus is a newer and faster compared to IS
A. ISA cards cannot be used in PCI slots.
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C: The AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) can only be used for video adapters.
D: MCA is an even older technology than IS
A. MCA and ISA are not compatible.
QUESTION 83:
For Windows 2000 or Windows XP after installing the software or driver for the USB printer, what would be
the NEXT step?
A. Plug in the USB cable
B. Restart the Computer
C. Set the IRQ for the printer
D. Set the USB speed setting to 10 Mbps
Answer: A
Explanation:
By exclusion: B, C, D are not required for USB devices.
QUESTION 84:
A user tells their A+ certified Technician that they would like to add a brand new 120 GB hard drive into their
Pentium 2 systems, what problem will they MOST likely come across?
A. Windows will not support that much space
B. The onboard IDE controller on the motherboard may not support this size
C. A Pentium 2 Power supply may not be able to give the drive enough power.
D. The CPU may not be fast enough to read it.
Answer: B
QUESTION 85:
You work as a technician at Certkiller .com. A client asks you to install a 250 GB hard drive as a single
partition in an existing system.
What should you do prior to installation of the hard drive to ensure compatibility?
A. Verify maximum hard drive capability of motherboard, upgrading BIOS if required. If the motherboard will
not support a 250 GB hard drive, the technician advises the client that it cannot be installed.
B. Nothing prior to installation. you just install it, set it up, and give the system back to the client.
C. Verify the maximum hard drive capacity supported by the motherboard, upgrading BIOS if required. If the
motherboard does not support a 250 GB hard drive, you use a Disk Manager, and adapter or similar product to
set up the hard drive.
D. This is strictly operating system dependant. As long as the operating supports a 250 GB hard drive, no
special procedure is required,.
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Answer: C
QUESTION 86:
What should a technician do with an old Lilon (lithium ion) battery?
A. throw it away
B. take it to a battery recycling drop-off location
C. sell it online
D. burn it in an open fire
Answer: B
QUESTION 87:
Which of the following is a field replaceable unit?
A. CPU fan
B. PCI bridge
C. Level 1 cache
D. Onboard SCSI controller
Answer: A
QUESTION 88:
What should you replace if the brightness or contrast adjustments were malfunctioning on a Laptop?
A. Fuse
B. LCD Display
C. Adjustment Switch
D. LCD display Cable
Answer: C
Explanation: We should start by replacing the adjustment switch.
QUESTION 89:
The electrical connector between the docking station and a portable computer is
A. Used as a surge suppressor
B. Manufacturer specific only
C. Manufacturer and model specific
D. Not propriety but is an industry standard
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Answer: B
Explanation: The electrical connector between the docking station and the portable works is
manufacturer specific: You must have the correct docking station for each specific portable computer
brand.
Incorrect Answers
A: It is not used as a surge suppressor.
C: The same manufacturer usually uses the same electrical connector for all their docking station models.
D: The electrical connector is vendor specific. There exists no industry standard.
QUESTION 90:
What do you need to do when replacing the motherboard in a portable computer?
A. Ensure that the board is AT or ATX.
B. Match the manufacturer and the model number exactly.
C. Any motherboard will act as long as it is specified for a laptop.
D. Ensure that the board is from that manufacturer and that the boards are interchangeable.
Answer: D
Explanation: When replacing the motherboard in a portable computer you must make sure that the
boards are interchangeable. Motherboards from different vendors, or even different models from the
same vendor, might not be compatible.
Incorrect Answers
A: The AT and ATX standards only apply to Desktop computers.
B: Different models might be compatible.
C: Different models from the same vendor, might not be compatible.
QUESTION 91:
Click the area on the graphics that shows the PS/2 mouse connector.
Answer:
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Explanation:
Some size as the 5-DIN connector that is used for the Keyboard.
QUESTION 92:
LCD Computer screens can be easily cleaned by using which of the following methods?
A. Using a soft cloth with sprayed windows cleaner and then used to gently wipe the screen.
B. Using a little water sprayed on a soft cloth and then used to gently wipe the screen.
C. Using a special anti-static vacuum being careful not to touch the screen directly.
D. Using a blast of compressed air and avoid touching the screen directly.
Answer: B
If water does now work, then use specialized products.
Incorrect answers:
A: This could damage the screen.
C, D: Not appropriate methods.
QUESTION 93:
When upgrading components in a computer with a 200 Watt Power supply, what consideration should be
made for the power requirements of the additional system components?
A. Determine the Power needed for the devices and replace the battery backup.
B. Determine the power needed for the devices and upgrade to power supply in necessary.
C. Determine the power needed for the devices and replace the system cooling fans with larger fans in needed.
D. Determine the power needed for the additional components and upgrade the processor if necessary.
Answer: B
The power supply supplies to the electric devices within the PC. It might have to be upgraded and replaced.
QUESTION 94:
When connecting to an 802.11 Wireless access point, which mode should be used?
A. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy)
B. Infrastructure
C. Ad-hoc
D. Remote
Answer: A
WEP(Wired Equivalent Privacy) is a security protocol for wireless local area networks (WLANs) defined in the
802.11b standard. WEP is designed to provide the same level of security as that of a wired LAN. LANs are
inherently more secure than WLANs because LANs are somewhat protected by the physicalities of their
structure, having some or all part of the network inside a building that can be protected from unauthorized
access. WLANs, which are over radio waves, do not have the same physical structure and therefore are more
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vulnerable to tampering. WEP aims to provide security by encrypting data over radio waves so that it is
protected as it is transmitted from one end point to another. However, it has been found that WEP is not as
secure as once believed. WEP is used at the two lowest layers of the OSI model - the data link and physical
layers; it therefore dose not offer end-to-end security.
QUESTION 95:
The new Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum length for a cable connection of a full speed USB
device to a PC is. What will your reply be?
A: 3 Meters.
B: 4 Meters.
C: 5 Meters.
D: 6 Meters.
Answer: C
QUESTION 96:
What is the maximum cable length, in meters, using 20-gauge twisted-pair shielded cable between two
full speed USB devices?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: A
Explanation: The maximum distance between two USB devices is 5 meters.
QUESTION 97:
A customer complains that they receive malicious e-mails from the same user several times a day. What
should you ask the customer?
A: When was the last time the anti virus signatures were updated?
B: Have there been any strange e-mails received in the last few weeks?
C: When was the last time the Harddrive was defragmenter?
D: Ask if the user knows the company policy for sending out viruses?
Answer: A
QUESTION 98:
A customer complains that a DVD+R burner that you installed three weeks ago has
stopped working. Three weeks ago you successfully tested the drive after installing it.
The customer states that the drive will read CDs and DVDs, but will not burn DVDs.
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What is the first action you should take?
A: Check for a fault IDE Cable.
B: Be sure that the DVD+R is formatted before using it.
C: Check for incompatible media.
D: Re-install the DVD burning software.
Answer: C
Most likely cause is trying to burn a DVD on a format other then recordable DVD media.
QUESTION 99:
You are the technician at Certkiller . You install a new CD-RW in the CEO's PC. The PC has an existing
Harddrive and CD-ROM that both on the primary channel. The new CD-RW is not recognized. Which is the
BEST course of action?
A: Assume the CD-RW is faulty.
B: Reconfigure the CD-RW as primary master.
C: Check for an IRQ conflict.
D: Check is the secondary channel is set for autodetect.
Answer: D
QUESTION 100:
Which interrupt does the real-time clock use?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 8
D. 13
Answer: C
Explanation: The System CMOS/real time clock uses IRQ 8.
Incorrect Answers
A: The system timer use IRQ 0.
B: The keyboard use IRQ 1.
D: The numeric data processor use IRQ 13.
QUESTION 101:
What is the default IRQ for COM1?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
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Answer: C
Explanation: COM1 and COM3 use IRQ4.
Incorrect Answers
COM2 and COM4 use IRQ3.
QUESTION 102:
You have installed a new modem with jumpers set to COM2 and IRQ3, but Windows cannot detect the
modem. What is the problem?
A. No dial tone.
B. IRQ conflict.
C. DMA overrun
D. COM port speed not set to 256Kbps.
Answer: B
Explanation: The most likely cause of this problem is an IRQ conflict.
QUESTION 103:
You are installing a modem on COM3. Which I/O address should you normally use?
A. 2E8H
B. 2F8H
C. 3E8H
D. 3F8H
Answer: C
Explanation: The following IO addresses are used by the COM ports:
COM1: 3F8
COM2: 2F8
COM3: 3E8
COM4: 2E8
QUESTION 104:
Which statement is true concerning the installation of USB mouse?
A. You can plug it in while the computer is running.
B. You must first set up a specific IRQ for the device.
C. You must first set a DMA channel for the new device.
D. You must shut the computer down, plug in the mouse, and restart.
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Answer: A
Explanation: USB devices are hot pluggable and should be detected and installed automatically.
QUESTION 105:
Which interrupt is reserved for the system timer?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 8
D. 13
Answer: A
Explanation: IRQ 0 is reserved for the system timer. Check in Device Manager or System information.
Incorrect Answers
B: IRQ 1 is used for the keyboard.
C: The System clock use IRQ8.
D: IRQ 13 is used by numeric data processor.
QUESTION 106:
What is the default IRQ for the floppy drive controller?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Answer: C
Explanation: The floppy drive controller use IRQ 6 as default.
Incorrect Answers
A, D: IRQ 2 and IRQ 9 are available for use.
B: IRQ 3 is used by COM2 and COM4.
QUESTION 107:
Which setting must a device have in order to interrupt the CPU?
A. IRQ
A. I/O address
B. DMA channel
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C. Memory address
Answer: A
Explanation: Interrupt requests (IRQs) are used to interrupt the processor.
QUESTION 108:
What is the default IRQ for LPT1?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 13
Answer: C
Explanation: LTP1 use IRQ 7 by default. This can be checked with the Device Manager or with System
Information.
Incorrect Answers
A, B: IRQ 2 and IRQ 5 are available and free to use.
D: IRQ 13 is used by the numeric data processor.
QUESTION 109:
When configuring ISA network interface cards without jumpers or plug and play. What is used to set
IRQs?
A. DMA.
B. COMS.
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C. The operating system.
D. Configuration software.
Answer: D
Explanation: ISA cards need either configuration software or configuration on the physical cards (DIP
switches or jumpers).
QUESTION 110:
After installing a sound card the system locks up when a parallel port tape backup is also used. What is
the most likely problem? (Choose Two)
A. IRQ conflict
B. DMA conflict.
C. Defective LPT port
D. Defective Tape Driver
E. Defective Sound Card
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
A: There might be an IRQ conflict.
E: It is possible that the sound card is defective.
Incorrect Answers
B: A DMA conflict would not result in this behavior.
C, D: The LPT port and the Tape Driver were functioning before the sound card was installed so both should be
working.
QUESTION 111:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the Floppy port.
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Answer:
QUESTION 112:
What is the most probable cause of a sound card and a printer working intermittently?
A. Conflicting IRQs.
B. The wrong APM setting.
C. A changed printer cable.
D. An improperly seated card.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of this intermittent problem is a hardware conflict. A hardware conflicts occurs when two
devices use the same IRQ. In this scenario the sound card and the printer use the same IRQ.
Incorrect Answers
B: Advanced Power Management (APM) settings would not cause devices to work intermittently.
C: A changed printer cable would not affect the sound card.
QUESTION 113:
What is the default I/O port for COM2?
A. 2E8H.
B. 3E8H.
C. 2F8H.
D. 3F8H.
Answer: C
Explanation: COM2 uses I/O address 2F8.
Incorrect Answers
A: COM4 use 2E8.
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B: COM3: use 3E8.
D: COM1: use 3F8.
QUESTION 114:
Which of the following are FRU? (Choose three)
A. RAM.
B. ROM.
C. CPU.
D. Ziff socket.
E. CMOS battery.
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation: Field replaceable units (FRU) can be replaced out in the field. FRUs include RAM, CPU
and CMOS battery.
Incorrect Answers
B: ROM is not easily replaceable.
D: A Ziff socket cannot be replaced. They are used to insert CPUs and they are integrated into the motherboard.
QUESTION 115:
Click the area on the graphics that shows the COM port connector.
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Answer:
QUESTION 116:
What is the default IRQ for COM2?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B
Explanation: COM2 and COM4 use IRQ3.
Incorrect Answers
A: IRQ is available for general use.
C: COM1 and COM3 use IRQ4.
D: IRQ 6 is used by the standard floppy disk controller.
QUESTION 117:
Which interrupt is cascaded to provide interrupts 9 through 15?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
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Answer: B
Explanation: IRQ2 cascades to IRQ9.
QUESTION 118:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the place to connect a joystick.
Answer:
Explanation:
The joystick connector has two rows. The monitor connector has three rows.
QUESTION 119:
You have purchased three new USB devices and want to add them to your laptop but you only have one
IRQ available. How many IRQ's will your USB modem, mouse and keyboard use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Explanation: All USB devices, as many as 127, can be connected to a single USB port. They all share a
single IRQ.
QUESTION 120:
What is the first task that a technician should perform when a laser or solid ink printer is constantly
jamming at the paper tray?
A. Clean the pick roller with a clean, lint free wipe.
B. Replace the pick roller
C. Verify that the correct type of media is being used.
D. Replace the paper tray
Answer: A
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As a temporary fix clean the pick roller (A). Eventually it has to be replaced (B).
Incorrect Answers:
B: Not the first task. Would be the next thing to do if cleaning fails resolve the problem.
C: Correct type of paper could be an issue. However, it seems very unlikely.
D: Would not do much good.
QUESTION 121:
What is the standard I/O port address of parallel port 1?
A. 278-27F
B. 378-37F
C. 3F8-3EF
D. 200-207
Answer: B
QUESTION 122:
USB Device are different than serial or PS/2 pointing devices in what respect?
A. All USB pointing devices use the same device driver.
B. USB pointing devices cannot be hot-swapped.
C. PS/2 and Serial devices do not work under Windows XP.
D. USB pointing devices can be hot-swapped.
Answer: D
QUESTION 123:
A customer installs a modem in a Windows 98 system. Now there is an IRQ conflict with COM2. The
modem would probably run properly if configured to use COM3.
Which I/O Port and IRQ should the customer use with COM3?
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A. 2E8-2Efh, IRQ 3
B. 3E8-3Efh, IRQ 4
C. 2f8-2ffh, IRQ 3
D. 3f8-3ffh, IRQ 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
COM3 uses IRQ 4 and the base I/O port 03E8h
QUESTION 124:
Which of the interrupts listed below is reserved for the system's real time clock timer?
A: IRQ 4
B: IRQ 5
C: IRQ 6
D: IRQ 7.
E: IRQ 8
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION 125:
You are the technician at Certkiller . You have just received a new printer for testing. You notice that the printer
has IR (Infrared) support. You want to setup a laptop to use this printer via IR (Infrared). What is the IRQ and
DMA channel you would use?
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A: IRQ 3 and DMA 4.
B: IRQ 4 and DMA 3.
C: IRQ 4 and DMA 2.
D: IRQ 5 and DMA 1.
Answer: D
QUESTION 126:
A customer wants you to install a 2.5 inch diskette drive and a 5 inch diskette drive to his computer. How
will you determine the drive letter assignment of the two diskette drives?
A. I/O of the drives.
B. A twist in the cable.
C. Master / Slave jumpers
D. I/O Address of the controller.
Answer: B
QUESTION 127:
You installed a new PCI card into an older PC now the PC will not boot. The PCI card works in a newer
PC. What is the likely problem?
A. The PCI card is using another card's interrupt.
B. The PCI drivers are incompatible with the older PC.
C. The older PC's power supply is not powerful enough for the new PCI card.
D. The PCI card is PC1 2.1 based and the older PC only supports PC1 2.0.
Answer: A
QUESTION 128:
To avoid device conflict, what IRQ should an ISA modem be assigned when installing on a PC that is
using a serial mouse?
A. IRQ 3
B. IRQ 4
C. IRQ 7
D. IRQ 9
Answer: A
QUESTION 129:
In Windows 2000 Professional, Where can device IRQ information be obtained?
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A. Control Panel
B. Device Manager
C. My Computer
D. System Properties
Answer: B
QUESTION 130:
What of the options listed are classified as open interrupts? Select two.
A. IRQ 6
B. IRQ 7
C. IRQ 8
D. IRQ 9
E. IRQ 10
Answer: D, E
IRQ Number Typical Use Description
IRQ 0 System timer This listed below is reserved for the systemtimer. It is never available to peripherals or
other devices.
IRQ 1 Keyboard This interrupt is reserved for the keyboard controller. Even on devices without a keyboard, this
interrupt is
exclusively for keyboard input.
IRQ 2 Cascade interrupt for IRQs 8-15 This interrupt cascades the second interrupt controller to the first.
IRQ 3 Second serial port (COM2) The interrupt for the second serial port and often the default interrupt for the
fourth serial port
(COM4).
IRQ 4 First serial port (COM1) This interrupt is normally used for the first serial port. On devices that do not
use a PS/2 mouse, this
interrupt is almost always used by the serial mouse. This is also the default interrupt for the third serial port
(COM3).
IRQ 5 Sound card This interrupt is the first choice that most sound cards make when looking for an IRQ setting.
IRQ 6 Floppy disk controller This interrupt is reserved for the floppy disk controller.
IRQ 7 First parallel port This interrupt is normally reserved for the use of the printer. If a printer is not being
used, this interrupt can
be used for other devices that use parallel ports.
IRQ 8 Real-time clock This interrupt is reserved for the system's real-time clock timer and can not be used for
any other purpose.
IRQ 9 Open interrupt This interrupt is typically left open on devices for the use of peripherals.
IRQ 10 Open interrupt This interrupt is typically left open on devices for the use of peripherals.
IRQ 11 Open interrupt This interrupt is typically left open on devices for the use of peripherals.
IRQ 12 PS/2 mouse This interrupt is reserved for the PS/2 mouse on machines that use one. If a PS/2 mouse is
not used, the interrupt
can be used for other peripherals, such as network card.
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IRQ 13 Floating point unit/coprocessor This interrupt is reserved for the integrated floating point unit. It is
never available to
peripherals or other devices as it is used exclusively for internal signaling.
IRQ 14 Primary IDE channel This interrupt is reserved for use by the primary IDE controller. On systems that
do not use IDE
devices, the IRQ can be used for another purpose.
IRQ 15 Secondary IDE channel This interrupt is reserved for use by the secondary IDE controller.
QUESTION 131:
Which three of the following configuration settings are stored in EEP-ROMs on a NIC? Select three.
A. IRQ
B. Protocol
C. IP address
D. I/O address
E. MAC address
Answer: A, D, E
QUESTION 132:
Which device normally uses a DMA channel?
A. PCI modem
B. Laser Printer
C. ISA sound card
D. Cable video tuner
Answer: C
QUESTION 133:
After installing or replacing a hard drive, you try to format the drive but get the error message: "invalid
media type". What should you run next?
A. FDISK
B. CHKDSK
C. DISKDIAG
D. SCANDISK
Answer: A
Explanation: Before formatting a hard drive the drive must by partitioned. In older OSes like Windows
9x the FDISK utility can be used to partition a hard disk.
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QUESTION 134:
Which of the following is NOT capable of full-duplex transmission?
A. USB
B. Serial
C. Parallel
D. IEEE 1394
Answer: C
Explanation: The EPP, ECP, and the old Centronics parallell standard are one-way only.
Reference: IEEE1284
Incorrect Answers
USB, serial, and fireware (IEEE 1394) support full-duplex transmissions.
QUESTION 135:
When installing floppy drive, the A drive letter is established_______
A. by the cable
B. through Windows
C. by a jumper on the drive
D. by a jumper on the motherboard
E. I/O-address of the drive
F. I/O-address of the controller
Answer: A
Explanation: The A drive is established by the location of floppy drive at the cable (before or after the
twist of the cable).
Incorrect Answers
B: Floppy drive letter assignment are not software configurable.
C: There are no jumpers on diskette drives.
D: There is no jumper on the motherboard for the diskette drive letter assignment.
E, F: IO-address is not related.
QUESTION 136:
Which device connects to a parallel port?
A. Mouse
B. Joystick
C. External Modem
D. External storage device
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Answer: D
Explanation: External storage devices often use the parallel port.
Incorrect Answers
A: Mouse use serial ports.
B: Joystick use game ports
C: External modems use serial ports.
QUESTION 137:
You have a jumpered modem that could only take the standard COM1 and COM 2 ports. Which step
will help when installing the modem in a Windows 9x PC?
A. Disable the second serial port in CMOS.
B. Free the IRQ tied up by the floppy drive controller.
C. Use manual setting for COM1 and set it to IRQ 4.
D. Ensure that the second and third USB devices are not conflicting with the IRQ.
Answer: C
Explanation: In Windows 9x we can manually configure COM1 for the modem. Furthermore, we should
ensure that COM1 use the standard IRQ value of 4.
Incorrect Answers
A: Disabling the second serial port would not be useful. We have no conflicts.
B: The IRQ used by the floppy controller, IRQ 6, cannot be used. We must the standard IRQ for COM1,
namely IRQ 4.
D: The USB devices on a single USB bus use only a single IRQ:
QUESTION 138:
Which devices can cause interference with a modem connection? (Choose two)
A. Fan.
B. Phone.
C. Printer port.
D. Fax machine.
E. Power supply.
Answer: B, D
Explanation: A phone and a fax machine both use the same telephone connection as the modem. This
could interfere with the modem connection.
Incorrect Answers
A fan, the printer port, and the power supply do not in a direct way interfere with the modem connection.
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QUESTION 139:
Your external modem is not functioning properly and you suspect that a malfunctioning serial port is the
problem. Which tool should you use to test the serial port?
A. Multimeter.
B. Post card.
C. Loopback plug.
D. Null modem cable.
Answer: C
Explanation: Loopback plugs can be used to test local ports of a computer.
Incorrect Answers
A: Measuring the Voltage, Resistance, etc is not of much use when troubleshooting a serial port.
B: A POST card can be used to interpret BIOS POST messages.
D: A null modem cable is used to connect two PCs through the serial port.
QUESTION 140:
Silicon lubricants can be used for?
A. Drive heads
B. SIMM installations
C. Keyboard performance
D. Floppy disk drive door mechanisms
Answer: C
Explanation: Silicon lubricant can be used to improve keyboard performance: remove the keys and
spray silicon lubricant on each bottom side of the keys.
Incorrect Answers
Silicon lubricant is not used for drive heads, SIMM installations or floppy disk drives.
QUESTION 141:
A user often gets "Out of disk space" error. Which actions should you consider? (Choose three)
A. Add more RAM.
B. Add a larger hard drive.
C. Replace diskette drive.
D. Remove unneeded files.
E. DEFRAG the existing hard drive.
Answer: B, D, E
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Explanation:
B: Additional hard drive space is one solution.
D: A more prudent solution is simply to remove unneeded files.
E: Defragmentation only improves the performance of a hard drive. No disk space is freed. However, this is the
third best option.
Incorrect Answers
RAM and the diskette drive do not affect available hard disk space.
QUESTION 142:
What best describes the time it takes CRT's electrons beam to paint the screen from top to bottom in a
monitor?
A. Dot pitch
B. Interlacing
C. Video RAM
D. Refresh Rate
Answer: D
Explanation: The refresh rate is the frequency of the Cathode Ray Tube's (CRT) beam to crossing the
monitor.
Incorrect Answers
A: Dot pitch is a measure of the resolution.
B: Interlacing is a technique where a single frame of screen does not correspond to a single instant in time.
C: The Video RAM is used to store the screen image.
QUESTION 143:
Which Wireless technology makes it possible to connect from cell phones,
PDAs(Personal Digital Assistants)and laptops to compatible printers
from up to one meter away?
A. BlueTooth
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11a
D. IrDA(Infrared Data Assocation).
Answer: D
IrDA has a distance of 1 meter.
Incorrect Answers:
Bluetooth has a distance of 10 meters.
802.11b has a distance of 100 meters.
802.11a has a distance of 50 meters.
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QUESTION 144:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to install a second
Parallel Port in a PC. What resources should she configure the device to use?
A. IRQ=5, I/O=378h
B. IRQ=5, I/O=278h
C. IRQ=3, I/O=378h
D. IRQ=7, I/O=3E8h
Answer: B
Although most computers only have one LPT (parallel) port, a second LPT port can be added but the second
LPT port (LPT2) must use IRQ 5 and I/O 278
QUESTION 145:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
specification IEEE 1284 relates to. What would your reply be?
A. FireWire
B. USB
C. Parallel
D. Serial
Answer: C
QUESTION 146:
Which of the following is a description on an external D shaped connector with a total of 9 male pins in 2 rows?
A: Parallel Port.
B: Serial Port.
C: VGA Video Port.
D: Joy Stick / MIDI Port.
E: USB Port.
Answer: B
QUESTION 147:
A customer installed a new modem now her mouse freezes up. What could be done to correct the problem?
(Choose two)
A: Reboot system.
B: Set the mouse to a different IRQ.
C: Set the modem to a different COM Port.
D: Move the modem to a different expansion slot.
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Answer: C, D
QUESTION 148:
What type of Port does an external modem typically connect to on a PC?
A.Parallel Port
B.SCSI Port
C.Serial Port
D.PS/2 Port
Answer: C.
QUESTION 149:
What is the Maximum transfer speed of ATA 33?
A. 16 Mbps
B. 32 Mbps
C. 33 Mbps
D. 66 Mbps
Answer: C
ATA/33 is an extension to the ATA interface (IDE) that effectively doubles the top data transfer speed of IDE
from 16.6MBytes/second up to 33 MBytes/second. Also known as Ultra-IDE.
QUESTION 150:
Which type of connectors plugs a PS/2 port mouse in to the computer?
A.Mini-Din 6 Pin
B. Din 5 Pin
C. DB-25
D. Centronics 36
Answer: A
QUESTION 151:
With which I/O Port is data transmission sent one bit at a time at rates up to 115.2 Kbps?
A. Serial Port
B. Parallel Port
C. USB Port
D. PS/2 Port
Answer: A
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QUESTION 152:
Which type of connector is the Parallel Port on the back of a PC?
A. DB-15 male
B. DB-25 female
C. DB-25 male
D. Centronix 36 male
Answer: B
QUESTION 153:
FireWire is also referred to as what IEEE standard?
A. 802.11b
B. 807.2
C. 1394
D. 1284
Answer: C
There is a new standard of Firewire called IEEE 1394b offering double the speeds of traditional firewire (up to
800 MB/sec). IEEE1394 plugs won't fit into a IEEE 1394b socket. Note also that most of the new IEEE 1394b
cards are 64 bit cards and fit into server motherboards but don't fit into standard motherboards used in the
average home PC and video editing PC.
QUESTION 154:
ATAPI technology is a standard for which of the following items?
A. CPUs
B. Power supplies
C. Mass storage devices
D. Modulater/demodulater
Answer: C
QUESTION 155:
A user has just purchased a new external modem and wants to install it on his Linux desktop
workstation. What port on the workstation would be used?
A. USB
B. PS/2
C. HD-68
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D. RJ-11
Answer: A
QUESTION 156:
Exhibit
Study the exhibit. When a user installs his new Linux desktop computer, what port would he use to
connect a CAT5 cable to establish a connection on the network?
A. A.
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
QUESTION 157:
Exhibit
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Study the exhibit. A user wants to install an external CDROM drive onto a system. Which interface
should be used?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
QUESTION 158:
What is the smallest storage access unit on an IDE hard drive?
A. Track
B. Sector
C. Partition
D. Cylinder
Answer: B
Explanation: A sector is the smallest storage access unit on an IDE hard drive.
QUESTION 159:
Assuming that the primary and secondary IDE controllers are both enabled, what is the maximum
number of devices that can be connected?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
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D. 6
Answer: B
Explanation: Each IDE controller can host 2 IDE devices; one master and slave. So a maximum of
four IDE devices could be connected.
QUESTION 160:
Which I/O port does the secondary IDE controller use?
A. 134H
B. 168H
C. 170H
D. 1F0H
Answer: C
Explanation: The secondary IDE Channel uses the 170-177 address range
Incorrect Answers
The primary IDE Channel uses the 1F0-1F7 address range.
QUESTION 161:
How many pins does a standard IDE connector have?
A. 34
B. 40
C. 50
D. 68
E. 80
F. 100
Answer: B
Explanation: Internal IDE or EIDE hard disk drive and CD-ROM ribbon cable connection use the IDC
40 connector which has 40 pins.
QUESTION 162:
On a system with one hard drive and one CD-ROM what is the typical placement of the CD-ROM drive?
A. Slave drive on the primary IDE channel.
B. Master drive on the primary IDE channel.
C. Slave drive on the secondary IDE channel
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D. Master drive on the secondary IDE channel
Answer: D
Explanation: The CD-ROM is typically placed as a master on the secondary IDE channel.
QUESTION 163:
An IDE drive can be set to use a specific connector on the cable by?
A. Jumping for cable select.
B. Jumping connector for slave
C. Jumping connector for master
D. Plugging the IDE cable into the second connector on the motherboard.
Answer: A
Explanation: An alternative to the standard master/slave jumpering system used in the vast majority of
PCs is the use of the cable select system. To use cable select, both devices on the channel are set to the
"cable select" (CS) setting, usually by a special jumper.
QUESTION 164:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the IDE ports.
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Answer:
QUESTION 165:
You just installed a new IDE hard drive but your system BIOS will not recognize the new drive. What
should you check first?
A. Cable sequence
B. Jumpers on the hard Drive
C. Drivers that need to be loaded
D. Hard Drive manufacturer Website information
Answer: B
Explanation: The jumpers on the hard drive must be correctly set either to master or to slave. If a single
IDE device is used on IDE channel it must be set to master. If two IDE devices are used on the same IDE
channel one must be set to master and one must be set to slave.
QUESTION 166:
Which steps must you complete when installing a second IDE on the same IDE controller that has an
existing device?
A. Set the drive identification to match.
B. Terminate the second drive properly
C. Set one drive a master and the other a slave.
D. Place the boot drive at the end of the IDE cable.
Answer: C
Explanation: One drive must be set as master and the other must be set as slave. The jumper settings on
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the hard drive are used for this purpose
Incorrect Answers
A: IDE does not, like SCSI, require device identification.
B: IDE does not, like SCSI, require termination.
D: The boot drive is not required to be placed at the end of the IDE cable.
QUESTION 167:
You have installed a new CD-ROM drive on the secondary controller with an IDE external storage
device and now neither device works. What should you do?
A. Install new CD-ROM drivers.
B. Check master/slave jumpers.
C. Plug in the CD-ROM drive power cable.
D. Delete the drivers for the external storage device.
Answer: B
Explanation: Each IDE channel can host two IDE devices. One of the them must be configured as master
and the other one must be configured as slave. Master and slave configuration are done by jumpers in
the IDE devices.
Incorrect Answers
A: CD-ROM drivers would not get the external storage device to work.
C: A unplugged power cable of the CD-ROM would not cause both devices to malfunction.
D: Deleting existing drivers would make the matters worse.
QUESTION 168:
You have an older PC that only has one IDE interface. One IDE hard drive and one IDE CD-ROM drive
are also installed on the PC. How should you add a second IDE hard drive?
A. Install a SCSI card.
B. Install an add-on IDE interface card.
C. Use an IDE cable that has extra connections on it.
D. Use the existing free connector on the floppy drive cable.
Answer: B
Explanation: Each IDE interface can only support two IDE devices. To add a third IDE device we must
add another IDE interface. Installing an add-on IDE interface card would provide a second IDE channel.
Another two IDE devices could be installed.
Incorrect Answers
A: SCSI cards do not support IDE drives.
C: Each IDE channel can only support two IDE devices. There are no IDE channels cables that allow three or
more IDE devices on a single IDE channel.
D: The floppy interface cannot be used for IDE devices.
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QUESTION 169:
You just installed a second IDE slave hard drive to the primary controller in your Windows 9x system.
You double click my computer and can't see the second drive. What are the reasons for this? (Choose
two)
A. Your hard drive is not partitioned.
B. The BIOS has not been updated.
C. The floppy drive is not connected.
D. The proper drivers are not loaded.
E. Device manager needs to be refreshed.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
A: The hard drive might not be partitioned and formatted. It would not show up until it is partitioned.
B: The system might be unable to detect the hard drive. A BIOS upgrade might enable the system to detect the
second drive.
Incorrect Answers
C: This is a hard drive problem, not a floppy drive problem. These problems are not directly connected.
D: IDE hard drives do not require device drivers.
E: Refreshing the Device Manager would not have any positive effect of the configuration.
QUESTION 170:
Which of the following must be changed when replacing a hard drive? (Choose two)
A. Voltage.
B. DMA channel.
C. Cable orientation.
D. Controller address.
E. Drive select jumper.
Answer: C, E
Explanation: When a drive is replaced the cable orientation and the drive select jumper must be used in
an appropriate way.
Incorrect Answers
Voltage, DMA channel, and Controller Address are non-configurable settings on a hard drive.
QUESTION 171:
Which settings determine which IDE device are master and which is slave?
A. Hardware settings on the device.
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B. Hardware settings on the motherboard.
C. Software settings on the operating system.
D. Hardware settings on the IDE controller board.
Answer: A
Explanation: The jumper settings on the hard drive are used to configure the drive either as master or as
slave.
QUESTION 172:
How many IDE devices can connect on a single IDE channel?
A. I
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Each IDE channel supports two IDE devices. Ordinarily the motherboard contains one IDE
controller and two IDE channels.
QUESTION 173:
Which address does the primary IDE controller use by default?
A. 130H
B. 170H
C. 1F0H
D. 300H
Answer: C
Explanation: The primary IDE controller uses the I/O address IF0H.
Check in Device Manager.
Incorrect Answers
A, D: These addresses do not apply.
B: The 170H address is used by the secondary channel
QUESTION 174:
A service technician just added a slave hard drive to a working PC. When powered on the PC just gives a
blank screen. What is the most likely cause?
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A. Missing floppy cable.
B. CMOS configuration error.
C. Hard drive cable connection.
D. Incompatible slave hard drive.
Answer: D
Explanation: The slave driver could be incompatible with the current system.
Incorrect Answers
A: Floppy cables are not used with hard drives.
B: Hard drives are seldom needs to be configured in BIOS in modern computers.
C: A faulty hard drive connection would not prevent computer from starting.
QUESTION 175:
What must you do to attach a new IDE hard drive? (Choose three)
A. Select a unique ID
B. Set the termination jumpers
C. Set the master/slave jumper
D. Ensure proper cable orientation
E. Install drive bay and secure it properly
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation: The new IDE drive must be set to master or slave. It should then be physically installed in
the drive bay and secured. Finally the cable orientation must be appropriate.
Incorrect Answers
A: IDE drives do not use unique IDs like SCSI devices do.
B: No terminations are used on IDE cabling. SCSI use termination.
QUESTION 176:
What can be done with a system when its IDE controller fails on the motherboard? (Choose two)
A. Install a new driver.
B. Reset the ROM BIOS.
C. Replace the hard drive.
D. Replace the motherboard.
E. Install an IDE add-on card.
Answer: D, E
Explanation: Since the system only has one IDE controller which handles two IDE interfaces you must
either replace the motherboard or install an IDE add-on card.
Incorrect Answers
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A: Device drivers are not used for the IDE controller.
B: Resetting the BIOS would most likely have not affect on the IDE controller.
C: The IDE controller is failing, not any hard drives.
QUESTION 177:
A Hard rive is showing up as the Primary Slave instead of the Primary Master. What is the Problem?
A. The wrong cable is plugged in to the harddrive.
B. The hardware jumpers are configured wrong.
C. The harddrive is plugged into the wrong port
D. The harddrive is defective.
Answer: B
This is a configuration error. It could either be the hardware jumpers on the hard drive, or connected two the
wrong connecter on the cable (not an option here).
QUESTION 178:
How many IDE devices can be supported by a main board with 4 IDE channels?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C
Each IDE channel supports two IDE devices.
QUESTION 179:
You are adding a second Harddrive to a PC. What should you set the jumpers to?
A. Both cable select.
B. First device Master and the second cable select.
C. First device as cable select and the second as Slave.
D. First device as Master and the second as Slave.
Answer: D
QUESTION 180:
When installing an IDE cable, a technician MUST always ensure that the ___________.
A. power cable is plugged in and the power is on.
B. red or blue stripe on the cable matches up to pin 1 on the drive connector.
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C. floppy drive cable is connected before the IDE cache.
D. red or blue stripe on the cable matches the pin 40 on the Hardware.
Answer: B
QUESTION 181:
How would you advice the Certkiller trainee A+ technician to install a harddrive when the system
currently has a Harddrive on the primary IDE channel jumpered as Master and a CD-ROM drive
jumpered as Slave? Bear in mind that there are no devices on the secondary IDE channel and that the
new harddrive should be installed without having to remove the current harddrive.
A. Install the new drive on the secondary IDE channel and jumper it as a cable select.
B. Move the CD-ROM drive to the secondary channel and install the new Harddrive on the primary channel
jumper it as Slave.
C. Install the new drive on the primary IDE channel and jumper it as cable select.
D. Install the new drive on the secondary IDE channel and jumper it as cable Master.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Placing the second harddrive on a separate IDE channel would improve I/O performance
Incorrect Answers:
B: This will require more effort than just installing the new drive on the second IDE channel.
C: We would need to remove one of the drives currently on the primary IDE channel before we can install the
new drive on that channel because IDE channels can only support two drives.
D: This could work. However, some harddrives require a slave to be present when the drive is configured as
master. Setting the jumper to cable select will be the better option.
QUESTION 182:
What is the minimum requirement in the number of Harddrives necessary to implement RAID 1?
A: 1 Harddrive.
B: 2 Harddrive.
C: 3 Harddrive.
D: 4 Harddrive.
Answer: B
QUESTION 183:
Which of the following transfers data in burst mode at a rate of 33.3 Mbps?
A: ATAPI
B: Ultra DMA
C: EIDE
D: IDE
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Answer: C
QUESTION 184:
You install a new DVD ROM drive and a new CD-RW drive on the same IDE channel in a PC. When you
boot the PC, only one of the new drives is present.
What is the MOST likely cause of this problem?
A. Both drives are set to Master.
B. Both drives are set to Slave.
C. One of the drives was not detected by PnP (Plug and Play).
D. The wrong type of ribbon cable was used.
Answer: A
QUESTION 185:
You just installed a second IDE Slave Harddrive to the primary controller in a Windows 98 system.
However, the operating system does not recognize the second drive. Why? (Choose two)
A. The Harddrive is not partitioned.
B. The BIOS has not been updated.
C. The floppy drive is not connected.
D. The proper drivers are not loaded.
E. Device Manager needs to be refreshed.
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 186:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee notices that the Device
Manager displays a yellow sign with an exclamation mark next to the secondary IDE controller on a PC.
She wants to know what the exclamation mark means.
What would you say?
A. The device has been disabled.
B. Automatic settings for that particular device have been overridden.
C. The system has no idea what this particular device is.
D. A device is in a problem state or not functioning properly.
Answer: D
QUESTION 187:
You are the technician at Certkiller . Your CEO asks you to install a second CD-ROM drive to her
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existing system. What should you do?
A. Install the CD-ROM drive as Master on the primary IDE channel.
B. Install the CD-ROM drive as Slave on the primary IDE channel.
C. Install the CD-ROM drive as Master on the secondary IDE channel.
D. Install the CD-ROM drive as Slave on the secondary IDE channel.
Answer: D
QUESTION 188:
A Certkiller technician is trying to install two IDE drivers as master/slave on the same ATA port. Drive 1
installed first, jumped as a master and the BIOS correctly auto detected it. Drive2 was then jumped as a
slave and installed but the BIOS would not auto detect it. Which of the following would be the next
logical step to trouble shoot the problem?
A. Replace drive 1.
B. Replace drive 2.
C. Make the CD-ROM drive the slave.
D. Configure drive 2 as a master with no slave.
Answer: D
Explanation: We should try the 2nd drive as a master with no slaves to check if the drive has some
physical defect or not.
Incorrect Answers
A: Drive 1 is already detected; there is no need to replace it.
B: We could troubleshoot drive more before replacing it.
C: We want to troubleshoot drive 2, not the CD-ROM.QUESTION 189:
Which of the following would definitely damage an IDE hard drive?
A. Forcing the IDE cable to the floppy drive connector.
B. Connecting one end of the IDE cable the wrong way.
C. Using the Y splitter where the 5- and 12- volt connectors are switched on one end.
D. Connecting to a defective power supply that only gives five volts on the 12volt line.
Answer: C
Explanation: A switch of the 5 volt and 12-volt connectors could cause physical damage to the hard drive.
The appropriate voltage must be used.
Incorrect Answers
A: It is not physically possible to use an IDE cable to floppy drive connector. They are dissimilar.
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B: The IDE cable is symmetrical. It can be used both ways.
D: A power supply that provides 5 volts instead of 12 volt would not cause any harm to the hard drive.
QUESTION 190:
A customer's 2.5 inch IDE hard drive on her Notebook PC does not respond. You want to isolate the
problem. What should you do? (Choose two)
A. Boot from a CD and then run FDISK.
B. Boot from a floppy and then run FDISK.
C. After replacing the Notebooks motherboard confirm whether the hard drive works.
D. Using a 2.5 inch to 3.5 inch IDE cable adapter try a 3.5 inch IDE hard drive on the Notebook's IDE interface.
E. Using a 2.5 inch to 3.5 inch IDE cable adapter try a 2.5 inch IDE hard drive on a desktop PC's IDE interface.
Answer: D, E
Explanation: Either the IDE interface or the 2.5 HD is malfunctioning, and we must discover which. We
could try the 2.5 HD in a Desktop computer, or we could try a 3.5 HD on the LapTop.
Incorrect Answers
A, B: FDISK will give not give any useful information on whether the IDE interface or the HD is at fault.
C: Replacing the motherboard would require lot of effort and is not the best solution.
QUESTION 191:
Your Certkiller trainee is trying to master-slave two known good IDE hard drives as drives C and D. She
installed drive D as the slave to drive C, but it didn't work. The same problem occurred when she
installed drive C as the slave to drive D. Assuming that the trainee used correct jumper settings in both
instances, what should you advise the trainee to do next?
A. Replace drive D, because it is now defective.
B. Conclude that drives C and D are non-standard.
C. Conclude that drives C and D are not compatible.
D. Replace drives C and D, because both are now defective.
Answer: C
Explanation: We have tried both possible master/slave configurations. The conclusion is that the hard
drives are incompatible.
Incorrect Answers
The drives are not to be good so they are not defective or non-standard and there is no need to replace them.
QUESTION 192:
When connecting two PCs via the serial ports, what type of cable should be used?
A.IEEE 1394
B.IEEE 1294
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C. Straightthrough
D. Null Modem
Answer: D
QUESTION 193:
A client wants to have a CD-Writer installed in his PC. What needs to be kept in mind at installation?
A. CD-ROM on different IDE cable than CD Writer
B. Add additional memory to the PC.
C. CD Writer and hard drive on different IDE cable
D. Verify that the two devices are having identical speeds.
Answer: D
QUESTION 194:
When replacing the Master ATA hard drive in a desktop unit, to ensure proper functionality the replacement
hard drive should?
A. be from the same manufacture
B. be the same capacity
C. have the same jumper configuration
D. have the same form factor as the previous drive
Answer: C
QUESTION 195:
Having a single floppy disk drive attached to the data cable on the connector before the twist between
wires 10-16 results in
A. normal operation with the floppy disk drive as the A drive
B. normal operation with the floppy disk drive as the B drive
C. the floppy disk drive not functioning at all
D. the BIOS seeing the drive as a 5.25, 1.2MB floppy disk drive
Answer: C
QUESTION 196:
What are two requirements for installing and running an ATA 100 hard drive at full speed? Select two.
A. 80 wire cable
B. 40 wire cable
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C. ATA 100 hard drive controller
D. AT form factor motherboard
E. PIO mode 4 enabled.
Answer: A, C
A: Ultra ATA/100 is an updated version of the ATA/66 disk drive data bus introduced by Quantum in 1998.
The
ATA/100 specification defines a physical layer operating at 100 megabytes per second (MBs). It is backward
completible with ATA/33 and ATA/66 enabled devices; i.e., ATA/33 and ATA/66 driveces can be connected to
an
ATA/100 interface. ATA/100 drives use the same 80-conductor, 40-pin cable introduced for by ATA/66
standard . if an older, 40-pin IDE cable is connected to an ATA/100(or ATA/66) interface, it will work;
however, the drive will be treated as an ATA/33 drive or, if older, whatever the drive actually is.
Not E:
Ultra DMA
Mode
Cycle Time
(nanoseconds)M
aximum
Transfer
Rate(MB/s)
Defining Standard
Mode 0
240
16.7
ATA/ATAPI-4
Mode 1
160
25.0
ATA/ATAPI-4
Mode 2
120
33.3
ATA/ATAPI-4
Mode 3
90
44.4
ATA/ATAPI-5
Mode 4
60
66.7
ATA/ATAPI-5
Mode 5
40
100.0
ATA/ATAPI-6?
QUESTION 197:
On which two levels of RAID can only two hard drives be used? Select two.
A. RAID Level 0
B. RAID Level 5
C. RAID Level 1
D. All RAID levels use only two hard drives.
Answer: A, C
A: Disk mirroring
C: Disk striping
Not B: At least three drives.
QUESTION 198:
What happens when you mix SCSI SE and SCSI LVD devices? Select all that appy.
A. The system does not start
B. Data gets corrupted.
C. The computer explodes
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D. Blue Screens
E. Drives become unstable
Answer: A, B, D, E
When you mix SCSI drive types, Single Ended (SE) and
Low Voltage Differential (LVD), on the same SCSI bus, several
problems can occur. The symptoms may include, but are not
limited to, the system not starting, data corruption, blue
screens, and drives becoming unstable.
Reference: http://support.microsoft.com/?kbid=285013
QUESTION 199:
How would an ID logical 3 be set on a three-bit jumper block on a SCSI hard disk drive?
A. 010
B. 011
C. 111
D. 101
Answer: B
Explanation: 3 decimal is 011 binary (4*0+2*1+1*1=3).
QUESTION 200:
Why can multiple SCSI devices work on the same channel?
A. No two devices are made exactly the same.
B. Each manufacturer codes its equipment number.
C. Each can be configured with a unique identification number.
D. The first device is set as master and others are set slave.
Answer: C
Explanation: By using a unique identification number the SCSI devices can use the same channel.
Incorrect Answers
A: Multiple devices with same brand and model can be use on a single SCSI chain.
B: Network adapters have unique identification number, but SCSI device do not.
D: Master and slave are use IDE channels, not on SCSI chains.
QUESTION 201:
Which expansion slot can a SCSI adapter plug into? (Choose three)
A. PCI
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B. USB
C. EISA
D. VL-BUS
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
A: Most SCSI adapters use the PCI bus.
C: Some SCSI adapters still use the EISA bus.
D: Only very old SCSI adapters use the VL-BUS.
Incorrect Answers
B, E: A SCSI adapter cannot be plugged into USB or IEEE 1394 (fireware).
QUESTION 202:
Which of the following expansion slots can a SCSI adapter plug into? (Choose two)
A. PCI
B. USB
C. EISA
D. IEEE 1264
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: A, C
Explanation: SCSI adapters can either use PCI slots or EISA slots. Most modern SCSI cards use PCI
slots.
QUESTION 203:
What is the highest address that can be referred on a three-position SCSI-2 jumper block?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 8
D. 15
Answer: B
Explanation: The highest binary value with three digits is 111. In decimal this corresponds to 4+2+1=7.
QUESTION 204:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the SCSI connector.
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Answer:
Explanation:
The classical SCSI interface.
QUESTION 205:
Which type of field replaceable unit is a SCSI host adapter?
A. CPU
B. I/O card
C. Video Card
D. Hard Drive
Answer: B
Explanation: A SCSI adapter is used for communication. It is an Input/Output card.
QUESTION 206:
Which kind of devices does SCSI support? (Choose three)
A. Modem
B. CD-ROM
C. Tape Devices
D. Hard Drives
E. Video Cards
F. Sound Cards
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation: CD-ROMs, Tape Devices, and Hard Drives are all example SCSI devices. Generally SCSI is
used for huge data volumes at high speeds.
Incorrect Answers
Modems, video cards, or sounds do not use SCSI.
QUESTION 207:
Which items need to be set up on a SCSI drives? (Choose two)
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A. ID.
B. Voltage.
C. Terminators.
D. Cable length.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
A: To set up SCSI drives we need SCSI ID to identify each SCSI device
C: .The SCSI chain must be terminated at both ends with specific terminators.
Incorrect Answers
B, D: Voltage and cable length are not configurable SCSI settings.
QUESTION 208:
How should you place terminations on a SCSI bus with one internal hard drive and one external
CD-ROM drive?
A. Terminate the hard drive only.
B. Terminate the SCSI interface card.
C. Terminate both the hard drive and CD-ROM drive.
D. Terminate the SCSI card, hard drive and CD-ROM drive.
Answer: C
Explanation: We must terminate both ends in the SCSI chain. We should terminate both the internal
hard drive and the external CD-ROM.
It would look like this:
Terminator<-->Internal SCSI HD<--->Controller<--->External SCSI HD<--->Terminator.
Incorrect Answers
A, B: A SCSI chain must be terminated in both ends.
D: No SCSI chain use three terminations, only two is required.
QUESTION 209:
Which features of a SCSI-2 to enable a device to accept multiple instructions?
A. Line queuing.
B. Dual channel.
C. Multi LUN support.
D. Command queuing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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SCSI-2 supports a feature called command-tag queuing, which enables suitably-equipped operating
systems to issue multiple disk commands to the SCSI adapter without having to serialize the operations.
QUESTION 210:
How many devices can be connected on a fast/wide scsi2 bus?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
Answer: D
Explanation: The fast/wide SCSI2 bus supports 15 devices.
Incorrect Answers
A: Earlier versions of SCSI only supported 7 devices.
B, C: There is no SCSI standard that support 8 or 12 devices.
QUESTION 211:
Which priority settings are given to the SCSI ID number? (Choose two)
A. 0 lowest
B. 0 highest
C. 1 lowest
D. 15 lowest
E. 15 highest
Answer: B, D
Explanation: The highest-priority ID on the SCSI bus is 7. You normally assign this ID to the host
adapter. Next in priority, from highest to lowest, are IDs 6-0 and then 15-8. So 0 has higher priority than
15.
QUESTION 212:
You would have to enable int 13h support on an SCSI controller card in order to use which device?
A. Scanner
B. Bernoulli
C. Tape device
D. Bootable CD-ROM
Answer: D
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Explanation: The boot loader can use interrupt Int 13h calls to find and load the kernel of the system and
any other files needed to boot on SCSI hard drives.
Note: When the operating system or an application wants to access a hard disk in real-address mode, it
normally does it via the BIOS (BASIC Input/Output > System) via the INT 13h services. The BIOS provides a
standard interface to the hard disk. This INT 13h interface allows the operating system and applications to
access the hard disk without the need for the applications to understand the complexities of accessing the hard
disk.
QUESTION 213:
Not including the adapter itself, how many devices can be installed in an Ultra 2 Wide SCSI Bus?
A. 7
B. 15
C. 16
D. 128
Answer: B
16 devices, including the adapter itself. 15 devices, not including the adapter itself.
Technology
Name
Maximum Cable
Length (meters)
Maximum Speed
(MBps)
Maximum Number of
Devices
SCSI-1
6
5
8
SCSI-2
6
5-10
8 or 16
Fast SCSI-2
3
10-20
8
3
20
16
3
20
16
1.5
20
8
1.5
40
16
12
40
8
12
80
16
12
160
16
Wide SCSI2
Fast Wide
SCSI-2
Ultra SCSI3, 8-bit
Ultra SCSI3, 16-bit
Ultra-2 SCSI
Wide Ultra-2
SCSI
Ultra-3
(Ultra160/m)
SCSI
QUESTION 214:
What should be terminated on a SCSI bus with one internal hard drive and one external CDROM?
A. The hard drive only
B. The SCSI interface card only
C. Both the hard drive and the CDROM drive
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D. The SCSI controller, hard drive, and CDROM drive
Answer: C
QUESTION 215:
What is the main communication method from one personal digital assistant to another personal digital
assistant?
A. IR
B. USB
C. RS 232
D. IEEE1394
Answer: A
Explanation: PDAs (personal digital assistants) use wireless Infrared (IR) to communicate.
QUESTION 216:
Which of the following devices may have the same looking connector? (Choose two)
A. USB printer
B. VGA monitor
C. Serial mouse
D. SCSI scanner
E. Parallel printer
Answer: D, E
Explanation: SCSI scanners and parallel printers might have the same looking connector.
QUESTION 217:
Which AT command is used to reset your Modem's configuration?
A. AT
B. ATD
C. ATH
D. ATZ
Answer: D
Explanation: The ATZ command is used to reset the modem.
Incorrect Answers
A: The AT command lets you know that your modem is plugged in and turned on. The mode should respond
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with OK.
B: The ATD command is takes the phone off the hook and dials a number if one is included with the command.
C: The ATH command is used to hang up the connection.
QUESTION 218:
The modem will not dial out. What is the most likely cause of the problem? (Choose two)
A. Cable is not plugged in.
B. The phone line is defective.
C. The Modem is set for tone dial.
D. The internet service provider is down.
E. The modem is set to disable call waiting.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
The most likely problems are a disconnected cable (A) or incorrect modem configuration. The next most likely
cause would be a defective phone line (B).
Incorrect Answers
C: Tone dial is the correct modem setting.
D: It is most likely a local problem and not a problem with the ISP.
E Disabling call waiting would not prevent the modem from dialing out.
QUESTION 219:
A technician plugs in a ISDN adapter in the USB Port of a Windows 2000 laptop. The laptop fails to
detect the new device. After inserting the same adapter on a desktop, it correctly detects the adapter.
What should be done to resolve the problem?
A. Restart the laptop.
B. Start the wizard hardware to detect the new hardware.
C. Obtain a new PnP (Play and Play) BIOS.
D. Enable the USB Manager root hub in the Device Manager.
Answer: D
QUESTION 220:
What is the proper storage environment for OPC (Organic PhotoConductive) drums?
D. Humidity free
B. Cool and Dark
C. Cool and Bright
D. Warm and Dark
Answer: B
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Explanation: An OPC drum should be stored cool and dark.
Incorrect Answers
A: It is not of outermost importance to store the OPC drum humidity free.
C: The OPC drum should not be exposed to light.
D: The OPC drum should not be exposed to heat.
QUESTION 221:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the USB connector.
Answer:
Explanation:
The USB connector is flat.
QUESTION 222:
What would a failed processor fan most likely cause? (Choose two)
A. CPU damage
B. System lockups
C. Hard drive failure
D. Floppy drive failure
E. CD-ROM drive failure
Answer: A, B
Explanation: A failed processor fan would cause the CPU to overheat. This could damage the CPU or
make the CPU work incorrectly which would cause system lockups.
Incorrect Answers
C: Hard drives have their own cooling and are not dependant on the CPU fan.
D: Floppy drives have no cooling.
E: CD-ROM drives do not depend on the CPU fan for cooling.
QUESTION 223:
The CEO at Certkiller wants to attach a digital video camera to her PC.
Which computer port should she use?
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A. USB
B. RS-232
C. IEEE 1284
D. IEEE 1394
Answer: D
Explanation: Digital video cameras typically use the fireware port, also known as the IEEE 1394
standard. IEEE 1394 is a faster interface than the USB, RS-232 (serial), and IEEE 1284 (parallel)
interfaces.
QUESTION 224:
What type of heatsink moves heat away from the CPU with no mechanical assistance?
A. Matrix heatsink.
B. Liquid cooled heatsink.
C. Active heatsink.
D. Passive heatsink.
Answer: D
QUESTION 225:
Why should you have slot covers installed in a computer? (Choose two)
A. Keep dust out
B. Improve Air flow
C. Protect against ESD
D. CPU warmer
E. Prevent installing unnecessary components
Answer: A, B
Explanation: The slot covers keep dust out and improve the air flow.
QUESTION 226:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what RAID
levels provide added performance as well as fault tolerance. What would your reply be? (Choose two)
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 0+ 1
D. RAID 5
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Answer: C, D
Explanation:
RAID 0+1 is also called mirroring plus striping. It combines the performance and redundancy benefits of RAID
0 and RAID 1.
With RAID 5, data is striped at a byte level across multiple disk drives with parity information distributed
among all the disks. If a single disk drive fails, the original data can be re-created by doing the reverse of the
parity calculation. RAID 5 exacts a performance impact for writes because of the parity calculation, but yields a
performance increase on reads.
Incorrect Answers:
A: RAID 0, which is also called striping, provides increased read and write performance but does not provide
redundancy.
B: RAID 1, which is also called mirroring, provides redundancy by duplicating the exact contents of one drive
onto another. However, it has an adverse impact on read/write performance because data must be written to
both drives.
QUESTION 227:
A customer receives 1 long and 2 short beeps when he boots his PC. What does this beep sequence
indicate?
A. A system board failure
B. Power supply voltage is low
C. A faulty 3270 keyboard card
D. A problem with the video adapter
Answer: D
Explanation:
The original IBM Error Codes has a 1 long and 2 short beep error code which indicates a display adapter
(MDA, CGA) problem.
Incorrect Answers:
A: An error code with 1 long and 1 short beep indicates a system board error.
B: There is not POST routine to check the power supply voltage. If the voltage is too low, the PC won't boot.
C: An error code with 3 long beeps indicates a 3270 keyboard card error.
QUESTION 228:
Uninterruptible power supply is also known as?
A. Surge Strip
B. Power Helper
C. Battery Backup
D. Circuit Breaker
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Answer: C
Explanation: Sometimes Battery Backup is used to denote Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS).
Incorrect Answers
A: Surge suppressors, maybe we can call them surge strips, are devices used to filter out the effects of voltage
spikes and surges that are present in commercial power sources and smooth out power variations. The they do
offer any uninterruptible supply of power however.
B: There is no such thing as a Power Helper in this context.
D: A circuit breaker is out of context here.
QUESTION 229:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
defragmentation refers to. What would your reply be?
A. Deleting files
B. Reformatting
C. Putting files together
D. Adding a partition
Answer: C
QUESTION 230:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to fix file-based disk
errors on a Windows XP Professional computer. What command line utility can she use?
A. SCANREG.EXE
B. DEFRAG.EXE
C. SCANDISK.EXE
D. CHKDSK.EXE
Answer: D
QUESTION 231:
You are the technician at Certkiller . The onboard VGA card on the company CEO's PC fails. You install
a new AGP VGA card in the computer.
What should you do next?
A. Connect the old and the new card together.
B. Disable the onboard VGA card.
C. Uninstall the old VGA driver.
D. Configure the computer to use multiple monitors.
Answer: B
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QUESTION 232:
Before beginning a hardware upgrade on a PC, the A+ certified Technician should?
A. Make sure all data has been backed up.
B. Make plans for the proper disposal of the old parts.
C. Reformat the harddisk to dispose of confidential data.
D. Download the Latest BIOS and drivers for the existing components.
Answer: A
No vital user data should be lost.
QUESTION 233:
Which of the following motherboard components are FRUs (Field Replaceable Units)? (Choose Two).
A. CPU
B. Chipset
C. Memory Modules
D. L3 Cache
Answer: A, C
The CPU and Memory Modules can be replaced.
QUESTION 234:
What enables hot swap capability for a laptop PC card?
A. A PnP(Plug and Play) Bios
B. CardBus Socket Services.
C. Software Raid Support.
D. PnP (Plug and Play) supported Operating System.
Answer: B
QUESTION 235:
A customer wants to upgrade his Windows 98 computer to Windows XP Professional, the computer has a
733 MHz processor and 192 MB RAM with 8.7 GB of free disk space. Is this computer capable of
running Windows XP Professional?
A. No
B. It needs more memory.
C. Yes
D. The processor needs to be upgraded.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
The minimum system requirement for Windows XP Professional are:
* An Intel pentium 2 233 MHz COU or AMD equivalent, although 300 MHz CPU is recommended;
* 64 MB Ram, with MB Ram being recommended; and
* 2 GB Hard Drive with an additional 1.5 GB free space
QUESTION 236:
Which of the following items are responsible for running the POST?
A. MBR (Master Boot Record)
B. Graphics chipset
C. BIOS
D. System memory
Answer: C
QUESTION 237:
For the main board shown in the graphic, what type of CPU would be used?
A: SECC
B: SPGA
C: PGA
D: FCPGA
Answer: A
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QUESTION 238:
A customer purchased a new multi-function PCMCIA card for his older Pentium class notebook. The
card acts as both a 100 Mbps LAN (Local Area Network) adapter and 56K modem. When the user
inserts the PCMCIA card into the Type II slot on the notebook, the card does not go all the way in.
What could be the problem?
A. The card requires a Type III slot.
B. The user is inserting the card upside down.
C. Old Pentium class notebooks only support single function PCMCIA cards.
D. This card requires a CardBus slot.
Answer: A
One of the differences is physical size. A Type I card fits into a Type II slot. A Type I and Type II cards fit into
a Type III slot. Due to the larger physical size, the Type III card does not fit into a Type II or Type I slot.
Similarly, a Type II card does not fit into a Type I slot.
Also note that some Type II cards requires either a dual Type II or a single Type III slot.
QUESTION 239:
A standard laptop has two PCMCIA slots. A type II PCMCIA modem is installed in the one slot. You
want to add a type III PCMCIA Harddrive card.
What configuration could you use?
A. This can't be done. Type III cards will not work in a standard laptop.
B. Remove the type II PCMCIA card to install type III card.
C. Install the Harddrive card in the other PCMCIA slot.
D. Plug the type III PCMCIA card in the USB port.
Answer: B
One type III card may be installed instead of two type II cards.
QUESTION 240:
Which of the following onboard devices on a motherboard drive can be updated through software?
A. chip set
B. data bus
C. system BIOS
D. IDE controller
Answer: C
Explanation: The System BIOS can be updated with a Flash BIOS upgrade program usually resident on
a diskette.
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QUESTION 241:
What does an error during POST on a PC mean? (Choose two)
A. BIOS requires resetting.
B. Hardware failure.
C. HIMEM.SYS is missing or faulty.
D. The drivers for the device are incorrect.
E. The Windows file system is generating an error.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
A: POST errors could disappear after a reset of the BIOS.
B: Errors during POST are hardware-related.
Incorrect Answers
C: Missing files or incorrect files would not generate POST errors.
D: Drivers are software-related. BIOS handles hardware.
E: POST errors are not affected by the operating systems.
QUESTION 242:
During boot up, a user receives POST error message that the keyboard is NOT connected. The user
checks that the keyboard is connected and reboots the computer only to receive the same message. What
should you do?
A. Unplug the computer, and check the hard drive to make sure it is connected.
B. Replace the keyboard.
C. Boot into the BIOS and check the boot sequence.
D. Replace the motherboard.
Answer: B
QUESTION 243:
What is an easy way to increase system performance?
A. add/upgrade memory
B. add/upgrade BIOS
C. add/upgrade the motherboard
D. add/upgrade the operating system
Answer: A
QUESTION 244:
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What is the most important feature to look for when, replacing the mouse?
A. color
B. connector
C. the number of buttons
D. the manufacturer and model number
Answer: B
Explanation: There are several different mouse connectors (serial, USB, IR). We must make sure that we
choose the correct conenctor.
QUESTION 245:
Which test checks the transmitter and receiver of a local modem?
A. Data-parityB. Analog loop back
C. Local digital loop back
D. Remote digital loop back
Answer: C
Explanation: The Local Digital loop back test is used to check the transmitter and receiver of the local
modem.
QUESTION 246:
When powering on a system, you receive a keyboard error. What generates this message?
A. CMS
B. ASPI
C. POST
D. POSIX
Answer: C
Explanation: The Power On Self Test (POST) checks the system hardware and could generate a
keyboard error.
QUESTION 247:
What is the newest type of serial bus architecture?
A. DVDB. USB
C. ATA
D. ST-506
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Answer: B
Explanation: USB is newer serial bus architecture compared to the classical serial bus.
Note: IEEE 1394 (fireware) is an even faster serial bus architecture.
Incorrect Answers
DVD, ATA, and ST-506 are not serial bus architectures.
QUESTION 248:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the mini DIN connector.
Answer:
Explanation:
The mini DIN connector is used for the Keyboard.
It is similar to PS/2 mouse.
QUESTION 249:
How many pins are on a serial port connector? (Choose two)
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 15
E. 25
F. 29
Answer: B, E
Explanation: Serial connectors are either 9 or 25 pins.
DB9:
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DB25:
Incorrect answers:
A, C, F: 8, 10, or 29 pins are rarely used.
D: 15 pins are used for Monitor connectors.
QUESTION 250:
What should you do after installing a new ink-jet cartridge?
A. Reboot your computerB. Print a very detailed picture
C. Adjust the assignment manually
D. Run the printer alignment program
Answer: D
Explanation: The new ink-jet cartridge should be aligned. Most printers have a print alignment software
program.
QUESTION 251:
The customer is complaining that the program applications being displayed on the screen are missing
lines, details and other graphics. How should you change the setting?
A. Reduce hard ware graphics acceleration.
B. Increase hardware graphics acceleration.
C. Increase the horizontal setting on the monitor.
D. Decrease the vertical display settings on the monitor.
Answer: A
Explanation: Reducing the hardware graphics acceleration could help with this problem.
Incorrect Answers
B: Increasing the hardware acceleration would probably make things worse.
C, D: Changing the horizontal or vertical display settings would not address the problem.
QUESTION 252:
How should you clean the CD-ROM media?
A. Wipe it using circular motions.
B. Wipe it using center to edge motions.
C. Dip it in a diluted cleaner solution, and then let it dry.
D. Set clean mode from the CD properties menu.
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Answer: A
Explanation: A CD ROM disk is best cleaned by wiping it with a soft lint-free cloth in a circular manner.
This problem is best prevented by insisting that all those who handle disks have clean hands, and do so
with care.
Incorrect Answers
B: We should take care not to scratch it.
C: You should not dip the CD-ROM media in a solution.
D: There are no commands within the OS to clean the CD-ROM media.
QUESTION 253:
Due to the possibility of brownouts which of the following items will help electronic equipment perform
in an interrupted manner? (Choose two)
A. Strips
B. Extension Cords
C. Line conditioners
D. Battery backup devices
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
C: Line-conditioners ensure that spikes and brownouts do not affect the electronic equipment.
D: Battery backup devices will protect against power loss.
QUESTION 254:
Which tools can be used to clean the inside of a computer? (Choose two)
A. Magnet
B. Canned air
C. Small brush
D. SIMM extractor
E. Ammonia based cleaner
Answer: B, C
Explanation: A small brush, canned air, or a small vacuum cleaner (not listed here) could be used to
clean the inside of a computer.
Incorrect Answers
A, E: A magnet or ammonia based cleaner could cause harm to the computer.
D: A SIMM extractor is not used for cleaning.
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QUESTION 255:
When you arrive at the customer's desk the computer is giving a continuous beep noise that will not stop.
What is the problem?
A. Virus was down loaded from the internet.
B. BIOS on the motherboard was corrupted.
C. Improper driver was loaded on the hard drive.
D. A key on the key board is stuck in the down position.
Answer: D
Explanation: A stuck key could cause the noise.
Incorrect Answers
It is unlikely that a virus, corrupted BIOS, or an improper driver would have this effect.
QUESTION 256:
After attempting to dial-up to internet, your mouse pointer freezes. What should be your first diagnostic
step in solving the problem?
A. Check for IRQ conflict.
B. Check for browser updates.
C. Check to see if the correct mouse driver is loaded.
D. Check to see, if you are still connected to internet.
Answer: A
Explanation: There could be an IRQ conflict between the mouse and the modem.
QUESTION 257:
What would cause the error message "Bad or missing operating system at boot up"?
A. No CD-ROM
B. Missing or corrupt boot sector
C. Slave hard drive not powered up
D. A bad floppy drive cable connection
Answer: B
Explanation: The boot sector is used to launch the boot process. If the boot sector is corrupt this error
message would occur.
QUESTION 258:
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You find that you have no audio. Which of the following does not apply?
A. The sound card is set to a 66MHz bus speed.
B. You should check to see if Windows volume control is up.
C. The speaker cable is not plugged into the right connection.
D. An audio adapter needs hardware resources such as an IRQ.
Answer: A
Explanation: Sound cards are not configured with bus speeds.
QUESTION 259:
A customer calls and says his computer will not boot. You have determined that no sounds are coming
from the system and none of the lights are on. What should you take to the site to fix the problem?
A. CPU
B. Modem
C. Video Card
D. Power Supply
Answer: D
Explanation: It seems that the system does not have any power. We should bring a replacement power
supply.
QUESTION 260:
The computer identifies a non-maskable interrupt error. What is most likely cause of this error?
A. Lost clustersB. Defective RAM
C. The I/O controller
D. Corrupted software
Answer: B
Explanation: A non-maskable interrupt error indicates a hardware error. A defective RAM is a likely
cause of this problem
Incorrect Answers
A, D: A non-maskable error is not caused by lost clusters or by corrupted software.
C: The I/O controller is not a likely cause of this problem.
QUESTION 261:
The mouse pointer moves erratically. What is the possible cause?
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A. The ball is dirty
B. Is not connected
C. Driver is not installed properly.
D. It has an incorrect IRQ setting.
Answer: A
Explanation: The most likely cause of this problem is that the ball of the mouse is dirty. It should be
cleaned.
Incorrect Answers
B: If the mouse is disconnected the mouse pointer would not move.
C: It seems unlikely that an incorrect mouse driver would cause this behavior.
D: The mouse has no IRQ setting.
QUESTION 262:
What causes chip creep?
A. Thermal expansion and contraction.
B. Overheating of chips due to electrical shorts.
C. Chips that don't communicate with other chips.
D. Chips memory that is incompatible with the motherboard.
Answer: A
Explanation: The process of chips that work their way out over time from their slots is called chip creep.
It is caused by changes in temperate that make the chip expand and contract.
QUESTION 263:
Which of the following are valid translations in the hard drive settings in the CMOS? (Choose three)
A. CHSB. LBA
C. TRA
D. Extended CHS
E. Extended TRA
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers
A: CHS = Cylinder, Head, Sectors. Early BIOSs had a limitation on the maximum cylinder, head, and sector
(CHS) values allowed.
B: LBA, Logical Block Addressing, is a translation standard for BIOS to support IDE drives larger than 528
MB.
D: Enhanced (or extended) CHS allows drives to be manufactured a little faster and more easily than LBA.
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QUESTION 264:
What would cause a keyboard error message? (Choose two)
A. Stuck key
B. Pressing the F5 key
C. Keyboard not plugged in
D. Pressing CTRL + ALT + ESC
Answer: A, C
Explanation: A stuck key or an absent keyboard would cause a keyboard error message.
Incorrect Answers
B, D: Pressing keys would not cause a keyboard error message.
QUESTION 265:
Which is the fastest speed?
A. 2 nsB. 20 ns
C. 50 ns
D. 100 ns
Answer: A
Explanation: The fast speed is the smallest time: 2 nanoseconds.
Access time is often measured in nanoseconds (ns).
QUESTION 266:
How many pins are on a VGA connector?
A. 9
B. 15
C. 25
D. 50
Answer: B
Explanation: There are 15 pins in a VGA connector. 3 rows with 5 pins each.
QUESTION 267:
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A monitor refresh rate in Windows 95 was changed and now the desktop in not available. What is the
first step to correct this problem?
A. Replace the video card.
B. Boot windows in safe mode.
C. Run VIDFIX.EXE from a DOS prompt.
D. Change the video setting in the BIOS configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation: We must reboot in Safe mode and change to VGA mode, and then reboot normally.
Incorrect Answers
A: It is a configuration problem, not a hardware problem.
C: There is no VIDFIX.EXE DOS utility that can help fix the configuration problem.
D: There are no video settings in BIOS for the refresh rate.
QUESTION 268:
A user calls support and says that his system will not boot up. The error message that is displayed is
'missing operating system'. What can cause this?
A. A non bootable disk is in the disk drive.
B. The Windows 9x CD is in the CD ROM drive.
C. The Windows 9x CD is not in the CD ROM drive.
D. The key board is not working or is plugged in improperly.
Answer: A
Explanation: A non-bootable diskette in the disk drive could cause this problem if the boot sequence lists
A: before C:.
Incorrect Answers
B: The Windows 9x CD is bootable. The system would be able to boot from it, however only the Windows 9x
installation program would be started.
C: An empty CD-ROM drive would never cause this error message.
D: The keyboard failure could not cause this error message.
QUESTION 269:
What is the most important difference between standard USB and IEEE1394?
A. IEEE1394 is faster.
B. USB cable is bigger.
C. USB is Plug and Play.
D. IEEE1394 is hot swappable.
Answer: A
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Explanation: IEE1394 (fireware) is a more recent and faster interface compared to the USB interface.
Incorrect Answers
B: The cables are about the same size.
C: Both USB and IEE1394 support Plug and Play.
D: Both USB and IEE1394 are hot swappable.
QUESTION 270:
While playing a stereo CD audio, adjusting the left hand speaker's volume from windows, effects the
right hand speakers instead. What are the most probable causes? (Choose two)
A. An IRQ conflict exists.
B. The volume controls are muted.
C. An incorrect CD audio cable was used.
D. You need to run windows utility from the correct working directory.
E. The right hand speaker is plugged at the wrong connector on the sound card.
Answer: C, E
Explanation: The problem could be with a defect CD audio cable or simply that the right and left hand
speakers are connected in a reversed way.
Incorrect Answers
A: An IRQ conflict would not produce this error.
B: With muted volume controls we would have no sound.
D: This is not a configuration problem that can be solved by configuration of Windows.
QUESTION 271:
The user says that after downloading a program from the internet the computer will not boot. What is
the first thing to ask the user?
A. Were any modem errors were reported.
B. If the network used for internet access.
C. Did you scan the file for viruses before you opened it?
D. Was the downloaded software compatible with your system?
Answer: C
Explanation: Files downloaded from the Internet could contain viruses. A virus could prevent a system
from booting.
Incorrect Answers
A: Modem errors are not related to boot problems.
B: We already know that the network is used for internet access.
D: Incompatible software is less likely to cause this problem. Incompatible software would most likely not be
able to install.
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QUESTION 272:
When installing an external serial modem, what type of port would the modem be connected to the PC?
A. DB-9 Male
B. DB-9 Female
C. DB-25 Female
D. RJ-11 Female
Answer: B
Modem connect to the PC by a serial port.
The most common type of serial port today is the DB-9 female port.
QUESTION 273:
Narrow SCSI Supports:
A. 6 Devices
B. 8 Devices
C. 12 Devices
D. 16 Devices
Answer: B
Narrow SCSI is the term that is used for 8-bit SCSI. It can usually be identified by 50-pin connectors. This is
the riginal form of SCSI, transmitting data at 5MBps and provides support for up to 7 devices and the Host
adapter.
QUESTION 274:
A technician is asked to replace the display on a customer's computer.
This card can easily be recognized by which of the following connectors?
A. 9pin D-SUB
B. 15pin MOLEX
C. 9pin Mini-Dim
D. 15pin D-SUB
Answer: D
QUESTION 275:
A user adds a mouse to his laptop. The laptop does NOT automatically
detect the new mouse. What should the user do?
A. Install the drivers of the mouse
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B. Configure the port as a Mouse port
C. Restart the computer
D. Start the harware wizard
Answer: A
The mouse might not be recognized by the Operating System. In this case specific drivers supplied by the
manufacturer must be installed.
QUESTION 276:
What is the first thing a technician should ask a customer if the customer is complaining about programs
stalling or freezing?
A. How much memory does the customer have?
B. How much free Harddrive space does the customer have?
C. What does the customer have running already?
D. What programs is the customer trying to use?
Answer: A
QUESTION 277:
You are the technician at Certkiller . You have obtained the problem symptom information from a user.
Which question you should ask the user NEXT in order to isolate the problem?
A. What type of processor do you have?
B. Is a modem installed?
C. What Operating System are you running?
D. What has changed?
Answer: D
QUESTION 278:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know how many pins
an Ultra 320 SCSI cables has. What would your reply be?
A. 36
B. 50
C. 68
D. 80
Answer: C
QUESTION 279:
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You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
removable adapter standards are used on laptop computers. What would your reply be? (Choose two)
A. C-Bus
B. CardBus
C. MCA
D. PCMCIA
Answer: B, D
Incorrect Answers:
A: C-Bus is a protocol for home automation technology.
C: MCA (Micro Channel Architecture) is an IBM propriety expansion bus developed for the PS/2.
QUESTION 280:
A customer has an IBM desktop computer. When the computer boots up, the customer hears one short beep
after the unit completes the POST. What does this indicate?
A: A system board error.
B: A memory error.
C: A video error.
D: No errors.
Answer: D
QUESTION 281:
You are the technician at Certkiller . You replace a defective CR-ROM drive with a new CD-ROM drive. The
new CR-ROM drive can read data CDs, but does not play music CDs. What is the MOST likely problem?
A: The audio cable is not connected to the drive.
B: The ribbon cable is not connected to the drive.
C: The power cable is not connected to the drive.
D: The CD-ROM drivers were not installed.
Answer: A
QUESTION 282:
Which of the following is the MOST common hot-swappable technology used for adding peripheral devices for
storage, communication, and other I/O components in portable computers?
A. PCMCIA
B. 802.11b
C. CD-RW
D. Serial
Answer: A
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QUESTION 283:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the
RS-232 interface on a printer is also known as.
What will your reply be?
A. The Centronics
B. The Parallel
C. The SCSI
D. The Serial
Answer: D
QUESTION 284:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know how many
devices can you connect to a IEEE 1394 (FireWire) port.
What would your reply be?
A. 10
B. 50
C. 63
D. 126
Answer: C
Cable length is limited to about 15 feet between devices. Provisions allow for up to 1023 buses and up to 63
nodes per bus.
QUESTION 285:
You are the technician at Certkiller . Your CEO's system shuts down after running for about 10 minutes.
The BIOS reports the CPU fan RPM of 0. What is the problem?
A. The CPU fan needs to be replaced.
B. The CPU needs to be replaced.
C. The CMOS battery needs to be replaced.
D. The power card needs to be replaced.
Answer: A
QUESTION 286:
You install a CardBus PCMCIA network adapter in a laptop by the system does not recognize the card.
What should you do first when troubleshooting this problem?
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A. Try the network adapter in another slot.
B. Try a non CardBus network adapter.
C. Re-install the Operating System.
D. Upgrade the Operating System.
E. Add more RAM.
Answer: A
QUESTION 287:
A customer's keyboard stops working. You replace the keyboard one that you know is good. However,
the keyboard is still not recognized by the system. What could be the problem?
A. SETUP was not run.
B. The processor is overheating.
C. The BIOS needs to be flashed.
D. The keyboard controller is not working.
Answer: D
Explanation: The keyboard controller could be malfunctioning.
Incorrect Answers
A: There is no need to run SETUP to install a keyboard.
B: Processor overheating is a very unlikely cause of this problem.
C: BIOS upgrades are not required to support new keyboards.
QUESTION 288:
You are the technician at Certkiller . Your CEO complains about a slow connection to the internet. The
CEO is using a 56Kbps Modem. Which of the following are the most likely causes of this problem?
(Choose two)
A. An IRQ conflict
B. Insufficient RAM
C. Out dated modem drive
D. Noise on the telephone line
E. Modem on wrong serial port
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
C: The modem driver could be outdated and the modem could be working at a lower speed.
D: A noisy phone line would also cause slower transfer speeds due to errors which would force retransmissions.
Incorrect Answers
A: An IRQ conflict would prevent all communication; it would not just slow down the traffic.
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B: RAM could slow the computer down in general, but it is not the main cause of a slow internet connection.
E: A wrong serial port would prevent any internet connection, not just slow it down.
QUESTION 289:
Certkiller has a PC with a SCSI chain that currently supports six hard drives, a DVD-ROM drive and a
CD-RW drive. What is unique about each device on the chain?
A. I/O
B. LUN
C. Identification
D. Master or Slave
Answer: C
Explanation: The identification of each device on the SCSI chain must be unique.
A simple SCSI chain works like a network, and, like a network, each device requires its own unique address. A
SCSI device can have any ID number in a range recognized by the host adapter, as long as no other device on
the same chain has been set to the same number.
Incorrect Answers
A: Unique I/O addresses are not required by SCSI devices.
B: It is possible to have a single SCSI ID support more than one device. Logical unit numbers (LUNs) can be
used to provide a unique identifier for up to seven subunits per ID number.
This is not the best answer however.
D: Master and slave settings are used by IDE devices, not by SCSI devices.
QUESTION 290:
A user is experiencing on/off/on connection problems with a newly added USB network adapter on a
Laptop/Notebook. The Laptop/Notebook has the following additional devices attached.
1 Firewire connected hard disk
1 Firewire connected CD-Writer
1 USB Modem
1 Parallel Port connected Printer
1 External Monitor
Which one of the following is the MOST possible explanation of the problem?
A. IRQ conflict with USB modem
B. Power Consumption conflict with Firewire devices
C. RF (Radio Frequency) interference from external monitor.
D. I/O address conflict with the Parallel printer.
Answer: B
QUESTION 291:
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A technician gets a call from a user who is complaining of floppy disks losing the information stored on them.
The technician goes user's desk and finds the user's disk on the top of their monitor. What is the probable cause?
A. The user keeps deleting the files or is not saving them properly to the diskettes.
B. The diskettes are bad
C. The floppy drive is going bad
D. The magnetic field from the monitor is erasing the diskettes
Answer: D
QUESTION 292:
A user complains that a computer monitor experiencing a jitter. Replacing the monitor and video card does not
fix the problem. Which of the following could be causing the problem?
A. ESD (Electrostatic Discharge)
B. Motherboard
C. RAMDAC
D. EMI (Electromagnetic Interference)
Answer: D
QUESTION 293:
A user has a Pentium class system board with a built-in Hard drive controller. The user decides to upgrade the
Hard drive and purchases a 10 GB ATA 100 drive. The drive is installed and the user reports that the BIOS
does NOT recognize the drive. What could be wrong?
A. The system board does not support the drive
B. The drive jumpers need to be changed to ATA 33
C. The wrong Hard drive BIOS driver was installed
D. The Hard drive is not properly grounded
Answer: A
QUESTION 294:
A user reports that when turning on the PC an error message "keyboard is locked" is
displayed. The user needs to be able to use the PC.
What should be done to fix the problem?
A. Turn the key lock on the chassis
B. Replace the Keyboard
C. Push the unlock key on the keyboard
D. Unplug the keyboard and plug it back in.
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Answer: A
Explanation: The system is detecting that the key lock on the front of the case is
locked, and therefore will not boot. The error message usually refers to the
keyboard being locked but this really means the key lock on the front of the system
case.
Diagnosis: The key lock may be indeed locked out. The key lock may also be miswired,
or there could be a fault with the motherboard, or even the keyboard.
Recommendation:
Make sure that no keys are being pressed in on the keyboard when the system is booting.
Unlock the key lock, if it is locked.
Investigate a possible problem with the key lock switch, if it is either unlocked already or
not present on your system case.
Troubleshoot as a motherboard failure.
QUESTION 295:
When typing DIR C: at an A prompt, the following error occurs: "Invalid Media Type".
What is MOST likely the problem?
A. The drive is supported on that PC
B. The drive has not been partitioned
C. The drive has been partitioned, but not formatted
D. The command typed is not supported to run from the A prompt.
Answer: C
Explanation: The system tried to use a disk or other media that is of the incorrect
type.
Diagnosis:
that you tried to use a hard disk volume after partitioning it but before formatting it. For
example, if you are setting up a new system and you partition the hard disk, then boot
from a floppy and type "DIR C:", you will usually get this message. The system looks for
the media type descriptor on the hard disk and doesn't find what it expects, and produces
this message.
Recommendation:
Assuming that this is a new hard disk you are setting up, just format the disk and you are
all set.
If an existing disk produces this error, then it means that something has seriously
corrupted the disk.
QUESTION 296:
If a technician gets frequent general protection faults, this could indicate:
A. Poor quality of memory chips
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B. a hard drive cable connected incorrectly
C. too much RAM is installed
D. incorrect CMOS memory settings
Answer: A
QUESTION 297:
Where is the first place to look when a device has failed?
A. The CMOS
B. Device Manager
C. The Device Driver
D. The Device Firmware
Answer: B
QUESTION 298:
A customer calls and says that their computer is operating very slowly after upgrading from Windows 98 to
windows XP Professional. What two pieces of information are critical in resolving this issue? (Select two.)
A. The brand of computer
B. Amount of RAM installed
C. Processor speed
D. Type of Hard drive installed
Answer: B, C
QUESTION 299:
When typing DIR C: at an A prompt, the following error occurs: "Invalid Media Type".
What is MOST likely the problem?
A. The drive is supported on that PC
B. The drive has not been partitioned
C. The drive has been partitioned, but not formatted
D. The command typed is not supported to run from the A prompt.
Answer: C
Explanation: The system tried to use a disk or other media that is of the incorrect
type.
Diagnosis:
that you tried to use a hard disk volume after partitioning it but before formatting it. For
example, if you are setting up a new system and you partition the hard disk, then boot
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from a floppy and type "DIR C:", you will usually get this message. The system looks for
the media type descriptor on the hard disk and doesn't find what it expects, and produces
this message.
Recommendation:
Assuming that this is a new hard disk you are setting up, just format the disk and you are
all set.
If an existing disk produces this error, then it means that something has seriously
corrupted the disk.
QUESTION 300:
After installing a new floppy drive and rebooting the technician notices that the floppy drive light is
continuously on and will NOT read Floppy disks. What seems to be the problem?
A. The floppy drive is not configured in the BIOS
B. The floppy drive data cable is reversed
C. The floppy drive BIOS driver is the wrong version
D. There is no problem. The drive light indicates that the drive is spinning up.
Answer: B
QUESTION 301:
A user complains that the monitor flickers and displays the wrong colors. He noticed this after installing
the new speakers near the monitor.
What is the most likely cause of the monitor distortion?
A. The speakers near the monitor are unshielded.
B. The video card is defective.
C. The monitor's resolution is too low.
D. The monitor's refresh rate is too low.
Answer: A
QUESTION 302:
A user reports that a PC is experiencing intermittent lockups after installing a sound card. There is a non
PnP (non plug and play) internal modem installed in addition to the new PnP sound card. The PC BIOS
does support PnP devices and PnP-aware operating system is installed. What is the most likely
explanation for this problem?
A. The sound card is conflicting with the modem.
B. The operating system needs to be re-installed.
C. The BIOS needs to be upgraded.
D. The system is overheating.
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Answer: A
QUESTION 303:
Upon power up, the floppy drive's LED is lit up and stays that way.
What is likely cause of this behavior?
A. a floppy drive cable connection that is on backwards
B. floppy drive failure
C. hard drive failure
D. There is no problem. This is standard behavior
E. a disk is left in the floppy drive
F. CMOS configuration error
Answer: A
Explanation: A floppy cable that is installed backwards would keep diskette drive light lit.
QUESTION 304:
A user wants to listen to a CD on a computer running Windows 2000. However, when it starts playing
there are no sounds from the speakers. A technician checks that the speakers are properly connected and
turned on.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The internal audio cable from the CD-ROM to the sound card is not connected.
B. The computer can only play MP3 music and not CD audio.
C. The CD is inserted upside down.
D. Windows 2000 does not come with a CD player application.
Answer: A
QUESTION 305:
After adding multiple devices to a computer, a user discovers that the system is shutting down at random
times.
Which device is the MOST likely source of the problem?
A. memory
B. processor
C. storage
D. power supply
Answer: D
The extra devices that were added recently, need extra power.
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QUESTION 306:
A client has a new PDA that connects to the USB port on the computer. Synchronization works perfectly
on a laptop, but "Cannot Find Device" error occurs on the desktop computer.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The PDA is only licensed to work with one computer.
B. The USB port is disabled or the cable is disconnected.
C. The hard drive on the desktop has no free space.
D. The USB cable is connected backwards.
Answer: B
QUESTION 307:
What should be done if the clock on the PC continually resets itself?
A. replace the CMOS battery
B. check the motherboard firmware
C. observe the PC for problem reoccurrence
D. check the motherboard's oscillator crystal
Answer: A
QUESTION 308:
A user complains that the display on the laptop is distorted. When it reboots, the display has a reddish
tint that does NOT go away. The technician wiggles the laptop and the display returns to normal.
How should the technician proceed?
A. reseat the cable connection on the LCD
B. replace the LCD
C. replace the system board
D. run diagnostics on the video
Answer: A
QUESTION 309:
A user accurately sets the time in the operating system, but when the PC is rebooted the system time is
reset to Jan 1, 1980.
What should be done to correct this?
A. The CMOS battery should be replaced.
B. The internal system clock should be replaced.
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C. The power supply should be replaced.
D. The operating system should be replaced.
Answer: A
QUESTION 310:
What are two main causes of CPU failure? Select two.
A. overheating from improper heat sink and fan usage
B. bent or broken pins from mishandling
C. buffer overflow from malicious software
D. incorrect CPU and CPU socket mismatch
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 311:
A technician installs a SCSI card and three SCSI devices on a new system. The system does not recognize
any of the SCSI devices or the controller. What is the most likely cause?
A. There is an Int13h conflict.
B. There is a SCSI ID conflict.
C. There is an I/O address conflict.
D. There are no Linux drivers installed.
Answer: C
QUESTION 312:
A user adds a serial trackball to his system. Now, neither the existing mouse nor the trackball work.
Which of the following will most likely correct the problem?
A. Reboot the system.
B. Perform a BIOS upgrade.
C. Reconfigure the COM ports.
D. Reinstall the modem drivers.
Answer: C
QUESTION 313:
A user replaces an old 4 GB IDE drive with a new 30 GB IDE drive. During the installation process,
Linux recognizes only 8 GB of the available disk space. Which of the following is most likely the
problem?
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A. The BIOS does not support larger hard drives.
B. The hard disk controller has no LBA capability.
C. The value of the hard disk size in the CMOS is set incorrectly.
D. The hard disk has to be low-level formatted to access the full capacity.
Answer: A
QUESTION 314:
A new PC is delivered to the site. Upon the initial power up, there is no video display and no beeps are
heard, but the hard drive and fans power up. Which of the following has most likely caused this
problem?
A. The mouse is not connected.
B. The diskette drive has failed.
C. The CPU is not seated properly.
D. The network card is not installed.
Answer: C
QUESTION 315:
Which of the following can a parity error indicate?
A. A DIMM is failing
B. The IDE hard drive is corrupt
C. The IRQ settings are incorrect
D. The software is not compatible with the hardware
Answer: A
QUESTION 316:
Linux is being installed on a system that uses SCSI hardware. During partitioning, an error is produced
that says there are no valid devices found on which to install partitions. The hard drive spins up. The
SCSI controller is functioning properly and supported by Linux. The cable is a known good cable and
there is proper termination. What is the problem?
A. The SCSI hard drive is not jumpered to the proper SCSI ID.
B. The SCSI controller needs to be reset to factory defaults.
C. The SCSI controller on the hard drive needs a firmware update.
D. The SCSI controller on the hard drive has an intermittent problem.
Answer: A
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QUESTION 317:
A user installed a new hard drive into a system with an existing hard drive. He then connected a ribbon
cable to the new hard disk. He powered on the computer, but the system did not boot. Which of the
following most likely caused the problem?
A. The hard disk needs a new MBR.
B. The hard disk drive was not low-level formatted first.
C. The controller was damaged by an electrical discharge.
D. The ribbon cable was inserted backward on the hard disk.
Answer: D
QUESTION 318:
Which of the following are important troubleshooting questions to ask a user when gathering
information about an issue? (Choose two)
A. Who caused this issue?B. When did this issue begin?
C. How much did your computer cost?
D. Where did you buy your computer?
E. What were you doing when the issue began?
Answer: B, E
Explanation: In order to determine what caused the problem we should ask when the issue occurred and
what was done immediately before it occurred.
Incorrect Answers
A: This is not the first step. First we determine when the issue occurred and what was done immediately before
it occurred. Then we would be able to find out who or what caused this problem.
C: The cost of the computer not important when you are troubleshooting the computer.
D: For troubleshooting purposes it is not important to know the origin of computer.
QUESTION 319:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what should be
used to extinguish a computer fire.
What would your reply be?
A. A Fire hose
B. A Class A extinguisher.
C. A Class C extinguisher
D. A silver foam water extinguisher
Answer: C
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Explanation: Class C extinguishers should be used for fires in electrical appliances.
Incorrect Answers
Water (fire hose, Class A extinguisher, or silver foam water) should no be used to extinguish a computer fire.
Note, Fire Classifications:
Class A: Fires that involve wood, cloth, rubber, paper, and some types of plastics.
Class B: Fires that involve gasoline, oil, paint, natural and propane gases, and flammable liquids, gases, and
greases.
Class C: Fires that involve all the materials found in Class A and B fires, but with the introduction of an
electrical appliances, wiring, or other electrically energized objects in the vicinity of the fire.
Class D: Fires that involve combustible metals, such as sodium, magnesium, and potassium.
QUESTION 320:
You are servicing a customer's computer. What would you use to clean the circuit board contacts?
A. Jeweler's cloth.B. Silicone spray.
C. An emery cloth.
D. Contact cleaning solution.
Answer: C
Explanation: An emery cloth should be used to clean the circuit board contacts.
QUESTION 321:
A user received an e-mail from someone they did NOT know with an attachment as they did NOT recognize.
They deleted the email after they have opened it. Now the computer response is slow and has frequent lockups.
What is the BEST course of action to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Leave the computer unplugged for 2 hours.
B. Re-install the e-mail client
C. Update the antivirus software and scan for viruses
D. Update the BIOS version
Answer: C
QUESTION 322:
The first person that a technician should consult with on a problem is:
A. A technical support engineer from the Vendor
B. The person who observed and reported the problem
C. The manager of the client site
D. Other technical coworkers who may have seen the problem before.
Answer: B
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QUESTION 323:
You are the technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed trainee is about work inside a PC. Which of
the following should the trainee disconnect to prevent electrical shock? (Choose two)
A. Power cord
B. Telephone cord
C. Mouse
D. Keyboard
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 324:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what are the
MOST common source of hardware problems. What will your reply be? (Choose two)
A. Hardware failure
B. Configuration error
C. Incompatible software
D. Environment issues
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 325:
A Certkiller user complains that after a colleague used her computer, a larger than normal black border
appeared around the edge of the Windows desktop. As the Certkiller technician, what is the first logical
question would you ask?
A. Have you adjusted the contrast?
B. Has the operating system just been upgraded?
C. Have you checked to see if the video cable is loose?
D. Have you checked the video monitor control settings?
Answer: D
Explanation: The most likely cause of the problem is incorrect video monitor settings.
QUESTION 326:
You are the technician at Certkiller . The fan in the power supply on the manager's computer stopped
working but the computer is still running. What is the proper procedure to repair the computer?
A. Replace the fan.
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B. Replace the transformer.
C. Lubricate the fan with oil.
D. Replace the power supply.
E. No action need to be taken. There would still be a sufficient number of other fans in the system.
Answer: D
Explanation: When a power supply malfunctions it should be replaced.
We should not try to replace parts of it, or try to repair it.
QUESTION 327:
The managing director at Certkiller has a PC that is not protected with a UPS. What problem can occur
if a power failure occurs and the power is restored?
A. ROM needs to be programmed.
B. There is danger from a power surge.
C. The CMOS RAM has a battery failure.
D. The motherboard switch needs to be reset.
Answer: B
Explanation: When the power is restored the computer could be hit by a power surge.
Incorrect Answers
Restoration of power would not affect the ROM, the CMOS RAM battery, or the motherboard.
QUESTION 328:
A customer's Windows desktop appears distorted on her monitor. You want to isolate the problem. What
should you do? (Choose two)
A. Try another monitor.
B. Try another program.
C. Replace the power supply.
D. Install additional video memory.
E. Boot the computer to a command prompt.
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
A: The monitor could be malfunctioning. One solution is to simply replace it.
E: We might be required to restart the computer in another video mode, like a command prompt, to be able to
troubleshoot the monitor.
Incorrect Answers
B: As the distorted monitor appears in the OS, no specific program could be the cause of the problem.
C: It seems unlikely that a faulty power supply would cause this problem. Furthermore, a computer technician
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should not replace the power supplies of monitors.
D: Video RAM affects resolution only. Video RAM does not affect distortion.
QUESTION 329:
On a PC, where would you store the firewall?
A. RAM
B. CPU
C. Hard disk
D. ROM BIOS
Answer: C
Explanation: Typically a Firewall could be implemented as:
1) A program on a general purpose computer. This could be ISA Server 2000 in a Windows 2000 server for
example. In this case the firewall is stored on the hard drive and is run in RAM.
2) Implemented on a network device such as a Cisco Router. In this case the Cisco IOS contains the code that
runs the firewall. The small version of the IOS OS is store in ROM and a larger running version is stored in
flash memory.
Other implementations could store the whole firewall code in ROM.
The most common running firewalls are from category 1) and C) is therefore the best answer.
QUESTION 330:
Why should technicians use a ground strap during memory installation in a desktop PC?
A. to secure the system's internal power supply connectors while installing the memory
B. to prevent ESD (electrostatic discharge) from damaging the memory
C. to ease the process of installing memory
D. to assist in proper alignment of the memory.
Answer: B
QUESTION 331:
An employer maintains various hazardous chemicals onsite to clean residue from parts and equipment.
What should an employer maintain to uphold best practices and industry standards?
A. Place of purchase of each chemical.
B. Monthly usage of each chemical
C. MSDS (Material Safety, Data Sheets)
D. Secure Exterior Facility to store chemicals.
Answer: C
Short for Material Safety Data Sheet, an MSDS is a document that contains details of the hazards associated
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with a particular chemical and provides information regarding its safe use. In today's dynamic regulatory
environment, many firms rely on MSDS Software, the compliance software tools to author, manage and
distribute MSDS, labels and related documents.
QUESTION 332:
When should an MSDS (material safety data sheet) be referenced?
A. when information is needed on the capacity of memory
B. when information is needed on the safe handling of chemicals
C. when information is needed on the mounting of a hard drive
D. when information is needed on the proper use of computer tools
Answer: B
Short for Material Safety Data Sheet, an MSDS is a document that contains details of the hazards associated
with a particular chemical and provides information regarding its safe use. In today's dynamic regulatory
environment, many firms rely on MSDS Software, the compliance software tools to author, manage and
distribute MSDS, labels and related documents.
QUESTION 333:
The CD-ROM does not work on your system. You suspect that the CD-ROM is not getting the proper
voltage. What should you use to test the power connector?
A. Multimeter
B. Continuity Tester
C. Loop back tester
D. High voltage probe
Answer: A
Explanation: A multimeter can be used to measure voltage.
QUESTION 334:
What is the first step in diagnosing a completely dead computer that was working fine the day before?
A. Test the power supply.
B. Replace the CMOS battery.
C. Check the AC outlet for voltage.
D. Reseat the hard drive cable controller.
Answer: C
Explanation: First check the most basic possible causes of the problem. We should check AC outlet first.
Incorrect Answers
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A: The power supply is not the most likely cause of the problem. Furthermore, we should start to check the
most basic causes first.
B: An empty battery would only cause the CMOS settings to be lost. The computer would still be able to start.
D: A unseated drive cable controller would not cause a complete dead computer.
QUESTION 335:
What are appropriate steps for a PC technician to take to minimize ESD(Electrostatic Discharge? Select
all that apply.
A. Prior to beginning the PC repair, touch any metal object to discharge static.
B. Wear a properly grounded wrist wrap.
C. Wear natural fiber clothing.
D. Disassemble PCs on Plastic Mats.
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 336:
Which precaution should you take when installing a video card with on-board memory?
A. Unplug the PC
B. Flash the BIOS
C. Use an ESD strap
D. Leave the power ON
Answer: A
Explanation: Unplugging the PC and using an ESD strap are both good preventive measures. Unplugging
the PC is the first step to take though.
Incorrect Answers
B: There is no need to flash the BIOS.
C: First we should unplug the computer.
D: Computer should be unpluggedQUESTION 337:
If the computer suddenly restarts and lights flicker which event probably occurred?
A. Electrical sag
B. Electrical surge
C. Prolonged power outage
D. Power overload and circuit shutdown
Answer: A
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Explanation: An electrical sag could cause the lights to flicker and computers to restart.
Incorrect Answers
B: An electrical surge could cause damage, but it would not cause the lights to flicker.
C: A prolonged power outage would turn off the light, not just make them flicker.
D: A power surge does not overload the power, it drops the power.
QUESTION 338:
In a system with multiple hard drives, what are the benefits of using multiple fans? (Choose two)
A. Increase memory bandwidth.
B. Increase speed of data transfers.
C. Cool the outside of the computer.
D. Redistribute airflow through the system.
E. Reduce internal component temperature.
Answer: D, E
Explanation: Multiple fans redistributes airflow and reduce internal component temperature.
Incorrect Answers
A, B: Memory or data transfer speed are not directly effected by better cooling.
C: The outside temperature of the computer is not affected by multiple fans.
QUESTION 339:
What is the BEST way to dispose of a Cathode Ray Tube?
A. Recycle through a certified recycling Plant.
B. Throw in the Trash.
C. Take to a Land Fill.
D. Break & Discard Pieces.
Answer: A
QUESTION 340:
Which Devices would be MOST susceptible to ESD(Electrostatic Discharge)
Damage?(Choose Two)
A. CPUs
B. Monitors
C. Printers
D. Memory Chips.
Answer: A, D
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QUESTION 341:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee is about to work inside a PC.
What is the BEST way the trainee can prevent ESD (Electrostatic Discharge)?
A. Periodically touch the metal case of the PC.
B. Handle the PC components as little as possible.
C. Raise the humidity in the room where the work is being done.
D. Use an anti-static strap.
Answer: D
QUESTION 342:
What precaution will you advice the new Certkiller trainee technician to take in an effort to avoid damaging the
components by ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) when making preparations to replace a video card in a computer?
A: Do not touch the power supply while the computer case is open.
B: Work away from fluorescent lighting.
C: Stand on a carpeted surface while working.
D: Wear a grounded wristband while working.
Answer: D
QUESTION 343:
What socket is used by the Pentium Pro processor?
A. Socket 4
B. Socket 6
C. Socket 8
D. Socket 10
E. Slot 1
F. Socket 380 PGA
G. Socket 7
H. Slot 7
Answer: C
QUESTION 344:
Click the area on the graphics that shows the socket where you insert the CPU.
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Answer:
Explanation:
This is a Slot 1 socket.
QUESTION 345:
Which CPU socket 7-based? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pentium IB. Pentium II
C. AMD Athlon
D. Pentium MMX
Answer: A, D
Explanation: Socket 7 is supports late Pentium Models including Pentium MMX, AMD K6 (not K7 or
AMD Athlon), and Cyrix processors.
QUESTION 346:
Which processors use a slot 1 connection on a motherboard? (Choose two.)
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A. AMD K7
B. PENTUIM II
C. PENTIUM III
D. PENTIUM PRO
E. PENTIUM II XEON
Answer: B, C
Explanation: Slot 1 motherboards are used for Celeron, Pentium II (not Pentium II XEON however) and
Pentium III processors, not for Pentium Pro and Athlon processors.
QUESTION 347:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the CPU slot.
Answer:
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QUESTION 348:
When upgrading to a Pentium II, which slot or socket is viable?
A. Slot 1
B. Slot A
C. Slot 3
D. Socket 7
Answer: A
Explanation: Pentium II requires slot 1. Slot 1 is used for Celeron, Pentium II and Pentium III
processors.
QUESTION 349:
Why was MMX technology added to the Pentium II?
A. Improve printing speed.
B. Speed up modem access to the internet.
C. Improve security when using windows 95/98.
D. Handle multimedia functions like sound and video.
Answer: D
Explanation: MMX stands for MultiMedia eXtensions.
QUESTION 350:
Which processors will fit in the same socket? (Choose three.)
A. AMD K7.
B. Cyrix MLL.
C. AMD K6.
D. Pentium II.
E. Pentium MMX.
Answer: B, C, E
Explanation: Socket 7 is supports late Pentium Models including Pentium MMX, AMD K6 (not K7
which is much later), and Cyrix processors.
QUESTION 351:
What next technology was added to the Pentium III?
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A. MMX4.
B. Enhanced audio steaming.
C. Enhanced graphics capabilities.
D. Internet streaming SIMB extensions.
Answer: D
Explanation: Internet streaming SIMB extensions were added to the Pentium III processor.
QUESTION 352:
All of the following voltage/current combinations should be considered dangerous but which of these
combinations is the most likely to cause serious injury or death?
A. 120 Volts DC at 500 Amperes.
B. 5 volts DC at 100milli amperes.
C. 12 volts DC at 200milli ampere.
D. 240 volts and DC at 10milli amperes.
Answer: A
Explanation: High Amperes could kill.
QUESTION 353:
What is a major design difference between Pentium I and Pentium II?
A. Pipeline cache sizeB. Capacitor technology
C. High-core temperature
D. Additional instruction set
Answer: B
Explanation: The capacitor technology is improved with decreasing size and improved performance.
QUESTION 354:
Typically how many PC Type III cards can you insert into a laptop at a time?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
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Explanation: PC Type 3 cards are quite thick. A LapTop only has a single Type III slot. A type 3 PC card
does not fit in Type II or Type I slots so only a single Type III card can be used at a time.
Note: Type III slots are primarily for computers with removable hard disk drives. Type III cards are 10.5 mm
thick Type II cards are 5 mm thick and Type I cards 3.3 mm thick. A PC Card will fit in any slot either its own
size or a larger size. For example, a Type II modem would fit in a type III slot.
QUESTION 355:
Intel's Single Edge Contacts (SEC) design contains both a CPU and a __________?
A. L1 Cache
B. L2 Cache
C. L3 Cache
D. L4 Cache
Answer: B
Explanation: The SEC design contains the CPU and a L2 cache.
QUESTION 356:
A ZIF socket was put on the motherboard to help with inserting and removing?
A. CPUs
B. SIMMS
C. DIMMS
D. CPU FANS
Answer: A
Explanation: A Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) socket is used to inserting and removing CPUs.
Incorrect Answers
B, C: Memory modules such as SIMMS and DIMMS do not a ZIF socket
D: CPU fans do not use a ZIF socket.
QUESTION 357:
What is the motherboard speed setting for a Pentium-200?
A. 50 MHZ
B. 60 MHZ
C. 66 MHZ
D. 200MHZ
Answer: C
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Explanation: A Pentium 200 MHz processor runs with a 66MHz bus speed. The CPU speed is three times
the bus speed.
Incorrect Answers
A: There are not Pentium motherboards with bus speed of 50MHz.
B: 200 is not dividable by 60. The CPU speed is always a multiple of the bus speed.
D: Pentium motherboards do not support bus speed as high as 200MHz.
QUESTION 358:
What is the memory contained inside the CPU called?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. CACHE
D. VIRTUAL
Answer: C
Explanation: The CPU uses fast cache memory to improve speed.
Incorrect Answers
A: CPU does not contain RAM.
B: CPUs often contain micro-code. This micro-code is either hard-wired or stored in ROM. However, this
ROM memory is not so well known. Therefore this alternative is not the best answer.
D: Virtual memory is logical memory, not physical memory.
QUESTION 359:
Which is not a valid AMD CPU?
A. K6
B. K5
C. K8
D. Athlon
Answer: C
Explanation: K5, K6 and Athlon are all existing AMD processors.
Incorrect Answers
There is no processor called K8.
QUESTION 360:
You want to upgrade your slot1 motherboard. Which of the following chips are available in the slot1
package? (Choose three)
A. P 233
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B. PII 233
C. PIII 333
D. PIII 800
E. AMD Athlon
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation: Slot 1 motherboards are used for Celeron, Pentium II and Pentium III processors, not for
Pentium or Athlon processors.
QUESTION 361:
What Processor use a Slot 1 Configuration?
A. AMD Duron
B. AMD Thunderbird
C. Intel Pentium
D. Intel Pentium 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Slot 1 motherboards are used for Celeron, Pentium II and Pentium III processors, not for Pentium or
Athlon processors.
QUESTION 362:
Which of the following represents a typical Pentium 2 Processor?
A. 90 Mhz
B. 166 Mhz
C. 300 Mhz
D. 1.2 Ghz
Answer: C
90 and 166 MHz are for Pentiums.
1.2 GHz for Pentium III.
QUESTION 363:
Of the following, which is a type of CPU socket?
A. ZIF
B. PCI
C. ISA
D. COM1
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E. RS-232
Answer: A
QUESTION 364:
How many CPU are supported by the main board shown in the graphic?
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4
Answer: B
QUESTION 365:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what voltage
range she should set a multimeter to when testing a power supply.
What would your reply be?
A: Highest.
B: Lowest.
C: Midrange.
D: Zero.
Answer: A
QUESTION 366:
A customer's Ni-Cad battery in her notebook requires recharging more often than it did when the
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notebook was first bought. What is the problem?
A. The battery is suffering from overcharging
B. The battery is suffering from memory effect
C. The battery is suffering from undercharging
D. The battery is suffering from discharging
Answer: B
'Memory Effect' is the common term used for the term 'Voltage Depression.' Voltage Depression is the property
of NiCad batteries that causes them to lose their capacity for full recharging if they are discharged repeatedly
the same amount and then recharged without overcharge before they have fully drained. The term derives from
the fact that the battery appears to have a memory for the amount of charging it can sustain.
QUESTION 367:
Which two devices assist in cooling the processor? (Choose two)
A. Power Supply
B. Heatsink
C. Fan
D. Heat Exchanger
Answer: B, C
QUESTION 368:
Which of the following are associated with ROM? (Choose three)
A. DMA
B. MBR
C. BIOS
D. POST
E. CMOS
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation:
C: The POST process is hard coded and stored in ROM.
D: The instructions of the BIOS program are stored in ROM.
E: The BIOS program stores its settings in CMOS.
Incorrect Answers
The concepts of Direct Memory Access (DMA) and Master Boot Record (MBR) have no direct relation to
ROMs.
QUESTION 369:
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What does a 601 error POST (Power On Self-Test) indicate?
A. hard drive error
B. floppy drive error
C. network boot problem
D. defective power supply
Answer: B
Explanation: POST errors in the 600-699 range generally indicate Floppy disk drive errors.
Incorrect Answers
A: Hard drive errors are in the 17xx range.
C: Network adapter errors are in the 3xxxx range.
D: A defective power supply would not generate errors in the 6xx range.
Note:
1xx: Motherboard errors.
2xx: RAM errors.
3xx: Keyboard errors
6xx: Floppy disk drive errors
11xx: COM1 errors
17xx: Hard drive errors
3xxx: NIC errors
QUESTION 370:
What are advantages of the USB? (Choose three.)
A. Speed.
B. Safety.
C. Security.
D. Expansion.
E. Ease of configuration.
Answer: A, D, E
Explanation:
A: The USB bus is faster.
D: A single USB chain supports up to 127 devices which make it easier to expand.
E: USB devices should not need any configuration. They are self-configured.
Incorrect Answers
B, C: There is no safety or security built into USB.
QUESTION 371:
What is proper installation practice for installing DIMMs and RIMMs?
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A. Unplug the PC.
B. Use a ground strip.
C. Leave the power on.
D. Install modules in pairs.
Answer: A
Explanation: First we should unplug the computer.
Incorrect Answers
B: A ground could be used but first we should unplug the computer.
C: We should unplug the PC.
D: DIMMs do not need to be installed in pairs.
QUESTION 372:
You have just installed a 128 MB 168 pin DIMM on your ATX motherboard. You already had 128 MB in
72 pin slots using SIMM. When you turn on your system it is only recognizing only 128 MB of RAM in
total. Which of the following are possible causes? (Choose three)
A. You need to update or upgrade your BIOS.
B. BIOS is not set to Read both types of memory.
C. A jumper is not set to support both types of memory
D. The motherboard only supports one type of memory at a time.
E. You need to remove one of the 72- pin memory chips so you have one of each.
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
A: The BIOS might have to be upgraded in order to support both memory types.
B: The BIOS might need configuration in order to use both memory types.
D: If we are unlucky the BIOS will only support one memory type at a time.
Incorrect Answers
C: If the motherboard has both SIMM and DIMM slots it supports both type of memories at the same time.
E: 72-pin SIMMs must be installed in pairs.
QUESTION 373:
Which memory module is shown in the exhibit?
A. 30- pin SIMMB. 72- pin SIMM
C. 168- pin DIPP
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D. 168-pin DIMM
Answer: B
Explanation: A 30-pin SIMM does not have a notch (see illustration):
QUESTION 374:
What is the main feature of SDRAM?
A. Using fewer transistors
B. Locating the boot sector
C. Transferring the BIOS information
D. Delivering the data in high speed bursts
Answer: D
Explanation: SDRAM delivers the data in high-speed bursts.
Incorrect Answers
A: The number of transistors are very high.
B: BIOS locates the boot sector.
C: RAM is used to store information, not to transfer information.
QUESTION 375:
How many DMA channels are there in AT class computers?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: D
Explanation: Traditionally, in XT computers had a single DMA circuit with 4 DMA channels. In later
models, including AT computers, two DMA-circuits are used, each with 4 channels which brings the total
number of DMA channels to eight.
Incorrect Answers
A, C: 3 or 7 DMA channels have never been used.
B: XT class computer used 4 DMA channels.
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QUESTION 376:
Which memory module is shown in the exhibit?
A. DIPP
B. SIPP
C. 30 pin SIMM
D. 72 pin SIMM
Answer: C
Explanation: 30 pin SIMMs do no have a notch.
QUESTION 377:
The process of refreshing memory is the process of __________________?
A. Testing the memory chip registers.
B. Cleaning the memory for reuse.
C. Recharging or reenergizing the registers.
D. Deleting memory before shutting down the system.
Answer: C
Explanation: The memory is refreshed by recharging and reenergizing the memory registers.
QUESTION 378:
How many 168 Pin DIMMs are required per memory bank?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: A
Explanation: A single 168 Pin DIMM is used for every memory bank.
Incorrect Answers
B: 168 Pin DIMM do not need to be installed in pairs.
C, D: Only a single 168 Pin DIMM is required per memory bank.
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QUESTION 379:
How many 72 pin SIMMs are required when using a socket 7 motherboard?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D.6
Answer: B
Explanation: 72-pin SIMMs are used in pairs.
Incorrect Answers
A: A single 72-pin SIMM cannot be installed.
C: Often four SIMMs can be installed, but only two are required.
D: Only two is required.
QUESTION 380:
Which of the following are considered types of video RAM? (Choose three)
A. VRAM.
B. LRAM.
C. WRAM.
D. DRAM.
E. SGRAM
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation: VRAM (Video RAM), WRAM (Windows Accelerator Card RAM), and SGRAM
(Synchronous Graphic Random Access Memory) are used on video adapters.
Incorrect Answers
D: DRAM is not specifically a video RAM type.
QUESTION 381:
What happens when shadowing options are enabled in a computer BIOS?
A. Instructions stored in various ROM chips are copied into RAM.
B. Values are stored twice in the memory for redundancy checking.
C. Conventional memory is remapped to top of extended memory.
D. Data stored in RAM and adaptive card is shadowed into extended memory.
Answer: A
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Explanation: Generally RAM is faster than ROM. Copying the contents of the BIOS ROM into RAM for
faster access is called shadowing.
QUESTION 382:
Click on the area on the graphic that shows the SIMM slots.
Answer:
QUESTION 383:
Which symptoms would the initial POST not identify?
A. Bad memory location.
B. ROM BIOS configuration failure
C. A stuck key or defective keyboard.
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D. A RAM chip that fails at high temperature
Answer: D
Explanation: The POST (power on self test) would not be able to detect a RAM chip that fails at a high
temperature. This would not happen when the computer starts.
Incorrect Answers
A, B; C: POST identifies bad memory locations, ROM BIOS configuration failures, and stuck key or defective
keyboards.
QUESTION 384:
What does memory mapped I/O do?
A. Maps IRQ's to PCI interface cards.
B. Acquires a unique ID for each memory module.
C. Duplicates the contents of the ROM BIOS into RAM.
D. Uses the same address space for memory locations and peripheral devices.
Answer: D
Explanation: Memory mapped I/O uses memory locations to communicate with peripherals.
QUESTION 385:
Which type of memory module that when used MUST fill every slot in a
motherboard or used along with a module without any actual memory chips for
continuity?
A. RIMM
B. RAM
C. SDRAM
D. DIMM
Answer: A
All banks need to be filled for continuity. See Continuity RIMM below.
RIMM
Rambus inline memory modules used for Rambus DRAM.
Continuity RIMM
Modules that are used to fill all unused RIMM sockets in a system. Continuity-RIMMs
the signal can be properly terminated at the motherboard.
QUESTION 386:
SDRAM is used only in________?
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A. DIMM
B. SIMM
C. SoDIMM
D. MicroDIMM
E. RIMM
Answer: A
Most DIMM modules are assembled with fast SDRAM memory chips which is twice as fast as EDO RAM.
Note: SDRAM (Synchronous DRAM), a type of DRAM that can run at much higher clock speeds than
conventional memory. SDRAM actually synchronizes itself with the CPU's bus and is capable of running at 133
MHz, about three times faster than conventional FPM RAM, and about twice as fast EDO DRAM and BEDO
DRAM. SDRAM is replacing EDO DRAM in many newer computers.
QUESTION 387:
A user has bought a computer with 1.4 GHz processor with 64 MB of RAM and 60 GB of hard drive
space. However they are complaining that things are taking a very long time to load on Windows XP.
What is the MOST likely cause?
A. The processor is not fast enough.
B. The user needs more RAM.
C. The hard drive is not large enough.
D. They installed Windows incorrectly.
Answer: B
RAM is clearly the bottleneck on this system. Standard RAM on such LapTops are now either 256 MB or 512
MB. High-priced LapTops comes with 1 GB of RAM as standard.
QUESTION 388:
How many DDR SDRAM DIMMs would name to be installed in to a Pentium 4
System to create one bank?
A. 1 DIMM
B. 2 DIMMs
C. 4 DIMMs
Answer: A
Explanation: DIMM is short for Dual In-line Memory Module, a small circuit board
that holds memory chips. A single in-line memory module (SIMM) has a 32-bit path
to the memory chips whereas a DIMM has 64-bit path. Because the Pentium
processor requires a 64-bit path to memory, you need to install SIMMs two at a
time. With DIMMs, you can install memory one DIMM at a time.
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QUESTION 389:
Which of the following is a type of error detection or correction for RAM?
A. RAID 5
B. ECC
C. RAID ADG
D. AGP
Answer: B
Explanation:
ECC (Error Checking and Correcting) is a very important function that a motherboard could incorporate to
ensure data integrity.
QUESTION 390:
Where does the Level 1 Cache Memory reside?
A. The Motherboard
B. The CPU
C. The BIOS
D. The RAM
Answer: B
The microprocessor's Level 1 cache memory, is memory that is contained within the CPU, and stores the most
frequently used instructions and data. The CPU can access the cache memory much faster than having to access
the RAM (Random Access Memory).
QUESTION 391:
How Many Pins are on a RIMM Module?
A.144
B.168
C.184
D.256
Answer: B, C
The number of pins on a RIMM module determines the number of RDRAM channels supported per module.
Single channel modules come in 168 or 184 pin configurations and both types of modules are interchangeable
in most systems. Dual channel modules use the 242 pin configurations, providing 2 independent channels per
module. These are configured as RIMM 4200 (1066MHz operation), RIMM 4800 (1200MHz operation), or
RIMM 6400 (1600MHz operation).
QUESTION 392:
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Which of the following loses its stored data without power?
A. Harddrive
B. RAM
C. ROM
D. Cache
Answer: B
QUESTION 393:
Click the DIMM slot in the image below.
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Answer:
QUESTION 394:
Which actions should a technician consider in a case where the user often complains about receiving the
"Out of Disk Space" error? (Choose three)
A. Add more RAM.
B. Add a larger Harddrive.
C. Replace diskette drive.
D. DEFRAG the existing Harddrive.
E. Remove unneeded files.
Answer: B, D, E
An out of disk space indicates that the disk space on the harddrive is low. Defragmenting the harddrive,
removing unneeded files or adding a larger harddrive will overcome the problem.
QUESTION 395:
Which of the following represents the term used to refer to data storage that comes in the form of chips?
A: CMOS.
B: RAM.
C: Encoded memory.
D: Virtual memory.
Answer: B
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QUESTION 396:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know how many pins
a PC 133 DIMM has.
What would your reply be?
A: 168 pins.
B: 144 pins.
C: 132 pins.
D: 128 pins.
Answer: A
QUESTION 397:
On the graphic, locate the DIMM slot.
Answer:
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QUESTION 398:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which type of
device is most likely to would use a 144 pin memory module.
What would your reply be?
A. A Laser Printer
B. A Laptop Computer
C. An AGP Video Card
D. A Pentium 2 Desktop Computer
Answer: B
QUESTION 399:
A customer hears one long and three short beeps when powering up a portable computer. The computer
won't boot further. What would you advise the customer to do?
A. Replace or reset the video card.
B. Replace the Harddrive.
C. Replace or reset the memory chips.
D. Replace the floppy drive.
Answer: C
AMI BIOS
Indicator
Message
One Short Beep
DRAM Refresh Failure
Two Short Beeps
Parity Circuit Failure
Three Short Beeps
Base 64k RAM Failure
Four Short Beeps
System Timer Failure
Five Short Beeps
Processor Failure
Keyboard Controller
Error
Virtual Mode
Exception Error
Display Memory
Failure
ROM BIOS Checksum
Failure
Base/Extended Memory
Failure
Display/Retrace Test
Failure
Six Short Beeps
Seven Short Beeps
Eight Short Beeps
Nine Short Beeps
One Long and Three
Short Beeps
One Long and Eight
Short Beeps
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QUESTION 400:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the cache
memory located on the processor chip is typically referred to as.
What would your reply be?
A. Level 1 Cache
B. Dynamic Cache
C. Processing Enhancement Cache
D. RAM Cache
E. System Cache
Answer: A
QUESTION 401:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the major
difference between EDO RAM and Fast Page Mode DRAM is.
What would your reply be?
A. There is no difference
B. EDO RAM is faster than Fast Page Mode DRAM
C. Fast Page Mode DRAM is faster than EDO RAM
D. EDO RAM is smaller than Fast Page Mode DRAM
E. Fast Page Mode DRAM is more expensive than EDO RAM
Answer: B
Explanation: EDO RAM is a more recent, faster technology compared to Fast Page mode DRAM.
QUESTION 402:
On an ATX motherboard, how wide is a 72-pin SIMM memory slot?
A. 16 bits
B. 32 bits
C. 36 bits
D. 64 bits
Answer: B
Explanation: A 72-pin SIMM is 32 bits wide.
QUESTION 403:
You are the technician at Certkiller . You are installing memory modules that have ECC (Error Checking
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and Correction). Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what advantage this type of
memory offers.
What would your reply be?
A. It is cheaper.
B. It corrects Cache errors.
C. It corrects memory error.
D. It has no dense packaging.
Answer: C
Explanation: ECC has the ability to correct memory errors.
Incorrect Answers
A: ECC memory is more expansive.
B: ECC does not correct cache memory errors.
D: ECC memories fit standard memory slots.
QUESTION 404:
Which of the following options is the one feature that will MOST improve the performance of a computer
running picture editing and graphic illustration software?
A: Installing a larger Harddrive.
B: Adding memory.
C: Upgrading the sound card.
D: Removing the floppy drive.
Answer: B
QUESTION 405:
When considering upgrading Ram on a legacy computer, what determines the memory
support by the PC?
A. The System BIOS
B. The Graphics Subsystem
C. The Operating System
D. The Motherboard
Answer: D
The motherboard architecture determine the memory support.
QUESTION 406:
A PC has four CDRAM slots on the motherboard. They are filled with four 64 MB SIMMs. The largest SIMM
size allows by the BIOS is 256 MB. What is the Maximum total RAM this system can handle?
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A. 64 MB
B. 256 MB
C. 512 MB
D. 1 GB
Answer: D
QUESTION 407:
How many RIMM module(s) must be installed per bank?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: C
QUESTION 408:
The ISA bus speed is____________
A. 4.27 MHzB. 6 MHz
C. 8.33 MHz
D. 16 MHz
Answer: C
Explanation: The ISA bus speed is 8.33 MHz.
QUESTION 409:
The IEEE 1394 is related to which type of bus type?
A. DMA
B. SCSI
C. PS/2
D. Serial
Answer: D
Explanation: The IEEE1394 standard (firewire) is a fast serial bus.
QUESTION 410:
What mother board form is shown in the exhibit?
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A. XT
B. Baby AT
C. Full AT
D. ATX
Answer: B
Explanation: The processor socket is located at the front of the motherboard, and full-length expansion
cards are intended to extend over it.
QUESTION 411:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the ISA slots.
Answer:
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QUESTION 412:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the AGP slot on the motherboard.
Answer:
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QUESTION 413:
How many IDE controllers are typically built into an ATX motherboard?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B
Explanation: ATX motherboards, like AT motherboards, have 2 built-in IDE controllers.
QUESTION 414:
What motherboard form is the Exhibit?
A. XT
B. ATX
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C. FULL AT
D. BABY AT
Answer: B
Explanation: In the more recent ATX motherboard layout the CPU is placed away from the expansion
slot and closer to the power supply compared with AT and baby AT motherboards.
QUESTION 415:
How is the LCD on a laptop powered?
A. 120VAC
B. 120VDC
C. Low voltage DC
D. Low voltage AC
Answer: C
Explanation: Like in a desktop, the power supply supplies low voltage DC.
QUESTION 416:
What expansion bus types do most motherboards support?
A. MCA, PCI
B. ISA, EISA
C. ISA, PCI, AGP
D. ISA, VESA, PCI
Answer: C
Explanation: Most modern motherboards support ICA, PCI, and possibly AGP. However, some new
motherboards do no longer support ISA:
Incorrect Answers
A: MCA is an old standard which is no longer supported.
B: EISA is an old standard that is not supported today.
D: VESA is no longer supported.
QUESTION 417:
When seeking to upgrade your BIOS for a particular motherboard. What do you need to know?
A. Memory Type
B. Hard Drive Size
C. Make and Model
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D. DIMM manufacturer
Answer: C
Explanation: To get the appropriate BIOS update we need the make and model of the motherboard or
the BIOS.
QUESTION 418:
What is the function of an energy star compliant monitor?
A. Used only with fast processors
B. Same as standard monitor type
C. Switches to low power status when signal does not change
D. Consumes less power than other monitors while powering up.
Answer: C
Explanation: An energy star compliant monitor saves power by switching to low power status when the
video signal is constant.
QUESTION 419:
When installing an AT power supply which colors are adjacent on the connector?
A. Red, Red
B. Black, Red
C. Red, Black
D. Black, Black
Answer: D
Explanation: On XT, AT and Baby AT motherboards black should be adjacent to black when attaching
the power cables.
QUESTION 420:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the PCI slot on the motherboard.
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Answer:
QUESTION 421:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the AGP slot on the motherboard.
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Answer:
QUESTION 422:
What does the term LVD stand for when speaking of SCSI devices?
A. Low Volume Discount
B. Large Volume Detector
C. Low Voltage Differential
D. Low Value Determined
Answer: C
LVD stands for Low Voltage Differential. All of your typical consumer SCSI falls into three categories of SCSI
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signaling/termination
1) "Single Ended" - The most common form of SCSI signaling. Most devices today use SE. Zip, Jaz, scanners,
and almost all 50 pin SCSI devices fit into this category. Ultra Wide hard drives are commonly SE also. You
usually don't see SE or single-ended written on the documentation so some assumption is unfortunately
necessary when trying to decide this. If it doesn't specifically say LVD, Ultra2 Wide, Ultra160/m, or
Differential, then it is probably SE. SE typically needs to be (1.5 meters)5 feet or less of total bus length.
2) "High Voltage Differential" or just "Differential" - HVD is/was great for applications where you have
devices a long ways apart from each other or if you are in a high noise environment. You can go 25 meters on a
differential bus. This is the signaling that allows you the longest runs.
3) "Low Voltage Differential" - LVD is the newest/latest/greatest type of signaling because it offers extended
length and greater legacy support(if LVD/SE). You can go 12 meters, which is roughly 40 ft. Not as long as
HVD, but definitely not as restricting as SE. Many new hard drives are LVD these days.
QUESTION 423:
Your customer decided to install a new USB printer on his Windows 95 computerbut cannot get the
computer to recognize it. What is the most likely cause?
A. IRQ conflict
B. DMA conflicts
C. USB cable too short
D. USB supplement for Windows 95 is not installed.
Answer: D
Explanation: Windows 95 needs additional installation packages to support USB. The original version of
Windows 95 was released before the USB standard arrived.
QUESTION 424:
Which of the devices have same looking connector? (Choose Two)?
A. USB Printer
B. PS/2 mouse
C. ATX keyboard
D. Parallel Printer
E. Serial Scanner
Answer: B, C
Explanation: The PS/2 mouse and the ATX keyboard connectors have the same look.
QUESTION 425:
What is circuit board to which MOST other components of the computer connect in some way?
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A. Harddrive
B. CD-ROM
C. Motherboard
D. Memory
Answer: C
The motherboard is the main circuit board of a microcomputer. The motherboard contains the connectors for
attaching additional boards. Typically, the motherboard contains the CPU, BIOS, memory, mass storage
interfaces, serial and parallel ports, expansion slots, and all the controllers required to control standard
peripheral devices, such as the display screen, keyboard, and disk drive. Collectively, all these chips that reside
on the motherboard are known as the motherboard's chipset.
On most PCs, it is possible to add memory chips directly to the motherboard. You may also be able to upgrade
to a faster PC by replacing the CPU chip. To add additional core features, you may need to replace the
motherboard entirely.
QUESTION 426:
An A+ Certified Technician determined that an ATX system will not power up. It is connected to a
known good power source. However, there is no fan activity and the drives do NOT spin up. The system
has no video and appears to be dead, although there is an LED on the system board that is lit up. What is
the NEXT logical step to take?
A. Replace the Power Switch.
B. Disconnect all drive connectors and remove all adapter boards from system and see in the fans and drives
spin up.
C. Replace the power cable.
D. Make sure that the power supply is plugged into the system board.
Answer: A
The Power switch could be faulty.
By Exclusion
B: This could be tested later. It would not be the next logical troubleshooting step however.
C: Power is supplied. The LED on the system board is lit up.
D: Power is provided to the motherboard. The LED on the system board is lit up.
QUESTION 427:
A user connects a USB 2.0 device to a hub connected to a computer with USB 2.0 Ports. When using the
USB 2.0 device the speed of the data transfer is NOT a fast as it should be. What is the MOST likely
problem?
A. The hub is defective.
B. The hub is for USB 1.1 devices.
C. The computer USB ports are defective.
D. The computer is set to USB 1.1 in the BIOS.
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Answer: B
The USB version of the hub is not specified. It is possible it is a USB 1.1 hub. This would explain the lower
speed. USB 2.0 is up to 40 times as fast as USB 1.1.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: The device is working. It is just that it is slow.
D: There is no such thing as an USB version setting in the BIOS.
QUESTION 428:
A user has been using a computer for several days without incident when the wireless mouse suddenly
stopped working. What is the first thing the technician should check?
A. The battery needs to be replaced in the mouse.
B. The receiver is plugged into a USB port.
C. The receiver is plugged into a PS/2 port.
D. The battery in the receiver needs to be replaced.
Answer: A
A wireless mouse contains a battery that needs to be replaced on a regular basis.
Incorrect answers
B, C: Nothing has changed regarding the placement of the receiver.
D: The receiver has no battery.
QUESTION 429:
The integrated Video on a system's motherboard is to replaced with an AGP 2x Graphics card. Which of
the following steps MUST be taken to complete this upgrade? (Select Two).
A. Disable the Integrated video in the system BIOS.
B. Remove all PCI cards from the system.
C. Make sure the motherboard has an AGP slot available.
D. Add more memory to the Computer.
Answer: A, C
The PC must have an AGP port.
Furthermore, the integrated video card must be disabled in BIOS.
QUESTION 430:
The A+ Professional has completed upgrading the operating system on a PC to Windows 2000. The
system has a Pentium III 500 Mhz Processor, 64 MB of RAM & a 10 GB ATA Harddrive, Upgrading
which hardware component will have
the greatest impact on improving system performance?
A. Upgrade system with memory of 256 MB.
B. Install a larger capacity harddrive.
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C. Install a different video controller.
D. Nithing will help; buy a new computer.
E. Install a faster processor.
Answer: A
The bottleneck on this system is clearly the 64MB of RAM. Standard today in a new standard PC is now,
December 2004, 512 GB, and 1 GB of RAM is not uncommon.
QUESTION 431:
A client has asked technician to install a second SCSI hard drive to a system that already has a SCSI
hard drive and tape installed on a single SCSI
bus. After installing the drive on the SCSI Bus, the system boots normally, however the new drive is not
detected. The technician can see that the drive is spinning up and is getting. What would be the first item
to check?
A. Faulty drive - replace the drive
B. Faulty cable - replace the drive
C. faulty termination - replace the terminator
D. Duplicate SCSI ID - change the SCSI on the new drive.
Answer: D
A duplicate SCSI ID could cause the problem.
By Exclusion
A: Not first thing to check.
B: Other SCSI devices are working fine.
C: Other SCSI devices are working fine.
QUESTION 432:
The A+ Certified Technician is asked to install a device that requires USB 2.0 in a
desktop system. System only supports USB 1.1. What should the A+ certified
Technician do?
A. Advice the Client that the USB device will not work this system.
B. Install the USB device and see if it will work.
C. Install a USB 2.0 Controller in an open PCI and install the USB device in one of these
USB Ports.
D. Reset BIOS to change the USB ports from 1.1 to 2.0
Answer: C
An USB 2.0 controller would provide USB 2.0 functionality
QUESTION 433:
A user has a USB mouse but the PC does not have a USB Port. What can typically be used to connect this
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mouse to the PC? (select two).
A. USB-to-DB-15 adapter
B. USB-to-PS/2 adapter.
C. USB adapter card
D. USB-to-parallel adapter
Answer: B, C
B: With an USB-to-PS/2 adapter a USB mouse device can be connected to the .PS/2 mouse interface
C: An USB adapter card would provide at least one USB port.
Not A: There is no such thing as a USB-to-DB-15 adapter.
QUESTION 434:
What is the clock speed of AGP4x Slot?
A. 33 Mhz
B. 66 Mhz
C. 256 Mhz
D. 266 Mhz
Answer: D
Explanation:
AGP4X, also known as AGP 2.0. is capable of transferring data at a maximum bandwidth of 1.06GB/s.
Compared with all the existing buses in the system, it is rather low and 3D performance would bottleneck at the
AGP port. There's really no point in having good technology like HyperTransport if the AGP is limiting data
transfers at 266MHz (4 x 66MHz). Now that AGP bandwidth is doubled to 8X, the clock frequency will
increase to 533MHz which means that it will transfer at about 2.1GB/s.
QUESTION 435:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what computer
standard supports a data transfer rate of 400 Mbps and up to 63 devices. What would your reply be?
A. USB 1.1
B. USB 2.0
C. IEEE 1394
D. Ultra SCSI 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
FireWire, also referred to as IEEE 1394, supports data transfer speeds of 400 Mbps, although IEEE 1894b has a
data transfer speed of 800 Mbps.
Incorrect Answers:
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A: USB 1.1 supports a maximum data transfer speed of 12 Mbps.
B: USB 2.0 supports a maximum data transfer speed of 480 Mbps.
D: Ultra SCSI 2 supports a maximum data transfer speed of 80 Mbps.
QUESTION 436:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what voltages
would be found on an ATX power supply. What would your reply be? (Choose two)
A. -12 Volts
B. -9 Volts
C. -5 Volts
D. -3.3 Volts
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
An ATX power supply has voltages of +3.3 Volts, +5 Volts, +12 Volts, -5 Volts, and -12 Volts. It does not have
-3.3 Volts.
QUESTION 437:
Which of the following could be the choices for troubleshooting the following case: A Windows XP
system is in standby mode has multiple USB controllers. After resuming the system, the USB storage
device is NOT getting recognized by Windows. (Choose two)
A. The device is plugged into a into a different USB Port in standby mode.
B. USB storage device is spoiled.
C. USB port is spoiled.
D. Re-install the required driver.
E. Unplug the USB storage device from the new USB Port, and then plug it into the original port.
Answer: A, E
QUESTION 438:
A user has two EIDE Harddrives on a PC. On the second EIDE controller, the user has one DVD ROM as well
as a CD-RW. How can the user go about adding another Harddrive?
A: The user will have to use a cable that has four plugs on it.
B: The motherboard only has two controllers, and the user needs to install an additional controller card.
C: The EIDE technology has limitations, so the user cannot fit extra EIDE devices.
D: If the user fits another drive, the system will become very slow and unusable.
Answer: B
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QUESTION 439:
To which of the following options does the term Data Bus refer to?
A: The bundle of wires or pins used to send or receive data.
B: The width of the data path.
C: The size of the interval register.
D: The memory location to which data is being send to and from.
Answer: B
QUESTION 440:
Which of the following is necessary then upgrading a Pentium 3 PC to a Pentium 4?
A: A new motherboard.
B: A Pentium 3 to Pentium 4 Socket adapter.
C: A Pentium 3 to Pentium 4 Slot adapter.
D: All you need is the CPU.
Answer: A
QUESTION 441:
You are a technician at Certkiller . The newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what is the
maximum number of SCSi devices per Bus in LVD mode and a Wide Bus. What will your reply be?
A: 8
B: 16
C: 24
D: 32.
Answer: B
QUESTION 442:
On the image below, click on the ISA slots.
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Answer:
QUESTION 443:
You are the technician at Certkiller . Your Certkiller trainee wants to measure the power output on a computer
power supply. Which devices can she use? (Choose two)
A: Continuity Meter.
B: Digital millimeter.
C: Current clamp.
D: Volt OHM Meter.
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Answer: A, D
QUESTION 444:
On the graphics below, click the connector for the parallel port.
Answer:
QUESTION 445:
You are the technician at Certkiller . You install a new 128 MB memory module in a Pentium 3 laptop
that already has a 64 MB memory module. When you boot up the system, it indicates only 64 MB of
RAM. Why?
A. The new memory chip is not seated properly.
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B. Laptops do not support more than 64 MB of RAM.
C. You did not set up BIOS to recognize the new memory chip.
D. You did not configure the jumper setting to recognize the new memory chip.
Answer: C
QUESTION 446:
A customer has an ATX motherboard with an accelerated graphics port. What adapter card can the customer
install in this slot?
A. A FireWire adapter card
B. An Ethernet adapter card
C. A full duplex sound card
D. An AGP video card
Answer: D
QUESTION 447:
You are the technician at Certkiller . A Certkiller user receives a "601" error during POST. What does
this indicate?
A. A Harddrive error
B. A floppy driver error
C. A network boot problem
D. A defective power supply
Answer: B
Explanation: POST errors in the 600-699 range generally indicate Floppy disk drive errors.
Incorrect Answers
A: Hard drive errors are in the 17xx range.
C: Network adapter errors are in the 3xxxx range.
D: A defective power supply would not generate errors in the 6xx range.
Note:
1xx: Motherboard errors.
2xx: RAM errors.
3xx: Keyboard errors
6xx: Floppy disk drive errors
11xx: COM1 errors
17xx: Hard drive errors
3xxx: NIC errors
QUESTION 448:
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On an AT motherboard, what is the Data Bus width of an ISA slot?
A. 12 bits
B. 16 bits
C. 32 bits
D. 64 bits
Answer: B
Explanation: ISA uses a 16-bit data bus width.
Incorrect Answers
A: 12 bits are not used by ISA:
C, D: Later technologies such as PCI and AGP implements 32 and 64 bit data buses.
QUESTION 449:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the
following DMA channels are usable.
What would your reply be? (Choose three)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 7
D. 8
E. 9
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation: Computers have eight DMA channels numbered from 0 to 7.
QUESTION 450:
Certkiller has a PC with a SCSI chain that currently supports six hard drives, a DVD-ROM drive and a
CD-RW drive. The newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what are the most common SCSI
implementations.
What would your reply be? (Choose two)
A. 32-bit SCSI-2
B. 32-bit SCSI-3
C. 16-bit Fast/Wide
D. 8-bit Standard SCSI
Answer: A, B
Explanation: Today the most common SCSI interfaces are 32-bit SCSI-2 and 32-bit SCSI-3.
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Incorrect Answers
16-bit Fast/Wide and 8-bit Standard SCSI are older SCSI standards which are rarely used today.
QUESTION 451:
You are the technician at Certkiller . You want to achieve a speed of 100 Mbps over fiber channel SCSI.
What type of media cable can you use?
A. Coaxial
B. Ribbon
C. UTP
D. Parallel
Answer: B
QUESTION 452:
A customer has a motherboard that accepts the 5 pin DIN keyboard connector.
What type of motherboard could the customer have? (Choose two)
A. AT
B. XT
C. LT
D. ATX
Answer: A, B
Explanation: AT and XT can supply the 5-pin DIN keyboard connector.
QUESTION 453:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know how to identify
an ATA/33 IDE cable from an ATA/66 IDE cable.
What would your reply be?
A. Cable color
B. Cable pin out
C. Twists in the cable
D. Number of wires
Answer: D
Explanation: The ATA/33 cable has 40 wires, while the ATA/66 cable has 80 wires. The best way to
distinguish between the cables is simply to count the wires
Note: Ultra ATA/66 removes bottlenecks associated with data transfers, especially during sequential
operations. Ultra ATA/66 requires a special 40-pin, 80-conductor cable that reduces noise bleed-over and
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improves signal integrity by providing 40 additional ground lines between each of the standard 40-pin ATA
signal lines and ground lines.
ATA/66 cable with 80 wires.
ATA/33 cable with 40 wires.
Incorrect Answers
A: There is no standard for coloring the cables..
B: Both the ATA/33 cable and the ATA/66 cable use 40-pins. This enables ATA/33 and ATA/66 devices can
coexists on the same cable. However, since both cables have the same number of pins they cannot easily be
distinguished by pins.
C: There are no twists in the cable.
QUESTION 454:
Which of the following are managed by the system board BIOS?
A. NIC (Network Interface Card)
B. Printers
C. Modems
D. ATA (IDE)
Answer: D
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Explanation: IDE ATA settings are included BIOS.
Incorrect Answers
Network adapters, printers, and modems are not configured in BIOS.
QUESTION 455:
Which of the following printers would make the MOST noise?
A. A Dot Matrix printer
B. An InkJet printer
C. A Laser printer
D. A Thermal printer
Answer: A
Dot matrix printers makes a physical impact on the paper, which produces noise.
QUESTION 456:
The Toner is deposited onto the drum surface in which step of the printing process?
A. Writing
B. Conditioning
C. Developing
D. Transferring
Answer: C
Not D: The Transferring phase is when the Paper is charged by the transfer corona wire, more
than the charge that is on the drum, causing the toner to move (transfer!) from the drum onto the
paper.
QUESTION 457:
Your boss Dr. Bill asks you how a Bubble Jet or Ink Jet printer produces images and letters on a piece of
paper. What can you tell Dr. Bill?
A. By rolling ink on the paper
B. By impacting the paper through a carbon ribbon
C. By transferring ink via an electrostatic charge
D. By spraying ink on to the paper
Answer: D
In a thermal inkjet printer, tiny resistors create heat, and this heat vaporizes ink to create a bubble. As the
bubble expands, some of the ink is pushed out of a nozzle onto the paper.
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QUESTION 458:
You want to configure a PC to boot from a CD-ROM. What would be the MOST effective way of doing this?
A. Disable the primary Master Harddrive.
B. Configure the CD-ROM to primary Master.
C. Set the CD-ROM to bootable in BIOS.
D. Change the boot order in BIOS.
Answer: D
QUESTION 459:
You are a trainee at Certkiller . You are told to connect a bootable hard drive to a PC.
Which connector on the IDE cable should you use?
A. The first connector of the primary IDE controller.
B. The second connector of the primary IDE controller.
C. The third connector of the primary IDE controller.
D. Either the first or the second connector of the primary IDE controller.
Answer: D
Explanation: The bootable device is not decided by the location on the IDE connector. The active
partition will be the bootable drive. The active partition is configurable from within the OS.
QUESTION 460:
What is the speed of AGP 4x?
A. 133.25 MB/s
B. 266.5 MB/s
C. 533 MB/s
D. 1066 MB/s
E. 2133 MB/s
Answer: D
Explanation: Speed indicates the maximum data transfer
bandwidth of the AGP variant, where 1x is 266.5 MB/s, 2x is
533 MB/s, 4x is 1066 MB/s, and 8x is 2133 MB/s.
QUESTION 461:
A PCI slot is found where?
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A. Motherboard
B. Processor/CPU
C. Power Supply
D. Hardware
Answer: A
QUESTION 462:
What voltages does an ATX Power Supply output? (Select Three.)
A. 3.3 volts
B. 5.0 volts
C. 9.0 volts
D. 12.0 volts
E. 17.0 volts
Answer: A, B, D
Most power supplies supply voltages to the computer of 3.3 volts, 5 volts, and 12 volts.
QUESTION 463:
Which ZIF socket does an AMD XP processor use?
A. PGA 370
B. A
C. PGA 603
D. Slot 1
Answer: B
Known as AMD Socket A XP.
QUESTION 464:
Which differentiates EPP (Enhanced Parallel Port) from ECP (Enhanced Capsulation Port) parallel
ports?
A. ECP uses DMA
B. EPP requires more RAM
C. EPP requires a device driver
D. ECP uses 8-bits, EPP uses 4-bits
Answer: A
Explanation: ECP uses DMA, while EPP does not.
Note: Both ECP and EPP use bidirectional communication. EPP only allow communication in one direction
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(half duplex), while ECP allows simultaneous bi-directional communications (full duplex). ECP is therefore
faster than EPP.
Incorrect Answers
B: Neither EPP nor ECP needs much RAM.
C: Neither EPP or ECP needs a device driver.
D: Both ECP and EPP use 8 bits.
QUESTION 465:
Which settings cannot be stored in the CMOS?
A. COM ports
B. hard drive type
C. LPT ports
D. time zone
Answer: D
Explanation: Time zone is configured within the Operating system, not in CMOS.
QUESTION 466:
Where is hard disk information stored?
A. RAM
B. CMOS
C. BOOT.INI
D. SYSTEM.INI
Answer: B
Explanation: BIOS stores hard disk information in CMOS.
QUESTION 467:
A Windows 9x system fails to successfully detect new devices that are added. What should you check
first?
A. Device manager for DMA assignments.
B. Plug and Play settings in control panel.
C. CMOS settings in BIOS for Plug and Play
D. BIOS settings in CMOS for Plug and Play.
Answer: D
Explanation: We should check the BIOS have setting for Plug and Play for any possible inconsistencies.
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Incorrect Answers
A: IRQ and not DMA is critical for detecting new devices.
B: There are no Plug and Play settings in the control panel.
C: The BIOS settings are stored in CMOS, not vice versa.
QUESTION 468:
What is the first program to run during a system boot sequence?
A. BIOS
B. COMMAN.COM
C. CONFIG.SYS
D. AUTOEXEC.BAT
Answer: A
Explanation: The BIOS is the first program being run during the system boot sequence. The OS starts to
load after the BIOS has finished its startup process.
QUESTION 469:
You install a 1.2 GB IDE drive. When you run FDISK, it only reports a drive of 540MB. What went
wrong?
A. The drive is set to slave.
B. No active partition is set.
C. The ribbon cable is on backwards.
D. There is no power to the hard drive.
E. BIOS/Disk Manager was not updated.
Answer: E
Explanation: The BIOS does not support hard drives larger than 540MB. The BIOS should, if possible,
be upgraded for large hard-drive support.
Incorrect Answers
A: It is not relevant if the drive is set to slave or master.
B: The active partition only makes a partition bootable.
C: If the ribbon cable was set backwards, it would not be possible to access the drive at all.
D: If the drive had no power, it would not be possible to access the drive at all.
QUESTION 470:
Which type of connectors is used on a parallel printer cable? (Choose two)
A. DB9
B. RJ-25
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C. DB25
D. MiniDIN
E. Centronics36
Answer: C, E
Explanation:
C: A DB25 is a typical parallel printer connection on the PC end.
E: A Centronics36 is the typical parallel printer connection on the printer end.
QUESTION 471:
Which device contains its own BIOS?
A. DRAM
B. Hard drive
C. Diskette drive
D. Video adapter
Answer: D
Explanation: Video adapters may contain its own BIOS.
QUESTION 472:
When installing PCI network interface you can check IRQ availability looking at?
A. DIP switches.
B. Config.sys.
C. Jumper settings.
D. Motherboard BIOS.
Answer: D
Explanation: The BIOS (or even better the Device Manager) can be used to check IRQ availability.
Incorrect Answers
A, C: DIP switches or jumper settings might be used for IRQ configuration, but they do not contain information
on available IRQs.
B: Configuration files do not contain information on available IRQs.
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QUESTION 473:
What is modified when changing the system start up boot sequence?
A. BIOS/CMOS.
B. CONFIG.SYS
C. AUTOEXEC.BAT
D. COMMAND.COM
Answer: A
Explanation: The CMOS memory holds the BIOS settings. The boot sequence is a BIOS setting.
Incorrect Answers
The startup boot sequence is not configured in the OS.
QUESTION 474:
You get a CMOS Checksum error during boot up. What is the most likely cause?
A. Power Supply is bad.
B. BIOS needs Updating
C. CMOS battery is nearing end of life.
D. Hard Drive types are incorrectly defined.
Answer: C
Explanation: A CMOS checksum error indicates an error in the configuration. The most likely cause of
this error is that the contents of the CMOS have been erased. The CMOS settings will be lost when the
CMOS battery is used up.
QUESTION 475:
How does a parallel port communicate information to a peripheral device?
A. 1 bit at a time
B. 8 bytes at a time
C. 1 byte at a time
D. 16,555 bytes at a time.
Answer: C
Explanation: Parallel communication use 8 bits simultaneously. One byte is 8 bits.
Incorrect Answers
A: Serial communication use one bit a time.
B, D: Parallel communication only uses one byte at time.
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QUESTION 476:
What could cause a larger capacity drive to format at lower capacity when you install it in an existing
system?
A. The disk repository is full
B. The new drive in not y2k compatible
C. The ram does not support the larger capacity hard drives
D. The BIOS cannot handle the larger capacity drive and formats at the highest recognizable capacity.
Answer: D
Explanation: If the BIOS do not support the higher capacity drive, you may only be able to use a portion
the available space on the hard drive.
QUESTION 477:
Which values are held in the CMOS for hard drive?
A. Drive bay location.
B. Access Speed to data
C. Size (Head, Cylinders, Sectors)
D. Physical dimension of the drive (Height, Width, Depth, Weight)
Answer: C
Explanation: In BIOS the size of a hard drive is measured in Heads, Cylinders and Sectors.
QUESTION 478:
Which type of connector is used for a parallel connector on the end that connects to the printer?
A. 9-Pin (DB-9) male
B. 25-Pin (DB-25) male
C. 25-Pin (DB-25) female
D. Centronics (36-pin) D-shell
Answer: D
Explanation: A 36-pin Centronics connector is used to connect to the physical printer (print device).
QUESTION 479:
From which location are first instructions available when a microcomputer is powering up?
A. CPU
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B. Boot.ini
C. ROM BIOS
D. Config.sys
Answer: C
Explanation: The instructions are loaded from the ROM BIOS.
Incorrect Answers
A: The CPU only contains microcode for the CPU itself. It does not contain any code run by the system at
startup.
B, D: The first instructions are not fetched from the hard drive, they are fetched from ROM:
QUESTION 480:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the CMOS chip.
Answer:
QUESTION 481:
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Where are the system date and time maintained when the system is turned off?
A. In RAM
B. In the CMOS
C. On the hard drive
D. In the power supply
Answer: B
Explanation: The BIOS use CMOS memory to store the system date and time.
Incorrect Answers
A: RAM is volatile and any information stored in RAM are lost when the system is turned off.
C: The hard drive is not used by the BIOS to storage information.
D: The power supply is not used for data storage.
QUESTION 482:
Which are valid types of parallel ports? (Choose three.)
A. EPP
B. EEP
C. ECP
D.USB
E. Bi-directional
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation:
A: EPP (Enhanced Parallel Port) features up to 2-MB-per-second data-transfer rates, bidirectional 8-bit
operation.
C: ECP (Extended Capabilities Port) features 2-MB-per-second data transfer and bidirectional 8-bit operation.
E: A parallel port can be bi-directional.
Note: Bi-directional is not a port type, however this is the third best alternative. Bi-tronic would be a better
choice, but it is not present. Bi-Tronics features bidirectional communication.
Incorrect Answers
B: There is no such thing as an EEP parallel port standard.
D: USB is a serial port.
QUESTION 483:
What does a 201 error indicate during POST?
A. CPU error.
B. Memory error.
C. Video problem.
D. Floppy drive error.
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Answer: B
Explanation: POST errors in the 200-299 range indicates (almost always) Memory errors.
Note: In general post errors lays in the following ranges:
1xx: Motherboard errors.
2xx: RAM errors.
3xx: Keyboard errors
6xx: Floppy disk drive errors
11xx: COM1 errors
17xx: Hard drive errors
3xxx: NIC errors
Incorrect Answers
A, C: CPU and Video errors would not be in the 2xx range.
D: A floppy drive error would be in the 6xx range.
QUESTION 484:
You have just finished a clean installation of Windows 2000 and remove the installation CD from the
drive. When you reboot the system you receive the following error message 'Can't find the bootable CD
ROM device'. What should you do to correct the problem?
A. Reinstall the ATAPI driver.
B. Make sure MSCDEXE is loaded in CONFIG.BAT.
C. Change the BIOS boot sequence to A, C, CD-ROM.
D. Replace your hard drive and run FDISK and reinstall the OS.
Answer: C
Explanation: We should ensure that the boot sequence lists the hard drive before the CD-ROM drive or
at least ensure that the hard drive is included as a boot device.
Incorrect Answers
A: ATAPI drivers are not installed by users. They are a part of the operating system.
B: MCSD.EXE was used in older Windows versions. It is not used in Windows 2000.
D: There is no need to reinstall the OS, we just need to change the boot sequence.
QUESTION 485:
A customer calls and says the computer will not boot. The system brings up the first screen that shows
the memory count but it freezes immediately so that the user can't enter the CMOS setup screen. What
should you take to the site to fix the problem?
A. CPU.
B. Modem.
C. Video card.
D. Floppy drive.
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Answer: A
Explanation: It could be a memory problem(not listed) or a CPU problem.
Incorrect Answers
B: POST does not check modems.
C: The monitor is working so it is not a video card problem.
D: A floppy drive problem with not freeze the computer.
QUESTION 486:
You had just made a floppy boot disk and want to test it. You put the disk in the drive and restart the
computer but it boots up to the Windows 9x GUI. Why?
A. The disk is set to write protect.
B. The BIOS is set to boot the hard drive first.
C. You did not set the boot sector of the disk to active.
D. You left your Windows 9x CD in the CD-ROM drive.
Answer: B
Explanation: The BIOS is configured to boot from the hard drive before it tries to boot from the floppy.
Note: GUI stands for the Graphical User Interface.
Incorrect Answers
A: A write protected floppy disk can still be use as a boot disk.
C: To boot from a hard drive partitions the partition need to be set to active. No such procedure is required to
boot from a diskette.
D: The system would not boot to GUI from a Windows 9x CD-ROM. The installation process would start but
no GUI would be reached initially.
Furthermore if the system boots from the CD-ROM instead of the diskette, the BIOS start order should be
changed.
QUESTION 487:
What is the most important step when upgrading the BIOS?
A. Shut off the UPS.
B. Unplug all connectors.
C. Write down all the settings.
D. Save the BIOS upgrade files on to a floppy disc.
Answer: C
Explanation: Before upgrading the BIOS we should write down all important CMOS settings to be able
to return to the previous BIOS state if needed.
Incorrect Answers
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A: The use of an UPS is not related to the upgrade of the BIOS.
B: It is not necessary to unplug connections.
D: The upgrade files would not be helpful if we want to revert to the previous state.
QUESTION 488:
In which circumstance is it necessary to replace the CMOS chip?
A. If it is a non flash type.
B. When the CMOS is full.
C. When you upgrade the CPU.
D. After you have flashed it several times.
Answer: A
Explanation: If you must upgrade the BIOS, for example to support a new device, and your BIOS is not
flashable, then the CMOS chip would have to be replaced.
Incorrect Answers
B: The CMOS chip cannot become full.
C: A CPU upgrade would in general not require a replacement of the CMOS chip.
D: Flashing the CMOS chip several would not force you to replace it.
QUESTION 489:
Which IRQs are assigned first?
A. CMOS configured.
B. Hardware configured.
C. Windows 9x legacy.
D. Windows 9x plug and play.
Answer: A
Explanation: You use BIOS to reserve IRQs for non-Plug and Play devices. This prevents Plug and Play
devices from using these IRQs. The BIOS configuration is saved in CMOS memory.
Incorrect Answers
B, C: Hardware configured and Windows 9x legacy devices might be configurable from within the OS or not at
all. These devices are not assigned any IRQ, they just use the IRQ that they have been configured with.
D: Plug and play devices configure themselves and use the remaining available IRQs.
QUESTION 490:
A PC's CMOS information was erased. What should you do first after re-entering the correct settings?
A. Replace the CMOS battery.
B. Check the motherboard reset pin.
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C. Test the CMOS battery's voltage level.
D. Observe the PC for problem recurrence.
Answer: D
Explanation: We should observe and see if the problem reoccurs. If it reoccurs we should replace the
CMOS battery.
Incorrect Answers
A: We should replace the CMOS battery before re-entering correct settings, not after. When we replace the
battery the CMOS settings will be lost.
B: The motherboard reset pin is used to reset the CMOS settings. It would not serve any point in checking this
pin.
C: Checking the CMOS battery level is no usually done.
QUESTION 491:
What is the first critical component that a fail motherboard battery effects?
A. RAM.
B. ROM.
C. BIOS.
D. CMOS.
Answer: D
Explanation: The CMOS memory uses the motherboard battery to keep its settings.
Incorrect Answers
A: RAM do not use the motherboard battery.
B: ROM is not affected.
C: The BIOS is the firmware that handles the settings in CMOS. The BIOS program is stored in ROM and is
not affected by motherboard battery.
QUESTION 492:
In a Plug and Play system when installing a second hard drive what determines the drive letter?
A. End user
B. Position on cable
C. Operating system
D. Drive manufacturer
Answer: B
Explanation: A PC has one IDE controller and two IDE port. Each port supports two IDE devices. One
must be master and the other must be slave. Furthermore, the positioning on the cable determines which
drive letter the device receives. This assignment is handled by the BIOS.
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Incorrect Answers
A: Typically the drive letter assignment is automatic. However, on some systems the end user can decide this
assignment himself. This is not so common yet.
C: Different OSes can give different possibilities for assigning drive letters. However, as many OSes still does
not support this feature. Furthermore, the initial assignment of drive letters is based on the positioning on the
cable. Some OSes give the possibilities to re-assign these drive letters.
D: The IDE standard is general and do not depend on different brands of hard drives. The position on the IDE
cable decides the driver letter of the hard drive.
QUESTION 493:
Where can you find the BIOS version ID?
A. System properties
B. BIOS setup screens
C. Motherboard manual
D. On the back of the computer
Answer: B
Explanation: The BIOS version ID can be seen when using the BIOS setup screens.
Incorrect Answers
System properties,
Incorrect Answers
A: System properties cannot reveal the version of the BIOS that is running.
C, D: Most modern BIOSes can be upgraded by flashing them. It would therefore be impossible to contain the
current BIOS version in either the Motherboard manual or at the back of the computer.
QUESTION 494:
What must you do after replacing the CMOS battery?
A. Use FDISK
B. Flash the BIOS
C. Set the date and time
D. Format the hard drive
Answer: C
Explanation: Replacing the CMOS battery would reset the date and time settings.
Incorrect Answers
There is no need to use FDISK, flash the BIOS or format the hard drive after replacing the CMOS battery.
QUESTION 495:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the parallel port?
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Answer:
Explanation:
This port is also known as a printer port.
QUESTION 496:
What are the minimum hardware components required for the POST to past? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CPU
B. RAM
C. Mouse
D. Hard drive
E. Video Card
Answer: A, B, E
Explanation: To pass the POST the CPU, the RAM and the Video card must be functioning.
Incorrect Answers
The Mouse or the hard drive does not have to be functioning or even being present.
QUESTION 497:
Some one placed a BIOS password on a computer and forgot the password. What should you do?
(Choose two)
A. Boot to a floppy and fdisk the drive.
B. Temporarily remove the CMOS battery.
C. Go into BIOS setup and delete the password.
D. Clear the CMOS by shortening the CMOS jumper.
E. Boot down the computer while holding down the <CTRL> key.
Answer: B, D
Explanation: We must reset the BIOS settings. Depending on the motherboard this can be done by
removing the CMOS battery or shortening or by shortening the CMOS jumper.
Incorrect Answers
A: Repartitioning the drive is unnecessary and will not help.
C: We cannot enter BIOS setup without the password.
E: We must reset the CMOS battery. There is no way we can override the password with different key strokes.
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QUESTION 498:
"Drive A not ready, Abort, Retry, Fail"
What should you suspect? (Choose two)
A. The drive is bad.
B. The floppy disk is bad .
C. The drive cable is bad
D. The power connector is loose.
E. The drive is dirty and needs to be cleaned
Answer: B, E
Explanation: First we should suspect the floppy diskette. It could be defect.
The drive could also be dirty and in need of cleaning.
Incorrect Answers
A, C: The drive or the drive cable could bad, but it is less likely.
D: We would get another error message if the power connector was loose.
QUESTION 499:
When you boot up your computer the light on the diskette drive lights up and stays lit. What does this
mean?
A. Disk is in the drive
B. No disk is in the drive
C. The data cable is installed backwards
D. The diskette drive is functioning properly
Answer: C
Explanation: A floppy cable that is installed backwards would keep diskette drive light lit.
Incorrect Answers
A, B; D: If the diskette drive was functioning properly the diskette drive light would be turned off after the boot
process finishes regardless if the there were a disk present or not.
QUESTION 500:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the floppy port.
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Answer:
QUESTION 501:
What does the BIOS do when a plug and play card is installed?
A. Looks for the manufacturer of the card.
B. Checks the processor ID for compliance.
C. Disables the other cards until the new card is installed.
D. Consults the ESCD to determine which system resources are available and needed for the card.
Answer: D
Explanation: Every PnP BIOS keeps a list of all system resources used, usually on the CMOS or the flash
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ROM. This storage area is called the ESCD (Extended System Configuration Data). The ESCD provides
a computer's BIOS and the operating system with information for communicating with Plug-and-Play
(PnP) devices.
Incorrect Answers
A: The BIOS does not look for the manufacturer of the card.
B: The BIOS does not check the processor ID.
C: The BIOS does not disable other cards.
QUESTION 502:
You have just finished a clean installation of Windows 2000 and removed the installation CD from the
drive. When you reboot the system you receive the following error message, "Can't find bootable
CD-ROM device." What should you do to correct the problem?
A. Reinstall the ATAPI driver
B. Make sure MSCDEX is loaded in CONFIG.BAT
C. Change the BIIOS boot sequence to A, C, CD-ROM
D. Replace your hard drive, run FDISK, and re-install the OS
Answer: C
Explanation: The system is trying to boot from the CD-ROM, and it is not trying to boot from the hard
drive at all. We must reconfigure the BIOS boot sequence setting to include the hard drive in the boot
sequence.
Incorrect Answers
A: ATAPI drivers are low level drivers that are installed by the operating systems, not by the users.
B: MSCDEX is a used in older Windows versions. It has no use in Windows 2000/XP/.NET.
D: The OS was just installed on the computer. So there is most likely not any problem with your hard drive at
all.
QUESTION 503:
Which events increase the chances of a motherboard failure? (Choose two)
A. Power being lost while updating the BIOS.
B. Power being lost while updating the printer.
C. Connecting a USB device with the power on.
D. Connecting a PS/2 mouse with the power on.
E. Connecting a serial mouse with the power on.
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
A: Power loss during the update process of the BIOS could result in a motherboard failure.
E: A serial mouse is directly connected to an adapter on the motherboard. We should avoid connecting a serial
mouse to the computer while the power is turned on. If we are unlucky the motherboard might get damaged.
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Incorrect Answers
B: Software configuration does not, in general, affect the motherboard in any negative way.
C: USB devices are hot-pluggable. Connecting USB devices with the power on is one of the features of USB:
D: Connecting a PS/2 while the power is on might not be such a good idea, but it is not as critical as connecting
a serial mouse.
QUESTION 504:
You just installed a Pentium II 800-MHz chip. When you booted up your computer, it only recognized
400-MHz chip. What could be the problem?
A. Only half of the chip is installed into the socket.
B. The jumper settings on the chip are not correct.
C. You do not have enough space on your hard drive.
D. The BIOS setting is not reflecting a multi-speed setting.
Answer: D
Explanation: The CPU speed on modern PCs is configurable through BIOS. We should adjust the BIOS
setting of the CPU speed.
Incorrect Answers
A: If the CPU chip is incorrectly installed the computer would not start.
B: There are no jumper settings on CPU chips.
C: Lack of hard drive space does not affect the CPU speed.
QUESTION 505:
A system was working perfectly yesterday. Suddenly you get a "CMOS configuration mismatch" error.
What should you do?
A. Check the settings of the hard drive.
B. Check the voltage of the CMOS battery.
C. Verify that all devices are getting power.
D. Erase the CMOS settings and reconfigure.
Answer: D
Explanation: We should erase the CMOS settings and reconfigure. If the problem reoccurs we should
replace the CMOS battery.
Incorrect Answers
A: Hard drive settings is not related to this problem.
B: Checking the voltage of the CMOS battery is not a standard troubleshooting procedure.
C: There is no need to verify that all devices are getting power.
QUESTION 506:
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A user reports that the computer is acting strangely. The correct time is set in the Operating System, but
when the PC is rebooted the system time is reset. The technician replaces the CMOS battery, sets the
time and reboots the PC only to find that the time is still being reset. What is the problem?
A. The contacts on the CMOS battery holder are corroded
B. The Operating System need to be reinstalled
C. The Power Supply needs to be replaced.
D. The BIOS needs to be upgraded to support the new battery.
Answer: A
Problem related to CMOS. Most likely some problem with the battery.
However, a new battery would not required a BIOS update.
QUESTION 507:
On a laptop Computer. where can the BUS mastering be disable?
A. CMOS
B. RAM
C. POST
D. Device Manager
Answer: A
Bus mastering is disabled in CMOS.
By exclusion
B: RAM - no sense here.
C: Power on Self Test - no sense here.
D: Bus mastering cannot be disabled within the Operating System.
QUESTION 508:
Which of the following starts the system Boot sequence?
A. BIOS
B. Command.com
C. Config.sys
D. Autoexec.bat
Answer: A
QUESTION 509:
What should be done to ensure that the proper hardware resources are available when installing a legacy
hardware device?
A. Reserve its hardware resources in the PnP/PCI CMOS Settings.
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B. Allow the OS to detect if and reserve its hardware resources.
C. Manually configure the device by properly configuring the device drives.
D. Disable any non-legacy devices, and then re-enable them after the legacy device is installed.
Answer: A
QUESTION 510:
Which of the following settings can be changed in the computers CMOS?
(Select Two)?
A. Computer Data & Time
B. CD-ROM drive Letter
C. Type of Floppy Drive
D. Ram Memory Size.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION 511:
You are the technician at Certkiller . A user complains of a "Diskette Write Protected" error.
What would you do to resolve this problem?
A. Slide the tab on the diskette.
B. Enter the command "write disk".
C. Replace the diskette any try again.
D. Eject the diskette, re-insert it and try again.
Answer: A
QUESTION 512:
You are the technician at Certkiller . The company CEO complains that the time on her PC keeps falling
behind and that she has to manually reset it.
What is the likely cause of this problem?
A. Time synchronization is not set.
B. CMOS battery needs replacement.
C. The motherboard's ROM chip is failing.
D. BIOS time settings are incorrect.
Answer: B
QUESTION 513:
What will you do in a case when a Device Manager reports an IRQ conflict between two modems after
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restarting in an environment where a Windows-2000 computer has a non PnP (non Plug and Play) modem that
uses IRQ 5.A technician adds a PCI modem?
A: Use the Device Manager to change the IRQ of the non PnP (non Plug and Play) modem to 9.
B: Edit the CMOS settings on the computer to reserve IRQ 5 for non PnP (non Plug and Play) devices.
C Use the Device Manager to change the IRQ of the non PnP (non Plug and Play) modem to 11.
C: Start the modem trouble shooter to resolve the problem.
Answer: B
QUESTION 514:
What would be the proper boot sequence for a computer if it has to have a blank floppy disk in its system for a
particular application?
A: Harddrive CD-ROM Floppy.
B: Floppy, Harddrive.
C: CD-ROM, Floppy, Harddrive.
D: Floppy, CD-ROM, Harddrive.
Answer: A
QUESTION 515:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to make a bootable
floppy diskette. What files MUST be copied to the diskette? (Choose three)
A: COMMAND.COM
B: SYS.COM
C: IO.SYS.
D: MSDOS.SYS.
Answer: A, C, D
A bootable floppy contains the default system-files:
- COMMAND.COM, IO.SYS and MSDOS.SYS
QUESTION 516:
A customer's Windows 98 system does not boot normally. What is Microsoft's recommended first step to
troubleshoot this problem?
A: Reboot the system again.
B: Start Windows 98 in Safe Mode.
C: Revert to the Last Known Good configuration.
D: Re-install the Operating System.
Answer: B
QUESTION 517:
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A customer's computer freezes during startup. The computer booted properly yesterday. To get further
information, what is the first question the customer should be asked?
A: When did the problem start occurring?
B: Did the customer hear any unusual noises?
C: Does the computer give any error messages?
D: What was the customer doing differently?
Answer: D
QUESTION 518:
You are the technician at Certkiller . A Certkiller receives a "CMOS Checksum Failure" error when she
boots her computer. Which of the following components would you need to replace?
A: Power Supply.
B: CMOS Chip.
C: Motherboard.
D: CMOS Battery.
Answer: D
QUESTION 519:
A customer complains that she cannot open files on a floppy diskette, nor can she save new files on the diskette.
How would you determine if this is a hardware or a software problem?
A. Open the system box and replace the floppy drive and see if this work.
If it works, it was a hardware problem.
B. Set the BIOS Boot Sequence to Boot form a DOS diskette first.
Insert a DOS boot diskette and see if the system boots to it.
Try writing or copying a file to the Boot diskette.
If it works, it is a software problem.
C. Make sure that the write protect tab on the diskette is in the unprotected mode.
If it works, it was a hardware problem.
D. Use a floppy drive cleaner and then try to use the floppy drive.
If it works, it was a hardware problem.
Answer: C
QUESTION 520:
Which of the following has the highest throughput?
A. SPP
B. ECP (Extended Capabilities Port)
C. EPP (Enhanced Parallel Port)
D. UPP
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Answer: B
Explanation: Both ECP and EPP use bidirectional communication. EPP only allow communication in
one direction (half duplex), while ECP allows simultaneous bi-directional communications (full duplex).
Furthermore, ECP uses a DMA channel which enables direct access to peripherals and thus makes it
faster.
Incorrect Answers
A, D: The answers SPP and UPP do not apply.
C: ECP is faster.
QUESTION 521:
What is the DMA channel for the floppy drive controller?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Explanation: The floppy drive controller uses DMA 2. This can be checked with the Device Manager or
System Information on Windows computers.
QUESTION 522:
A customer has an ink jet printer. What is the most common standard parallel cable used for these types
of printers?
A. USB
B. SCSI 3
C. IEEE 1284
D. SERIAL DB 15
Answer: C
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Explanation: IEEE 1284 is the standard used for parallel print cables and connectors.
Note: A standard 25-pin "D" (female) connector, also called the parallel port, is used for printing.
QUESTION 523:
You are the technician at Certkiller . The CEO complains that after she takes a page out of the LaserJet
printer, the print out smears. What is the problem?
A. Damp paper
B. Fuser assembly
C. Wrong type of toner
D. Output roller assembly.
Answer: B
Explanation: The problem happens when the fuser does not melt the toner to the page (TONER IS A
POWER) leaving a power residue instead of it being melted to the page. Which will cause smearing. So
the answer is a defective FUSER which dose not heat up.
QUESTION 524:
You are the technician at Certkiller . The CEO complains that the LaserJet printer keeps getting a
memory overflow error when printing a particular document. Which of the following could possibly fix
this problem? (Choose three)
A. Reset the printer cable.
B. Replace the toner cartridge.
C. Decrease the print resolution.
D. Add more RAM to the printer.
E. Reduce the RET (Resolution Enhancement Technology).
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation: The memory is inadequate. Decreasing the print resolution or reducing the RET would
decrease the memory demand. Adding more memory could also help the memory overflow problem.
Incorrect Answers
A: Memory overflows are not related to the printer cable.
B: The toner cartridge is in any way related to the memory overflow problem.
QUESTION 525:
A Certkiller trainee built a clone PC from scratch. The floppy drive's LED is lit up and stays on from the
moment the PC is powered on. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Hard drive failureB. CMOS configuration error
C. A disk left in the floppy drive
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D. Floppy drive cable connection
Answer: D
Explanation: A floppy drive cable that has been applied backwards would cause the floppy drive's LED
light to stay lit.
QUESTION 526:
Which of the following are the major hard drive settings in the CMOS? (Choose three.)
A. Heads.
B. Tracks.
C. Volume.
D. Sector.
E. Cylinder.
Answer: A, D, E
Explanation: The major CMOS hard drive settings are Cylinders, Heads, and Sectors.
Incorrect Answers
B, C: Tracks and volumes are not configured in CMOS.
QUESTION 527:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee has a floppy drive cable. She
wants to know what is the drive letter assigned to the drive after the twist.
What would your reply be?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: A
Explanation: The floppy drive connected after the twist will be assigned the letter A.
Incorrect Answers
B: The floppy drive connected before the twist will be assigned the letter B.
C, D: The letters C and D cannot be assigned to diskette drive. They are used for mass storage devices such as
hard drives and CD-ROMs.
QUESTION 528:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which are the
correct combinations of COM ports and IRQs on a PC.
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What would your reply be? (Choose two)
A. COM1 and COM2, IRQ5
B. COM3 and COM4, IRQ2
C. COM1 and COM3, IRQ4
D. COM1 and COM3, IRQ3
E. COM2 and COM4, IRQ3
Answer: C, E
Explanation: COM1 and COM3 use IRQ4.
COM2 and COM4 use IRQ3.
QUESTION 529:
You are the technician at Certkiller . You want to configure the hard disk in the BIOS. Where does BIOS
save this setting?
A. CPU
B. CMOS
C. Memory
D. Hard Drive
Answer: B
Explanation: The BIOS settings are stored in the CMOS memory.
QUESTION 530:
During a cold boot of a system, which test examines the CPU, memory and video?
A. CMOS
B. POST
C. DIOS
D. Bootstrap
Answer: B
QUESTION 531:
The current BIOS version on two workstations does not support the processor that will be installed, but
the same motherboard with new BIOS version does. Which of the following is the best way to resolve the
problem?
A. Update the CMOS using a HEX editor.
B. Flash the BIOS with a binary or HEX file.
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C. Replace the old motherboard with a new one.
D. Use the debug command to copy the BIOS from a new motherboard.
Answer: B
QUESTION 532:
What is the name of the process that laser printers use to produce a printed image?
A. Laser writingB. Micro-laser printing
C. Electro-photographic
D. Ink-jet laser photographic
Answer: C
Explanation: Laser printers use the electro-photographic process to produce the printed image.
QUESTION 533:
You must service the laser printer in your office. Which part of the printer should you avoid touching
because it is hot?
A. Fuser.
B. Print head.
C. Primary corona.
D. High voltage power supply.
Answer: A
Explanation: The fuser heats the toner which is melted to the paper. The temperature is around 170
Celsius.
QUESTION 534:
In ink jet printers what is the most common problem with the paper tray?
A. In consistent printing.
B. Malfunctioning pick up rollers.
C. Misalignment of the sheet feeder.
D. Paper jamming on the ink cartage.
Answer: B
Explanation: Inkjet printer use pick up rollers. Problems with pickup rollers would prevent any papers
from being pulled into the printer.
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QUESTION 535:
A laser printer generates a totally black paper. What is the cause?
A. Malfunctioning image laser.
B. Low level in the tonal cartage.
C. No power to the transfer corona.
D. No power to the primary corona.
Answer: D
Explanation: No power to the primary corona would result in a totally black paper.
QUESTION 536:
What is the paper feeder technology most commonly associated with dot matrix printers?
A. Sheet feed.
B. Tractor feed.
C. Friction feed.
D. Manual feed.
Answer: B
Explanation: Matrix printers use tractor feed.
QUESTION 537:
Laser jet printer speeds are measured in pages per minute (PPM). What do we use to measure the speed
of dot matrix printers?
A. Lines per inch.
B. Lines per sheets.
C. Characters per inch.
D. Characters per second.
Answer: D
Explanation: The speed of matrix printers is measured in characters per second.
QUESTION 538:
What allows you to print on both sides of the paper?
A. Fuser.
B. Duplexer.
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C. Toner cartage.
D. Paper swapping unit.
Answer: B
Explanation: Print duplexing is the ability to print on both sides of a page.
Incorrect Answers
A: A fuser melts the image onto the paper.
C: A toner cartridge just a container for toner.
D: A paper swapping unit is not required to print on both sides of a page.
QUESTION 539:
Which device should not be plugged into a standard UPS?
A. Any monitor
B. Laser printer
C. An inkjet printer
D. External Modem
E. WAP
F. Network hub
Answer: B
Explanation: A Laser printer should never be plugged to an UPS since Laser Printers consumes a lot of
power when printing. This could disrupt the UPS
Incorrect Answers
A: Monitors can be attached to an UPS.
C: Inkjet printer does not use as much power as LaserJet printers and they can therefore be connected to an
UPS.
D: External modem consumes minimal power and be attached to an UPS.
QUESTION 540:
In common ink jet printers how is ink transferred to the page? (Choose two)
A. Pressure is built by boiling ink
B. Pressure is applied by using a crystal
C. Pressure is built by a motorized pump
D. Screens deflect ink on the paper into the proper positions.
E. Ink is sprayed on to the paper and managed by a nozzle.
Answer: A, E
Explanation: There are two basic inkjet techniques:
Bubble jet: In a thermal inkjet printer, tiny resistors create heat, and this heat vaporizes ink to create a bubble.
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As the bubble expands, some of the ink is pushed out of a nozzle onto the paper.
Piezo-electric: A crystal is located at the back of the ink reservoir of each nozzle. The crystal receives a tiny
electric charge that causes it to vibrate. When the crystal vibrates inward, it forces a tiny amount of ink out of
the nozzle.
The bubble-jet technique is more common so boiling ink and nozzle is the correct answer.
QUESTION 541:
How many print head pins would there be on a standard paper quality dot matrix printer?
A. 9
B. 15
C. 24
D. 25
Answer: C
Explanation: Using 24 pins is called Near Letter Quality. It is the standard paper quality dot on matrix
printers.
Note: Some Dot matrix printers have 48 pins.
Incorrect Answers
A: 9 pins are used in Draft mode. The quality is quite poor.
B, D: 15 or 25 pins are not used by matrix printers.
QUESTION 542:
In the fusing stage of the laser printing process the _______________?
A. toner transfers to the corona.
B. printer melts the written image to the paper.
C. primary corona wire gives a charge to the photosensitive drum.
D. laser writes the image that it will print to the photo sensitive drum.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the fusing stage the toner is melted permanently to the page by the fusing rollers that apply pressure
and heat.
QUESTION 543:
A dot matrix printer is printing patchy, faint or uneven. Which action will correct the problem?
A. Replacing the ribbon
B. Replacing the timing belt
C. Adjusting the paper feed tension
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D. Adjusting the tractor feed tension
Answer: A
Explanation: The print ribbon is worn out and should be replaced.
QUESTION 544:
Which component must be vacuumed or replaced during preventive maintenance on a laser printer?
A. Ozone filter
B. Scanning mirror
C. Developing Blade
D. Photosensitive Drum
Answer: A
Explanation: The Ozone filter must be kept clean. You can vacuum it or use canned air. Eventually the
ozone filter will have to be replaced.
Incorrect Answers
B, C: Scanning mirrors and developing blades are usually not vacuumed or replaced.
D: You should not vacuum the photosensitive drum. It might be harmed.
QUESTION 545:
How are toner cartridges disposed off?
A. Burned
B. Thrown Away
C. Recycled by manufacturer
D. Recycled with standard plastic
Answer: C
Explanation: Toner cartridges contain material that could damage the environment and should therefore
be recycled. The manufacturer is responsible for recycling the toner cartridges.
Incorrect Answers
Toner cartridges should not be burned, thrown away or recycled as standard plastic.
QUESTION 546:
Which of the following is the newest type of printer interface?
A. USB
B. Serial
C. SCSI
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D. Parallel
Answer: A
Explanation: The USB interface is a newer than the serial and parallel interfaces.
Incorrect Answers
B: It is unusual to use the serial interface for printing since the serial interface is much slower than the parallel
interface.
C: SCSI is not a printer interface.
D: The parallel interface is the standard interface.
QUESTION 547:
Which component on a printer should you check first when an error code indicates a paper jam but no
paper is in the printer?
A. Tractors
B. Print head
C. Platen folder
D. Paper-Feed Sensors
Answer: D
Explanation: The paper-feed sensors are malfunctioning when a non-existing paper jam is reported.
QUESTION 548:
A dot matrix printer generates printouts that are good on the left side of the page but fade as the printer
moves on the right side of the page. This is the most likely due to?
A. Worn out ribbon
B. Mis-aligned platen
C. Worn out print head
D. Mis-aligned print head
Answer: B
Explanation: If the image gets gradually lighter on one side of the paper, the platen is misaligned and
need to be adjusted.
QUESTION 549:
In a Laser printer what is the most common cause of a wavy image on the paper?
A. Damaged fuser
B. Smooth pickup rollers
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C. Defective LASER scanner
D. Defective toner cartridge
Answer: D
Explanation: A defective Laser toner cartridge is the most likely cause of a wave image.
QUESTION 550:
In a dot matrix printer what strikes the print ribbon to form an image?
A. Pins
B. Trip Hammers
C. Character Wheel
D. Electromagnets
Answer: A
Explanation: Dot matrix uses pins that physically strike the print ribbon.
QUESTION 551:
In the middle of printing several print jobs to a networked dot matrix printer the power goes out. When
power is restored you are unable to get any print jobs from the printer. What should you do to continue
printing on this device?
A. Hit the reload button on the printer.
B. Delete existing print jobs from the printer buffers.
C. Print the documents from a different PC on the network.
D. Click the print command several times until the buffer clears.
Answer: B
Explanation: We should remove the spooled documents. We simply delete the existing print jobs.
Incorrect Answers
A: The print jobs are not stored on the print device they are spooled on the print server.
C: We need to manage the documents from the print server. There is no need to set up printing on another
computer.
D: This is not they way to clear the print buffers.
QUESTION 552:
A customer with Windows 9x cannot print even through the printer is online and ready with the print
jobs queued. What could be the problem?
A. Offline printing is enabled.
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B. The printer driver is overloaded.
C. The printer is in energy-restrict mode.
D. The printer and CPU frequency don't match.
Answer: A
Explanation: Offline printing could be enabled. The print jobs would then be spooled but not printed
until offline printing is disabled.
Incorrect Answers
B: The print driver is just the software interface between the print device and the printer management system. It
cannot be overloaded.
Note: In Microsoft Windows terminology the printer management system is called the printer.
C: Energy-restrict mode would just save energy; it would not prevent jobs from printing.
D: There is no match between the CPU frequency and the printer.
QUESTION 553:
After replacing an ink cartridge in a printer, no printing occurs.
What would be the cause of the problem.(Choose Two)?
A. Cartridge is not seated properly.
B. Cartridge needs to be reset to the start position.
C. Protection tab was not removed.
D. Ink Jet heads need to be realigned.
Answer: A, C
By Exclusion
B: No reset possible for ink cartridges.
D: Bad alignment would still produce output.
QUESTION 554:
What type of connectors are found on each end of a parallel printer
cable?
A.DB 25 and 36 pin Centronics.
B. DB 25 AND DB-37.
C. HD-16 and DB25
D.DB50 and 36 pin Centronics.
Answer: A
QUESTION 555:
Which printing technology is also known as phase-change technology?
A. Dot-Matrix
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B. Ink Dispersion
C. Laser
D. Solid Ink.
Answer: D
Explanation:
High-quality color printers come in five types: thermal wax-transfer, color laser, dye-sublimation, phase-change
and liquid inkjet. Phase-change technology, also known as solid ink, was developed by Tektronix in 1991, and
provides color output on most any kind of paper.
QUESTION 556:
While printing a document to an LPT printer, a customer receives garbled or
garbage printouts, such as smiling faces, hearts, or diamonds printed on the page.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. Virus
B. Communication problem
C. Windows font problem
D. Baud rate problem
Answer: B
Explanation:
Faulty communication between a computer and a HP Deskjet printer might cause the
following problems:
1. Garbled or garbage printouts, such as smiling faces, hearts, or diamonds printed on the
page
2. Nonsense characters, such as an N or at symbol, printed at the top of the page
3. Blank pages fed through the printer
Communication error messages might appear on the computer screen.
Reference:
HP DeskjetPrinters - Troubleshooting Problems With
Garbled Printouts and Resolving Printer Communication
Error Messages in Windows (R) 95, Windows 98,
Windows 2000, and Windows Millennium Edition (Me)
QUESTION 557:
The failure of a print head coil on a Dot Matrix printer will cause which of the following?
A. Print check
B. Missing rows of dots
C. Stop the print head
D. A single beeping sound
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Answer: C
Note: Uncertainty
QUESTION 558:
A User call complaining that every time the user attempts to print a large document, the local printer
fails to print and the document cannot be deleted from the queue. What is the resolution to this problem?
A. Buy a IEEE 1284 Cable.
B. Grant the user full control to the printer.
C. Add more memory in the Computer.
D. Add more memory to the Printer.
Answer: D
If large document cannot be printed, it could be an indication of too little RAM:
QUESTION 559:
An application requires to use multipart NCR paper for invoicing and delivery documents. Which type of
printer is MOST suitable?
A. Laser
B. Thermal
C. Dot Matrix
D. Ink Jet
Answer: C
QUESTION 560:
Which interface provides the fastest communication between a computer
and a printer?
A. 10BaseT Ethernet
B. Parallel
C. Serial
D. USB. 2.0
Answer: D
USB 2.0 supports a maximum data transfer speed of 480 Mbps.
QUESTION 561:
A user reports that after printing a document the toner seems to smudge on the page. What can the
technician do resolve the problem?
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A. Replace Fuser Assembly.
B. Replace Corona Assembly.
C. Replace Drum Assembly.
D. Replace Toner Assembly.
Answer: B
Symptoms: Your printouts have a faint smudge down the page--the heavier the paper stock, the darker the
smudge. Cleaning the corona wire inside the toner cartridge doesn't help.
Cause: This problem is caused by a combination of a worn Transfer Corona and the low humidity/high static
electricity in the air. The high static electricity causes loose toner paticles to go where they shouldn't--especially
when the paper is thick and the Transfer Corona can't deposit a sufficient charge to repel them.
Workaround: In most instances, turning the Green Density dial down to 3 or 1 will solve the problem. This will
increase the charge in the Transfer Corona. You can also reduce this problem by putting a humidifier near the
printer.
Kit Description: The kit involves replacing the Transfer Corona assembly. It should last about 100K pages.
QUESTION 562:
You want to install a USB printer to a Windows NT4.0 workstation. The printer does NOT work. Which
of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Upgrade the PnP (Plug and Play) BIOS.
B. Activate USB in the BIOS.
C. Reboot the PC while the printer is connected.
D. Windows NT 4.0 does not have legacy support for USB.
Answer: D
QUESTION 563:
A customer has cable with a 68 pin DB connector. What type of I/O Port interface does this cable attach
to?
A. Parallel Port
B. USB Port
C. SCSI Port
D. 1394 Port
Answer: C
Incorrect Answers:
A: The parallel port accepts either a 15-pin or a 25-pin DB connector, not a 68-pin connector.
B: A USB port does not accept a DB connector.
D: FireWire (IEEE 1394) does not accept a DB connector.
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QUESTION 564:
A customer receives a long string of beeps when he tries to boot his PC.
What should the technician do?
A. Inform the customer that he should replace the PC motherboard.
B. Tell the customer to reboot the PC and see if the problem continues.
C. Look up the beep codes in the documentation from the BIOS manufacturer.
D. Tell the customer to replace the RAM in the PC.
Answer: C
QUESTION 565:
A user complained about a printing problem. How will you be able to determine whether the problem is
hardware or software related?
A. Check the user's network connection.
B. Print from a different application.
C. Restart the printer.
D. Print one of the printer's internal pages.
Answer: B
QUESTION 566:
What is the reason why toner that is in accordance with applicable regulations should NOT be inhaled?
A. It is sensitizing.
B. It is toxic.
C. It is a carcinogen.
D. It may cause upper respiratory tract irritation.
Answer: D
When inhaled, carbon black, the main ingredient of tone may cause upper respiratory tract irritation but is not
carcinogenic, however, impurities in the toner may be carcinogenic.
QUESTION 567:
Your Certkiller trainee A+ technician wants to know which part of the printer gets the toner from the
photosensitive drum onto the paper. What should you tell him?
A. Fuser
B. Laser scanner
C. Corona
D. Drum
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Answer: C
The Paper is charged by the transfer corona wire, more than the charge that is on the drum, causing the toner to
move from the drum onto the paper.
QUESTION 568:
One of the printers at the Certkiller .com office in Toronto has repeating defects of the printed pages.
Which are the most likely causes of these problems? (Select three)
A. Drum unit
B. Fuser
C. Laser Unit
D. Paper tray
E. Rollers
Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 569:
A customer has not used an InkJet printer for a week. Now the printer is not printing correctly. They state that
the printouts have horizontal white lines through the text and images.
What is the MOST likely cause of this problem?
A: Laser Jet paper is being used in an Ink Jet printer.
B: Parallel cable is loose.
C: Ink Jet Printer drive needs to be reinstalled.
D: Ink Jet print heads are dirty or clogged.
Answer: D
QUESTION 570:
Your Certkiller trainee Sandra asks you what type of printer melts ink, sticks and sprays the melted ink onto a
rotating drum which then transfers the ink to a sheet of paper. What should you tell her?
A. Ink jet
B. Laser
C. Solid Ink
D. Thermal
Answer: D
QUESTION 571:
Your boss Certkiller complains that her Laser printer is not printing properly. After further investigation you
notice that the output is repeatedly marked at equally spaced positions on every page. What is the most likely
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cause of the problem?
A. The drum needs to be replaced.
B. The transfer corona needs cleaning.
C. The fuser unit is damaged.
D. The primary corona needs to be replaced.
Answer: A
QUESTION 572:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what types of
printers do NOT support color.
What will your reply be?
A: Laser.
B: Dye Sublimation.
C: Ink Dispersion.
D: Thermal.
Answer: A
By exclusion. Still there exists Color Laser Printers.
QUESTION 573:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the
standard I/O Port Addresses for the 3 standard LPT Ports on a PC system are.
What would your reply be? (Choose three)
A: Ox278.
B: Ox378.
C: Ox3BC
D: Ox3F8.
E: Ox3FF.
Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 574:
You are the technician at Certkiller . You must service the Laser printer. Which part of the printer should you
avoid touching because it may be hot?
A: Fuser assembly.
B: Print head.
C: Primary corona.
D: High Voltage power supply.
Answer: A
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QUESTION 575:
A customer wants to purchase a scanner. She wants a scanner with the fastest possible performance. What will
you advise her to buy?
A: A scanner with a SCSI interface.
B: A scanner with a USB interface.
C: A scanner with a Serial interface.
D: A scanner with a Parallel interface.
Answer: A
QUESTION 576:
Which of the following standards supports the fastest bi-directional communications between the PC and
a printer?
A. ECP (Extended Capabilities Port)
B. EPP (Enhanced Parallel Port)
C. DB-25
D. DB-9
Answer: A
Both ECP and EPP use bidirectional communication. EPP only allow communication in one direction (half
duplex), while ECP allows simultaneous bi-directional communications (full duplex). ECP is therefore faster
than EPP.
QUESTION 577:
From what is a laser printer image made?
A. liquid ink
B. dry powder
C. converging laser beams
D. coated ribbon
Answer: B
QUESTION 578:
What can cause laser-jet printer to print too light? (Choose two)
A. Too much humidity in the air.B. Malfunctioning transfer corona.
C. Printing on wrong side of paper.
D. Duplex mechanism inside printer.
E. Malfunctioning high-voltage DC power supply.
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Answer: A, B
Explanation: Too much humidity or a malfunctioning transfer corona could cause printing which is too
light.
QUESTION 579:
While your ink jet printer is sitting idle what keeps the ink from leaking out of the ink cartridge and onto
the paper?
A. Pump pressure
B. Electrical current
C. Close nozzle gate
D. Maintenance Station
Answer: C
Explanation: The nozzle gate, which is closed when the printer is idle, prevents the ink from leaking out
of the cartridge.
QUESTION 580:
If a Laser printer pulls multiple paper sheets at one time, what are possible causes? (Choose three.)
A. Humidity
B. Worn Fuser
C. Improper media
D. Worn Separation Pad
E. Defective toner cartridge.
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
A: Humidity could make the papers to stick together.
C: Improper paper, to thin paper for example, could get many papers to be pulled at a time.
D: A defect separation pad could also cause several papers to be used at a time.
Incorrect Answers
A worn fuser or defective toner cartridge would not affect the pulling of papers.
QUESTION 581:
On a dot matrix printer which paper type requires tractors to feed the paper?
A. Envelopes
B. Fiction Fed
C. Single sheets
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D. Continuous Forms
Answer: D
Explanation: Dot matrix printers use track feeding which require continuous forms.
QUESTION 582:
Why would the back of your page come out dirty on a Laser printer?
A. Light weight paper.
B. High humidity level.
C. Contaminated fuser.
D. Bad AC power module.
Answer: C
Explanation: The fuser could be dirty, for example contaminated with toner.
QUESTION 583:
What are possible ways to print a printer self test page? (Choose two.)
A. By inserting special test paper.
B. Through operator panel on printer.
C. From the start menu of the task bar.
D. By pressing the engine control button
E. Through properties of the printer settings.
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
B: It is often possible to print a test page through the operator panel on the printer.
E: It is always possible to print a test page from printer properties settings.
QUESTION 584:
Which items in the CMOS can be password protected? (Choose Two)
A. PrinterB. Startup
C. Modem
D. System setup
E. Screen saver
Answer: B, D
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Explanation: Startup and system setup settings are stored in CMOS. Most CMOS settings, including
these two, can be password protected.
Incorrect Answers
Printer, modem and screen saver configuration is stored in the operating system, not in CMOS.
QUESTION 585:
You install new local printer. When you print a test page on the printer, the printer prints the printer
code and several extra blank printer pages are printed. What are the possible causes? (Choose Two)
A. Wrong printer driver.
B. Empty toner cartridge.
C. Overloaded paper tray.
D. High printer resolution settings.
E. Un-secured or loose printer cable.
Answer: A, E
Explanation: The print driver could be incorrect or the print cable could be loose.
QUESTION 586:
You are the technician at Certkiller . You install a printer driver to print to a network printer. You choose
to install the latest driver from the printer manufacturer rather than the driver recommended by the
maker of the Operating System. When you print to the printer, the output is garbled letters and
numbers.
What is the problem?
A. Parallel cable is lose
B. Printer toner is low
C. Bad printer driver
D. Printer needs a new fuser
Answer: C
QUESTION 587:
A customer complains that the toner is pulling off the paper and is easily rubbed off on print jobs sent to
a Laser printer. What could be the cause of this problem?
A. Drum
B. Fuser
C. Laser assembly
D. Transfer belt
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Answer: B
The fuser is responsible for permanently fusing the plastic toner particles to the paper.
QUESTION 588:
The Certkiller CEO sends a document to be printed to her Laser printer. The page does not jam, and
there is no delay. However, the page comes out blank.
What are the MOST likely problems? (Choose two)
A. Too much toner.
B. No power to the fuser.
C. Empty or defective toner cartridge.
D. Sealing tape left on the toner cartridge.
E. The printer not plugged into the LPT Port.
Answer: C, D
QUESTION 589:
What cable do you use for 1000baseT?
A. Coax
B. Cat 5
C. Cat 5e
D. Cat 7
Answer: C
Explanation: Cat 5e, or, better Cat 6 or Cat6e
Category 5 Enhanced UTP Cabling. This is an upgrade to
Category 5 cabling introduced in 1999. It is basically
"souped-up" Category 5 cabling to allow support of 1000BaseT
systems. It is specified up to 100MHz bandwidth. It is not
used at NC State.
QUESTION 590:
Which of the following cable types can you use to network two computers? (Choose Three)
A. IDEB. Serial
C. SCSI
D. Parallel
E. 10Base2
Answer: B, D, E
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Explanation:
B: A null modem cable can be used to network two computers.
D: A cross-over parallel cable can be used to network two computers.
E: 10Base2 cabling can be used to connect two computers on a small bus network segment.
Incorrect Answers
IDE and SCSI are used for hard drives, CD-burners, etc. and not for networking.
QUESTION 591:
What is the maximum distance for a 10Base2 segment?
A. 100 meters
B. 185 meters
C. 330 meters
D. 1000 meters
Answer: B
Explanation: The maximum distance on a 10Base2 (thinnet) segment is 185 meters.
QUESTION 592:
What device must be installed on a computer to provide it with a physical and electrical connection to a
network?
A. NIC
B. Router
C. Gateway
D. BNC connector
Answer: A
Explanation: A network adapter also known as a network interface card (NIC) is required connect a
computer to a network.
QUESTION 593:
Which type of cable is most likely in use with RJ-45 connectors attached to a computer?
A. 10Base2
B. 10Base5
C. 10BaseT
D. 10BaseXL
Answer: C
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Explanation: A 10BaseT cable is either an UTP or a STP cable. Both these cables use the RJ-45
connections.
Incorrect Answers
A, B: Coaxial cables are used on thinnet (10Base2) or thicknet (10Base5) networks.
D: Fiber connectors are used on 10BaseXL networks.
QUESTION 594:
A NIC that has an ST or SC connector on it is an example of?
A. IR
B. Thin Net
C. Fiber Optic
D. Twisted Pair
Answer: C
Explanation: ST or ST-SC are examples of fiber connectors.
QUESTION 595:
What is the minimum cable type 10BaseT specifies
A. Category 3
B. Category 5
C. Category 5e
D. Category 6
Answer: A
Explanation: Category 3 and above can be used in 10BaseT networks. 10BaseT networks run at a speed
of 10Mbps.
Incorrect Answers
Category 5, Category 5e, and Category 6 supports 100Mbps.
QUESTION 596:
Click the area on the graphic that shows RJ-45 connector.
Answer:
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Explanation:
The RJ-45 connector is used for standard UTP/STP cables. It is somewhat similar to RJ-11 the standard
telephone connector.
QUESTION 597:
What should you use to connect two computers in an Ethernet peer to peer network using RJ-45
connectors and Category-5 Cable?
A. Modem
B. Patch Cable
C. Cross over cable
D. Hardware Loopback
Answer: C
Explanation: Two computers can directly be connected, via RJ-45 connectors, only by using a crossover
cable.
Note: If you are going to connect devices with use the same ports you will always have to use crossover cable.
Incorrect Answers
A: A serial modem does not have any RJ-45 connector.
B: A patch cable is used to connect the computer to the wall socket.
D: A hardware Loopback is used to test if a port is functioning.
QUESTION 598:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the BNC connector.
Answer:
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Explanation:
Somewhat similar to the TV antenna connector.
QUESTION 599:
Some users on a 10Base2 network cannot connect to the server. What are likely causes of the problem?
(Choose Two)
A. Faulty T-connectorB. Malfunctioning hub
C. Improperly terminated cable
D. Server not connected to the hub
E. Faulty modular connector on the server NIC
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
A: If only some of the users are unable to connect to the network the problem is most likely only local: a faulty
connector for example.
C: An improperly terminated cable could also cause some users to lose the network connection (but more likely
all users would be affected).
Incorrect Answers
B. D: Hubs are not used in 10Base network segments.
E: There no things like modular connecter in a 10Base2 network.
QUESTION 600:
You install a network interface card NIC that is not plug and play in your computer and see several
jumpers on the card that allow you to change various settings. Which NIC setting do jumpers allow you
to change? (Choose two)
A. IRQ.
B. Token size.
C. MAC address.
D. Memory address.
E. Communication protocol.
Answer: A, D
Explanation: The IRQ and the Memory address of a NIC (Network Interface Card) can be configured by
jumpers.
Incorrect Answers
B, E: Token size and communication protocols are configured in the operating system and not by jumpers on
the card.
C: The MAC (Media Access Control) address is a preconfigured factory setting that cannot be changed by
jumpers on the NIC card. Every network adapter has an unique MAC address.
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QUESTION 601:
Which of the following cable types can you use to network two computers?
(Choose three)
A. IDE
B. Serial
C. SCSI
D. Parallel
E. UTP
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation: Serial, Parallel and UTP (Unshielded twisted Pair) cables are examples of cables that can be
used to network computers.
Incorrect Answers
A, C: The IDE and SCSI interfaces are to connect devices to the computer, not for networking two computers.
QUESTION 602:
Which type of logical topology does 10Base2 use?
A. Bus
B. Star
C. Ring
D. Tree
Answer: A
Explanation: 10Base2 (thinnet) uses single cable which implements a bus technology.
Incorrect Answers
B, C: Ring topology or stare topology cannot be implemented with 10Base2.
D: There is no popular network topology called tree.
QUESTION 603:
What is the minimum cable type 100BaseTX specifies?
A. Category 3
B. Category 4
C. Category 5
D. Category 6
Answer: C
Explanation: Category 5 is the minimum cable type that supports the 100Mbps speed required by the
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100BaseTX specification.
Incorrect Answers
A, B: Category 3 and Category 4 only support 10Mbps.
D: Category 6 supports 100Mbps but it is not the minimal cable type that support this speed.
QUESTION 604:
What is the set of rules used to transmit data from one computer to another called?
A. Service
B. Adaptive
C. Protocol
D. Network Operating System
Answer: C
Explanation: A protocol implements the set of rules that transmits data.
Incorrect Answers
A: A network service often depends on protocols, but they are not the same thing.
B: Adaptive does not apply here.
D: A Network Operating System is an OS that supports networking. The OS must use protocols to enable
communication with other entities.
QUESTION 605:
A user can not log in the local area network and to the internet over the LAN. Other users in the same
area are no experiencing any problems. From your workstation you attempt to log in as the user with her
username and password and do not experience any problems. However you can not log in from her
workstation with either her username or yours. What is the likely cause of this problem?
A. Server down
B. Bad station patch cables.
C. Wrong username and password.
D. Insufficient rights to access the server.
Answer: B
Explanation: Something prevents the computer from connecting to the network. A bad patch cable is a
possibly cause.
Incorrect Answers
We were able to use her credentials to log in from another computer so we know that the server is up (not A)
and the correct user name and password was used (not C) and that the user has sufficient rights to access the
server (not D).
QUESTION 606:
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Which type of connector do analogue modems use?
A. AUI
B. BNC
C. RJ-11
D. RJ-45
Answer: C
Explanation: Analog modems use the RJ-11 connector. This is also known as the common telephone
connector.
Incorrect Answers
A, B; D: AUI (thicknet), BNC (thinnet), and RJ-45 (UTP/STP) are used for network cables. Analog modems
are connected to the phone line, not the directly to Ethernet networks.
QUESTION 607:
Which of the following allows for the faster wireless transfer speeds?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. Token Ring
D. Ethernet
Answer: A
. 802.11a - (54 Mb / second max speed, 5.5 GHz frequency)
. 802.11b - (11 Mb / second max speed, 2.4 GHz frequency)
. 802.11g - (54 Mb / second max speed, 2.4 GHz frequency)
Incorrect Answers
B: 802.11b is slower, though it is much more popular than 802.11a.
C, D: Not wireless technologies.
QUESTION 608:
10BaseT use which of the following Connectors?
A. AUI
B. BNC
C. RJ-45
D. ST
Answer: C
RJ-45 is short for Registered Jack-45, an eight-wire connector used commonly to connect computers onto a
local-area networks (LAN), especially Ethernet, for example 10BaseT. RJ-45 connectors look similar to the
ubiquitous RJ-11 connectors used for connecting telephone equipment, but they are somewhat wider.
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QUESTION 609:
What data transfer does BRI(Basic Rate Interface) ISDN support?
A. 32 Kbps
B. 64 Kbps
C. 128 Kbps
D. 256 Kbps
Answer: C
BRI (Basic-Rate Interface), the basic ISDN configuration, which consists of two B-channels that can carry
voice or data at rate of 64Kbps, and one D-channel, which carries call-control information. Another type of
ISDN configuration is called Primary-Rate Interface (PRI), which consists of 23 B-channels (30 in Europe) and
one D-channel.
QUESTION 610:
Which of the following are the two basic types of ISDN service(Select Two)?
A. Basic Rate Interface
B. Primary Rate Interface
C. Secondary Rate Interface
D. Bearer Channels
E. Signaling Channels
Answer: A, B
BRI (Basic-Rate Interface), the basic ISDN configuration, which consists of two B-channels that can carry
voice or data at rate of 64Kbps, and one D-channel, which carries call-control information. Another type of
ISDN configuration is called Primary-Rate Interface (PRI), which consists of 23 B-channels (30 in Europe) and
one D-channel.
QUESTION 611:
When Networking computer in a 10Base5 network, what type of connector is used to connect to the thick
Ethernet Cable?
A. RJ-45 connector.
B. 50 OHM terminitor.
C. Vampire Connector.
D. DIX(Dec, Intel, Xerox)Connector.
Answer: C
10Base5 cable may be connected by a vampire connector, or by a AUI connector, with clamps holding the cable
in place. A vampire tap is a connection to a coaxial cable in which a hole is drilled through the outer shield of
the cable so that a clamp can be connected to the inner conductor of the cable. This cable connection is made
with a unit that clamps onto and "bites" into the cable, hence the vampire name.
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QUESTION 612:
What kind of cable is legally required air circulation areas in ceilings and floor space?
A. STP
B. UTP
C. PVC
D. Plenum
Answer: D
Plenum Cable is cable that is run in the plenum spaces of buildings. In building construction, the plenum
(pronounced PLEH-nuhm) is the space that is used for air circulation in heating and air conditioning systems,
typically between the structural ceiling and the suspended ceiling or under a raised floor. The plenum space is
typically used to house the communication cables for the buildings computer and telephone network(s).
However, use of plenum areas for cable storage poses a serious hazard in the event of a fire as once the fire
reaches the plenum space there are few barriers to contain the smoke and flames. Plenum cable is coated with a
fire-retardant coating (usually Teflon) so that in case of a fire it does not give off toxic gasses and smoke as it
burns. Twisted-pair and coaxial versions of cable are made in plenum versions.
QUESTION 613:
CAT5 cable is what type of cable?
A. Coaxial
B. Fiber Optic
C. RS 232
D. UTP(Unshielded Twisted Pair)
Answer: D
CAT5 / CAT5e / CAT6 are UTP (unshielded twisted pair) cable ratings. The higher the number, the higher the
max throughput. Cat5 = 100Mbps, Cat5e =200Mbps, Cat6=1000Mbps (gigabit). If you are using a 100Mbps
switch, try and get cat5e cable instead of cat5.
QUESTION 614:
Which IEEE standard for networking uses FHSS(Frequncy Hopping Spread Sprectum) and DSSS(Direct
Sequence Spread Spectrum)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.6
C. 802.4
D. 802.3
Answer: A
FHSS is Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum, and DSSS is Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum noth operate
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from 2.400-2.485 GigaHertz, in what is known as the ISM band. The 02.11 wireless standard covers both DSSS
and FHSS, although not all manufacturers employ or fully adhere to 802.11. Both FHSS and DSSS use the
middle 79 frequencies and must leave the top and bottom 3 alone as a "buffer".
QUESTION 615:
Which type of network is MOST likely to use FIBER CABLE?
A.10Base2
B.10Base5
C.10BaseT
D.10BaseFL
Answer: D
10BaseFL is a shorthand name for one of three 10 Mbps Ethernet physical layer standards defined in the IEEE
802.3 document that use 62.5/125 multimode fiber optic cable in a star topology. 10BaseFL has a maximum
segment length of 2,000 meters and can connect two repeaters, two computers, or a computer to a repeater. Like
the other 10BaseF specifications, it was rarely used.
QUESTION 616:
A customer wants to connect to an external modem to his computer. What interface should the customer
use?
A. IrDA (Infrared Data Association)
B. 802.11a
C. ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)
D. RS-232
Answer: D
An external modem can use either a USB cable, or a serial cable to connect to the PC. The serial port is also
referred to as RS-232 or EIA232.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Infrared Data Association defines specifications for infrared wireless communication.
B: 802.11a is an IEEE standard for wireless networks.
C: ATM is not an interface. It is a protocol suite.
QUESTION 617:
Your Certkiller technician has a cable that features a metallic foil shield around each pair of wires as well
as around the group of paired wires. The cable uses RJ-45 connectors. What type of cable dos the trainee
have?
A. Fiber optic
B. Coax
C. STP
D. UTP
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Answer: C
Incorrect Answers:
A: Fiber optic cable is made of light-conducting glass or plastic fibers, not pairs of wires.
B: Coax is made of two conductors that share the same axis; the center is a copper wire that is insulated by a
plastic coating and then wrapped with a wire braid which servers as the second conductor. Coax also uses a
BNC connector, not the RJ-45 connector.
D: UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) does not use metal foil to shield each pair of wires.
QUESTION 618:
The Certkiller network consists of a wireless network with a single hub site that connects many end user
locations.
Which Wireless network architecture is this?
A. Point to multipoint
B. Point to point
C. Cellular
D. Mesh
Answer: A
Incorrect Answers:
B: A point-to-point architecture is a one to one connection
C: In a cellular architecture, the geographic area is divided into cells; the adjacent cells always operate on
different frequencies to avoid interference.
D: A mesh architecture a multipoint-to-multipoint connection.
QUESTION 619:
Which of the following is representative of the maximum of CAT5e cable?
A. 75 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 185 meters
D. 500 meters
Answer: B
QUESTION 620:
What is the minimum category of cabling necessary for use in 100 Mbps Ethernet?
A. CAT3
B. CAT4
C. CAT5
D. CAT6
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Answer: C
Explanation:
CAT5 cable is certified for data transfers of up to 100 Mbps.
Incorrect Answers:
A: CAT3 is certified only for data transfers of up to 10 Mbps
B: CAT4 is certified only for data transfers of up to 16 Mbps
D: CAT6 is certified for data transfers of up to 155 Mbps, however CAT5 is certified for speeds up to 100
Mbps and would thus be the minimum category.
QUESTION 621:
Which of the following is representative of an eight wire connector commonly used to connect computers onto
a 10 BaseT LANs (Local Area Networks), Ethernets in particular?
A: RJ-45.
B: RJ-11.
C: DB-9
D: DB-25.
Answer: A
QUESTION 622:
The Certkiller network consists of a five computer network that has 10/100 NICs (Network Interface Cards) in
the computers, a 10 Base T Ethernet Hub and Category 4 cables that connects everything together. The staff
expressed a wish to increase the speed of the network to 100 Mbps. What do they need to need do? (Choose
two)
A: Upgrade the NICs (Network Interface Cards) to 100 Base T.
B: Replace the cables with CAT 5.
C: Replace the hub with a 10/100 switch.
D: Divide the network in to subnets.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
B: Cat 4 only runs at 16 mbps
C: The hub is a bottleneck and needs to be replaced.
Incorrect answers:
A: The NICs already support 100Mbps
D: Subnetting the small office would not achieve much.
QUESTION 623:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know how many
pairs of wires an RJ-45 connector uses.
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What would your reply be?
A: 2
B: 3
C: 4
D: 5
Answer: C
QUESTION 624:
Of the following cable types, which is the MOST expensive to implement?
A. UTP
B. Coax
C. IR (Infrared)
D. Fiber
Answer: D
QUESTION 625:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the
maximum length a 10BaseT cable supports is.
What will your reply be?
A. 100 meters
B. 185 meters
C. 330 meters
D. 1000 meters
Answer: A
Explanation: The maximum distance in a 10BaseT segment is 100 meters.
Incorrect Answers
B: 10Base2 has a maximum distance of 185 meters.
C: No common network cabling has a maximum distance of 330 meters.
D: Fiber cabling can support distances of 1000 meters.
QUESTION 626:
Which of the following is the connector used in 10Base2 networks?
A. AUI
B. BNC
C. RJ-45
D. ST
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Answer: B
QUESTION 627:
A customer's network interface card (NIC) is set up so that it cannot send and receive data at the same
time. How would you describe this configuration?
A. Half Duplex
B. Single Duplex
C. Paused Duplex
D. Switched Duplex
Answer: A
Explanation: In half duplex we have bi-directional communication, but not in both directions
simultaneously.
Note: Full Duplex allows simultaneous traffic in both directions.
QUESTION 628:
Which of the following is also referred to as the 15 pin connector used in Ethernet networks?
A: BNC
B: STP
C: AUI
D: RG-58
Answer: C
QUESTION 629:
What is the term that is used to refer to a type of data transmission in which a single medium (wire) can carry
several channels at once?
A: Cable TV.
B: Baseband.
C: A telephone line.
D: Broadband.
Answer: D
QUESTION 630:
Which of the IEEE standards mentioned below is used for networking that makes use of FSS (Frequency
Hopping Spread Spectrum) and DSS (Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum).
A: 802.11
B: 802.6
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C: 802.4
D: 802.3
Answer: A
QUESTION 631:
The new Certkiller trainee A+ technician wants to know which of the following light sources is used for
multi mode Fiber optic cable. What will your reply be?
A: LED
B: Laser.
C: Fluorescent.
D: Halogen.
Answer: B
QUESTION 632:
A Certkiller A+ Professional is tasked with networking ten computers using 10 Base 2 Technology. What type
of cable and connectors would you recommend to be used to connect directly to each computer network card?
A: CAT5 and BNC connector.
B: CAT5 and RJ-45 connector.
C: RG-62 and RJ-45 Connector.
D: RG-58 and T connector.
Answer: D
QUESTION 633:
Which of the following is the fastest connection in terms of theoretical limits?
A: IR (Infrared).
B: Full duplex Ethernet over CAT5 cable.
C: Single mode fiber.
D: Wireless.
Answer: C
QUESTION 634:
You are the technician at Certkiller . The company has a 10Base2 network. Which device can Certkiller
used to extend the network beyond the maximum distance imposed by 10Base2?
A. Extender
B. Repeater
C. Converter
D. Expander
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Answer: B
Explanation: Repeaters are used to extend the signal distance of the cable by regenerating the signal.
QUESTION 635:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the
approximate data transfer rate of an BRI (Basic Rate Interface) ISDN connection is.
What would your reply be?
A: Between 1000 and 56,000 Kbps.
B: Between 64 and 128 Kbps.
C: Between 500 and 1500 Kbps.
D: Between 1.5 and 10 Mbps.
Answer: B
QUESTION 636:
Between multi mode fiber and single mode fiber, which of the following can carry a signal a longer
distance?
A. Multi mode
B. The same distance
C. Single mode
D. The MAX for both is 10k
Answer: C
QUESTION 637:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the
theoretical speed of a V.92 analog modem for home based Internet connectivity is. What will your reply
be?
A. 56 Kbps
B. 128 Kbps
C. 384 Kbps
D. 512 Kbps
Answer: A
V.92 modem introduces a number of features that add convenience and performance for the modem user. These
features are: quick connect, Modem-on-Hold (MOH) and PCM Upstream. The quick connect feature of a V.92
modem cuts the modem negotiation or handshake time by up to 50% so you can dial-in faster. The main feature
that makes a V.92 modem faster than a V.90 modem is V.44 the new compression protocol. It is based upon a
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compression scheme that can speed up your web browsing as much as 50%. However, the top speed of the
modem remains 56Kbps.
QUESTION 638:
Which type of a cable is most likely in use with RJ-45 connectors to attach computers to the network?
A. 10Base 2.
B. 10Base 5.
C. 10Base T
D. 10Base FL.
Answer: C
Explanation: RJ-45 connectors are used with UTP and STP cables. 10BaseT networks use UTP/STP.
QUESTION 639:
Which type of fiber optic cable has the longest range?
A. IR mode
B. single mode
C. ASL mode
D. multi mode
Answer: B
In optical fiber technology, multimode fiber is optical fiber that is designed to carry multiple light rays or
modes concurrently, each at a slightly different reflection angle within the optical fiber core. Multimode fiber
transmission is used for relatively short distances because the modes tend to disperse over longer lengths (this is
called modal dispersion). For longer distances, single mode fiber (sometimes called monomode) fiber is used.
QUESTION 640:
Which two types of network cabling are suitable for use in high EMI (electromagnetic interference)
area? Select two.
A. UTP CAT5
B. STP CAT5
C. RG-58 coaxial
D. fiber optic
Answer: C, D
QUESTION 641:
Unshielded twisted-pair is used for which of the following networks?
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A. 10Base2
B. 10Base5
C. 10BaseF
D. 10BaseT
Answer: D
QUESTION 642:
A ______ server assigns IP addresses to client computers. (Fill in the blank)
Answer: DHCP
QUESTION 643:
What is the speed of 802.11b?
A. 10 Mbs
B. 11 Mbs
C. 20 Mbs
D. 50 Mbs
E. 54 Mbs
F. 100 Mbs
G. 108 Mbs
Answer: B
Explanation:
. 802.11b - (11 Mb / second max speed, 2.4 GHz frequency)
. 802.11g - (54 Mb / second max speed, 2.4 GHz frequency)
. 802.11a - (54 Mb / second max speed, 5.5 GHz frequency)
QUESTION 644:
What is the speed of 802.11a?
A. 10 Mbs
B. 11 Mbs
C. 20 Mbs
D. 50 Mbs
E. 54 Mbs
F. 100 Mbs
G. 108 Mbs
Answer: E
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Explanation:
. 802.11b - (11 Mb / second max speed, 2.4 GHz frequency)
. 802.11g - (54 Mb / second max speed, 2.4 GHz frequency)
. 802.11a - (54 Mb / second max speed, 5.5 GHz frequency)
QUESTION 645:
What can a crossover cable in an Ethernet network be used to do?
A. Test a faulty network card.
B. Connect two network devices without a Hub
C. Improve bandwidth between the server and the workstations.
D. Convert from 10 Megabits per second to 100 Megabits per second.
Answer: B
Explanation: A crossover cable can be used to directly connect (without any hub) two devices in an
Ethernet network. For example two PCs, two switches, or two routers could be connected. The only
requirement is that the same type of port must be used.
QUESTION 646:
Which protocol requires unique addressing through software configuration?
A. IPX
B. TCP/IP
C. NetBEUI
D. AppleTalk
Answer: B
Explanation: Each TCP/IP device must have a unique logical IP address. This IP address is either
configured dynamically with DHCP or statically in the operating system.
Incorrect Answers
A: IPX use the MAC addressing to provide unique addressing. This is a physical addressing scheme, which
cannot be configured through software.
C: NetBEUI requires no configuration since it only communicates through broadcasts.
D: AppleTalk does not require configuration for unique addressing.
QUESTION 647:
What does TCP/IP support? (Choose three)
A. NWLink
B. Ethernet
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C. NetBEUI
D. Token Ring
E. Modem dial-up
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation: With the TCP/IP protocol you can connect to Ethernet and Token Ring networks, and use
dialup networking.
Incorrect Answers
NWLink and NetBEUI are two other separate protocols.
QUESTION 648:
Which of the following are characteristics of peer to peer networking? (Choose two.)
A. Router.
B. TCP/IP protocol.
C. Centralized security and administration.
D. Limited number of computers involved.
E. Computer acting as both client and a server.
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
D: A peer-to-peer network should only contain a limited amount of computer, typically not more than 10
computers.
E: All computers are peers acting as both client and servers. There is no dedicated server.
Incorrect Answers
A: A router is used in larger networks, not in peer-to-peer networks.
B: TCP/IP is typically used in larger networks, though it might very well be used in a peer-to-peer network.
C: A peer-to-peer network implements de-centralized security and administration.
QUESTION 649:
What is the common language that computers use to talk with one another on a network?
A. Client.
B. Adapter.
C. Protocol.
D. Operating system.
Answer: C
Explanation: A protocol implements the set of rules that transmits data between networked devices..
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QUESTION 650:
Windows uses what name of a peer to peer network?
A. Group
B. Domain
C. Network
D. Workgroup
Answer: D
Explanation: In Windows terminology a Workgroup implements peer-to-peer networking.
Incorrect Answers
A: A Group is a container for users.
B: A Domain is a logical security boundary within the network. Servers are used to centralize the
administration and the resources.
C: The network consists of the connected devices and the cabling.
QUESTION 651:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the place to connect a telephone line to the modem.
Answer:
Explanation:
The RJ-11 connector is used.
QUESTION 652:
Click the area on the graphic that shows the place to connect an ethernet cable.
Answer:
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Explanation:
An RJ-45 connector (or BNC connector for example) can be used to connect the computer to an Ethernet
network
QUESTION 653:
Click on the area on the graphic that shows the RJ11 connector.
Answer:
Explanation: The RJ-11 connector is similar to the RJ-45 connector but thinner.
10BaseT cabling looks very similar to that of common telephone cable, although instead of four (4) wires, there
are eight (8). In the picture below, you will see an RJ-11 connector or plug, as well as an RJ-45 connector. The
RJ-11 connector is common to normal in-door telephone wiring, while the RJ-45 is for 10BaseT network cable.
QUESTION 654:
Which type of network cabling can have the greatest unassisted transmit range?
A. Coax
B. UTP
C. STP
D. Fiber Optic
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Answer: D
One key advantage of fiber-optic cable is its ability to transmit signals over long distances without signal loss.
SDSL signals, on the other hand, begin to break down over 18,000 feet. For most businesses, this distance
problem is not an issue. Most businesses are within SDSL range of a central office and can install SDSL
equipment without concern about signal loss.
QUESTION 655:
What type of Network supports network communication over short distances using radio IR (Infrared)
signals instead of traditional copper wire?
A. NAS (Network Attached Storage)
B. SAN (Storage Area Network)
C. MAN (Metropoliton Area Network)
D. WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network)
Answer: D
WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network) is a type of local-area network that uses high-frequency radio waves
rather than wires to communicate between nodes.
QUESTION 656:
What is the speed of 802.11g?
A. 10 Mbs
B. 11 Mbs
C. 20 Mbs
D. 50 Mbs
E. 54 Mbs
F. 100 Mbs
G. 108 Mbs
Answer: E
Explanation:
. 802.11b - (11 Mb / second max speed, 2.4 GHz frequency)
. 802.11g - (54 Mb / second max speed, 2.4 GHz frequency)
. 802.11a - (54 Mb / second max speed, 5.5 GHz frequency)
QUESTION 657:
A reliable high speed Internet connection is needed over a wide open area. How should a technician
proceed?
A. Get DSL installed and then run wires to the work locations
B. Get a cable modem installed and then run wires to the work locations
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C. Get either cable or DSL and install a wireless access point and use that for connectivity
D. Get a satellite link and run wires to the work locations
Answer: C
A wireless solution would provide a high degree of flexibility to the users in the wide open area.
QUESTION 658:
Which residential Internet connection technology offers a shared connection technology?
A. Cable Modem
B. ADSL
C. ISDN
D. Dial Up
Answer: A
DSL provides a dedicated service over a single
telephone line; cable modems offer a dedicated service over a shared
media. While cable modems have greater downstream bandwidth (up to 9
Mbps), that bandwidth is shared among all users on a line, and will
therefore vary, perhaps dramatically, with traffic. Cable modem
upstream traffic will in many cases be slower than DSL, either because
the particular cable modem is inherently slower, or because of rate
reductions caused by contention for upstream bandwidth slots.
QUESTION 659:
Which of the following is the source of a workstation dynamic IP address?
A. Default Windows Assignment
B. Manual Configuration
C. DNS server
D. DHCP server
Answer: D
A DHCP provides dynamic IP addresses.
QUESTION 660:
What is the protocol that adds security in 802.11b WLANs (Wireless Local Area Networks) called?
A. WAP
B. WEP
C. WIP
D. WNP
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Answer: B
QUESTION 661:
The maximum standard transfer rate of an 802.11b network is _______________.
A. 72 Mbps
B. 54 Mbps
C. 22 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps
Answer: D
QUESTION 662:
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which IEEE
specification applies to Wireless LANs (Local Area Networks) and provides up to 54 Mbps in the 5 GHz
band and uses OFDM encoding.
What would your reply be?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11g
Answer: B
Explanation:
IEEE 802.11a is the only wireless LAN standard that uses the 5 GHz band.
QUESTION 663:
Which of the following is responsible for mapping NetBIOS names to IP Addresses?
A. SMB
B. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service)
C. DHCP
D. FTP
Answer: B
Incorrect Answers:
A: SMB (Server Message Block) is a protocol for sharing files, printers, serial ports, and communications
abstractions such as named pipes and mail slots between computers.
C: DHCP provides for the IP configuration of client computers.
D: FTP is a File Transfer Protocol.
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QUESTION 664:
What is the term that is used to refer to the type of networking architecture that involves client processes
requesting services from server processes?
A. Client-server
B. Peer-to-Peer
C. Workgroup
D. WAN (Wide Area Network)
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a client-server environment, the server provides services such as DNS, DHCP, Mail, Telnet to clients.
Incorrect Answers:
B: A peer-to-peer network is orientated towards file and print sharing on clients and does not contain a server
that provides services.
C: A workgroup is a peer-to-peer network.
D: A WAN is a network that uses the Internet as a connection medium to connect hosts. This could include
peer-to-peer networks or client-server networks.
QUESTION 665:
What does one call the TCP/IP configuration component that defines the network and host (or
workstation) portions of the IP Address?
A. broadcast address
B. hosts file
C. subnet mask
D. default gateway
Answer: C
QUESTION 666:
star topology but a LOGICAL ring topology?
A: Thicket.
B: Thinnet.
C: Token ring.
D: Ethernet Bus.
Answer: C
QUESTION 667:
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Which of the following options defines the Default Gateway IP address in a Windows-2000 environment?
A: The Default router address.
B: The Default sending station address.
C: The Default receiving station address.
D: The Default browser address.
Answer: A
QUESTION 668:
Which of the following terms describe a network technology that allows a NIC (Network Interface Card) to
transmit and receive data at the same time?
A: Multi Mode.
B: Half duplex.
C: Full duplex.
D: Peer-to-Peer.
Answer: C
QUESTION 669:
With regard to the NetBEUI protocol, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A: NetBEUI is a routable protocol.
B: NetBEUI is a fast and efficient protocol.
C: NetBEUI is limited to running on one segment.
D: NetBEUI provides Layer 3 support.
Answer: B, C
B: For small networks NetBEUI is fast and efficient. However, it does not work well in larger networks.
C: NetBEUI is not routable and therefore cannot be used on more than one segment.
Incorrect Answers
Not A: NetBEUI is not routeable.
Not B: NetBEUI is very simple and does not operate on Layer 3.
QUESTION 670:
A user sends a request to an Internet site. Which protocol being is used?
A. HTTP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. Telnet
Answer: A
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QUESTION 671:
When an A+ Professional adds an 802.11b wireless network adapter to a system, which information is
necessary to connect to a secured network?
A. Mode and Transmission Rate
B. Mode and AP range
C. SSID and WEP
D. SSID and Signal Strength
Answer: C
QUESTION 672:
The TCP/IP protocol that is designed to translate URLs into IP addresses is called:
A. ARP
B. DHCP
C. DNS
D. FTP
Answer: C
QUESTION 673:
Which device translates wired signals to Wireless signals to allow a Wireless device to connect to a
traditional network?
A. center point
B. airbox
C. frequency adapter
D. access point
Answer: D
Access Point (AP), a hardware device or a computer's software that acts as a communication hub for users of a
wireless device to connect to a wired LAN. APs are important for providing heightened wireless security and
for extending the physical range of service a wireless user has access to.
QUESTION 674:
The approximate data upload speed of a DSL connection is ______________.
A. Between 1 and 56,000 Kbps
B. Between 64 and 300 Kbps
C. Between 300 and 1500 Kbps
D. Between 1.5 and 10 Mbps
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Answer: C
QUESTION 675:
A customer has a DSL connection. They want to know how many computers can make use of the DSL
connection. What will your reply be?
A: 255
B: It depends on how many ports are on the switch / hub.
C: 128.
D: 64.
Answer: B
QUESTION 676:
Certkiller has a 10BaseT Ethernet network. How would you describe Certkiller 's physical network
topology?
A. A bus topologyB. Star
C. Ring
D. Tree
Answer: B
Explanation: 10BaseT use hub or hubs to implement a physical star topology.
QUESTION 677:
A customer wants high speed Internet connection. They want the cheapest solution. Which would you advise
them to get?
A: Dial UP.
B: Cable or DSL.
C: Satellite Link.
D: ISDN.
Answer: B
QUESTION 678:
A user buys a new multi-function PCMCIA card for a notebook. The card is roughly a centimeter thick
and requires a Type II connection or greater. The use has a single Type II slot on the notebook and the
card does not fit. What is the cause of the problem?
A. Old Pentium class notebooks only support single function PCMCIA cards.
B. The card requires a Card Bus slot.
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C. The card requires either a dual Type II or a single Type III slot.
D. This card requires a 64 bit Type II slot.
Answer: C
QUESTION 679:
Which of the following is NOT a phase of the troubleshooting process?
A. Confirm the repair
B. Define the problem
C. Document the results
D. Simplify the problem
Answer: A
QUESTION 680:
A client calls and reports there is no sound on a computer. Before arriving in person, what should the
technician do?
A. Confirm that the computer is powered on and try to play a song, if nothing is heard, explain that the volume
is too low as all computers have sound, have the client change the volume settings.
B. Walk the client through the device settings and confirm that there is a sound card, confirm that the speakers
are connected and powered on, have the client check all cords.
C. Ask the client to put in a music CD and try to play it, if it does not work, explain a sound card is needed,
after sound card is purchased, install it.
D. Explain that computers only make noise when they have an error, so all is well with his computer.
Answer: B
QUESTION 681:
What is the FIRST and most important step in system troubleshooting?
A. Back up the system's data.
B. Gather information about the problem.
C. Try rebooting the system to see if that fixes the problem.
D. Check the System Error Log or Event Log.
Answer: B
QUESTION 682:
Upon boot up, the PC reports a parity error. What is the MOST likely cause of this error message?
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A. Bad motherboard
B. Bad memory chip
C. Bad CPU
D. Bad hard drive
Answer: B
QUESTION 683:
After relocating a Wireless IrDA (Infrared data association) printer, a user reports that his laptop can no
longer print to the printer. What is the MOST likely cause of this problem?
A. The printer is more than one meter (3 feet) from the laptop.
B. The printer driver is corrupt.
C. The laptop needs to be rebooted.
D. The printer needs to be serviced.
Answer: A
IrDA range is about 1 meter.
QUESTION 684:
When troubleshooting IRQ conflicts, which hardware components are the MOST likely culprits?
A. Hard drives and floppy drives.
B. CD-ROM and hard drives.
C. Video cards and hard drives.
D. Sound cards and network cards.
Answer: D
QUESTION 685:
Users complain that one of the servers is running incredibly slow. The A+ Certified Technician notices
that throughout the work day, the CPU utilization is often above 50%. What can be done to fix this?
A. Upgrade the CPU
B. Install faster ROM
C. Implement RAID
D. Install a faster network adapter
Answer: A
QUESTION 686:
A Windows XP laptop has two USB ports. The user has three USB devices. They are all plugged into a
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four port unpowered USB hub. The user adds a portable USB printer to the last USB hub port but
cannot print to the printer. What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two)
A. The printer drivers are not yet installed.
B. Printers require a USB switch instead of a USB hub.
C. A printer requires a bi-directional USB cable.
D. There is not enough memory in the printer.
E. The portable printer requires more power than is available through the USB hub. The printer needs to be
plugged into the other USB port on the latop.
Answer: B, E
QUESTION 687:
How can HyperThreading be disabled on a Pentium 4 system with a 3.06 GHz processor installed?
A. Disable HyperThreading in the system BIOS.
B. Disable HyperThreading in the Device Manager, Processor properties dialog box.
C. A Pentium 3.06 GHz processor does not support HyperThreading.
D. Install a special jumper on the motherboard.
Answer: A
To disable Hyper-Threading:
1. Press F9 at POST to enter ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
2. From the Main Menu, select Advanced Options
3. From the Advanced Options menu, select Hyper-Threading
4. Select Disabled.
QUESTION 688:
A user reports that an application that ran fine earlier in the day, no longer runs. The user plugs the
computer into a small UPS to rule out excessive power fluctuations. The application still not run. What
should the technician do next to determine the cause of the problem?
A. Reboot the system.
B. Re-install the application with any updates from the manufacturer.
C. Ask the user if there were any system hardware or software changes shortly before the application
malfunction.
D. Check the hard drive for errors, Scandisk and defragment it.
Answer: C
QUESTION 689:
Which cable type is used for 10Base5?
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A. 50 OHM RG-8
B. 75 OHM RG-8
C. 50 OHM RG-58
D. 75 OHM RG-58
Answer: A
10Base5 cable uses 50 Ohm, RG-8, or RG-11 cable also called Thicknet.
Note: The original cabling standard for Ethernet that uses coaxial cables. The name
derives from the fact that the maximum data transfer speed is 10 Mbps, it uses baseband
transmission, and the maximum length of cables is 500 meters.
10Base5 is also called thick Ethernet, ThickWire, and ThickNet.
Not C: 10Base2 cable uses 50 Ohm, RG-58 cable also called Thinnet.
QUESTION 690:
Certkiller .com has an outdated system that uses the older AT style Form Factor. Certkiller is interested in
purchasing a newer system that uses the ATX Form Factor. What are three differences in the new style
Form Factor that could affect the user's ability to use the existing case? (Choose three)
A. Soft power switch instead of toggle switches.
B. Different style of motherboard power connector.
C. Voltage regulation modules for processor power.
D. Integrated Serial, Parallel and USB connectors.
E. Fewer expansion slots for I/O boards.
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION 691:
The PC technician needs to identify a PCI card that has a female RJ-45 connector. What is this card?
A. A Serial card
B. A NIC (network interface card)
C. A Token Ring adapter card
D. An ISDN Dial Up adapter
Answer: B
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