GTZ - CRYSTAL 3 - Part 4 - cd3wd404.zip - Primary School Test Design

GTZ - CRYSTAL 3 - Part 4 - cd3wd404.zip - Primary School Test Design
Cover photo: Gérard Klijn/present
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Udo Bude & Keith Lewin (eds.)
Improving Test Design
Vol. 2 - Assessment of Science and Agriculture in Primary Schools in Africa;
12 Country Cases Reviewed
• Country Reports
• Examination Papers
• Follow-up Communications
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Impressum
published by:
Deutsche Stiftung für internationale Entwicklung (DSE)
German Foundation for International Development
Education, Science and Documentation Centre
Hans-Böckler-Str. 5
D-53225 Bonn
editors:
Udo Bude/Keith Lewin
editorial work & typesetting:
txt redaktionsbüro ebert & schmid, Lünen
printed by:
Druckerei Brandt GmbH, Bonn/1997
DOK 1789 a
ISBN 3-931227-27-8 (complete edition)
ISBN 3-931227-29-4 (Volume 2)
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Table of Contents
1. Introduction ...................................................................................................................... 7
2. End of Primary School Examination in Eastern and
Southern Africa - An Overview ..................................................................................... 12
3. Country Reports/Examination Papers ......................................................................... 27
3.1. Botswana................................................................................................................... 27
3.1.1. Overview ............................................................................................................. 27
3.1.2. Primary School Leaving Examinations: The Case of Botswana ........................ 29
3.1.3. 1994 Primary School Leaving Examination/Science Paper ............................... 35
3.1.4. 1993 Primary School Leaving Examination/Science Paper ............................... 51
3.2. Kenya ........................................................................................................................ 63
3.2.1. Overview ............................................................................................................. 63
3.2.2. Writing of Test Items for the Primary School Leaving Examination in Kenya .... 64
3.2.3. KCPE 1994/Science and Agriculture Paper ....................................................... 66
3.2.4. KCPE 1993/Science and Agriculture Paper ....................................................... 79
3.3. Lesotho...................................................................................................................... 93
3.3.1. Overview ............................................................................................................. 93
3.3.2. Item Writing for Primary School Leaving Examination in Lesotho...................... 94
3.3.3. Primary School Leaving Examination, Standard 7, 1994/Science Paper .......... 98
3.3.4. Primary School Leaving Examination, Standard 7, 1993/Science Paper ........ 108
3.4. Malawi ..................................................................................................................... 118
3.4.1. Overview ........................................................................................................... 118
3.4.2. Innovations in Primary School Leaving Certificate Examinations
(PSLCE) in Malawi and Overview of the 1993 Results..................................... 120
3.4.3. 1995 Primary School Leaving Certificate Examinations/Science
Incorporated Paper ........................................................................................... 124
3.4.4. 1994 Primary School Leaving Certificate Examinations/Science
and Health Incorporated Paper......................................................................... 140
3.4.5. 1994 Primary School Leaving Certificate Examinations/Agriculture
Incorporated Paper ........................................................................................... 150
3.5. Namibia ................................................................................................................... 161
3.5.1. Overview ........................................................................................................... 161
3.5.2. Curriculum Development and Examinations in Namibia .................................. 162
3.5.3. Agricultural Production and Farming Technology: Scheme of
Assessment. Terminal Examination 1992......................................................... 165
3.6. South Africa ............................................................................................................. 167
3.6.1. Independent Examinations Board. Report on Standard 7 Pilot
Programme. 1993 Examinations Programme................................................... 167
3.6.2. Independent Examinations Board. Standard 7 Examinations
1993 - Combined Science................................................................................. 168
3.6.3. Draft Syllabus for General (Combined) Science 1994 ..................................... 169
3.6.4. Independent Examinations Board. General Science
Examination Paper 1995 (General Education Certificate) ................................ 174
3.6.5. Independent Examinations Board. Combined Science
Examination Paper 1993 (Standard 7 Examination)......................................... 188
3.7. Swaziland ................................................................................................................ 203
3.7.1. Overview ........................................................................................................... 203
3.7.2. Examination and Continuous Assessment in Swaziland.................................. 204
3.7.3 Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination 1994 - Science/Paper I & II .......... 208
3.7.4 Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination 1993 - Science/Paper I & II .......... 222
3.7.5. Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination 1994 - Agriculture Paper ............. 233
3.7.6. Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination 1993 - Agriculture Paper ............. 243
3.8. Tanzania.................................................................................................................. 256
3.8.1. Overview ........................................................................................................... 256
3.8.2. An Overview of the 1993 Primary School Leaving Examination ...................... 258
3.8.3. Primary School Leaving Examination (PSLE) in Tanzania Mainland............... 260
3.8.4 Primary School Leaving Examination 1994 - General Knowledge
Paper (Section IV: Science), (English Translation)........................................... 263
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3.8.5 Primary School Leaving Examinations 1993
General Paper 1 (Section III: Science), (English Translation) and
General Paper 2 (Section III: Science), (English Translation) .......................... 267
3.9. Uganda .................................................................................................................... 273
3.9.1. Overview ........................................................................................................... 273
3.9.2. Item Writing for Primary Leaving Examinations in Uganda .............................. 274
3.9.3. The Uganda Primary Leaving Certificate Examination in Basic
Science and Health Education.......................................................................... 277
3.9.4 Uganda Primary Leaving Certificate Examination 1994 Basic Science and Health Education ................................................................ 279
3.9.5 Uganda Primary Leaving Certificate Examination 1993 Basic Science and Health Education ................................................................ 289
3.10. Zambia................................................................................................................... 298
3.10.1. Overview ......................................................................................................... 298
3.10.2. State-of-the-Art of End of Primary Education Examinations in Zambia ......... 299
3.10.3 Environmental Science Paper 1994 ................................................................ 302
3.10.4 Environmental Science Paper 1993 ................................................................ 314
3.11. Zanzibar................................................................................................................. 325
3.11.1. Overview ......................................................................................................... 325
3.11.2. An Overview of the 1993 Primary School Leaving Examination .................... 327
3.11.3 Form 1 Entrance Examinations 1994 Science Paper (English Translation)................................................................. 329
3.11.4 Form 1 Entrance Examinations 1993 Science Paper (English Translation)................................................................. 334
3.12. Zimbabwe .............................................................................................................. 336
3.12.1. Overview ......................................................................................................... 336
3.12.2. Analysis of End of Primary Education Examination in Zimbabwe .................. 337
3.12.3. Examination Problems Encountered .............................................................. 338
3.12.4 Grade 7 Examination 1994 General Paper (Science and Agriculture) ......................................................... 339
3.12.5 Grade 7 Examination 1993 General Paper (Science and Agriculture) ......................................................... 346
4. Examples of Follow-up Communications after the Examinations.......................... 352
4.1. Kenya Certificate of Primary Education (KCPE) 8-4-4 K.C.P.E.
Newsletter 1992 (abstracts)...................................................................................... 352
4.2. Lesotho Primary School Leaving Examination P.S.L.E.
Report (May 1990) (abstracts).................................................................................. 361
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1. Introduction
Udo Bude & Keith Lewin
As a follow-up to the World Conference on Education for All in 1990 several countries in
southern and eastern Africa started analysing and revising their examination systems with the
ultimate aim of improving the quality of teaching/learning. Examinations in countries of the
region are a well established feature of the educational systems reaching back to colonial
days. The achievements of pupils during the primary school cycle are in most cases tested in
end-of-cycle examinations, whereby the performance of a pupil is tested in comparison with
other pupils sitting the examination (norm-referenced tests). Such assessment procedures do
not provide the full picture and fail to deliver sufficient information about the success of an
education system in imparting those skills and competencies as laid down in the curricula.1 In
order to find out how proficient a pupil is in a particular subject, concept or skill without
referring to other norm groups of pupils a different approach is required. This may have
several elements which include greater use of school based assessment, evaluation of
project work and techniques of continuous assessment. It may also seek to define
competencies in terms of criterion statements against which performance can be judged.
Criterion-referenced assessment is attractive since it sets standards that do not depend on
the performance of other pupils and should provide reliable data on what has been achieved
during the primary school years. Some countries in the region e.g. Botswana and Swaziland
are already experimenting with this kind of approach to assessment.
1
See Kellaghan, Th. & Greaney, V. (1992) Using Examinations to Improve Education. A
Study in Fourteen African Countries. World Bank Technical Paper No. 165. The World
Bank, Washington D.C.
Applying more comprehensive concepts of assessment is a significant step towards the
improvement of the quality of teaching and learning. National examination systems are mostly
designed to judge the individual pupil's achievements for selection purposes and to deliver
comparative information about the performance of individual schools and regions. They are
often an unreliable guide to actual levels of achievement.
Three aspects have to be taken into consideration when constructing most forms of
assessment instruments:
(1) the validity of assessment instruments (do they measure what they claim to be
measuring? do they predict future performance adequately if they are to be used for
selection?);
(2) their reliability (do they work a consistent measure of performance which could be
repeated with similar results? are measurement errors reduced to acceptable levels?);
(3) their technical efficiency (is the system secure, cost-effective, or as appropriate time
scale, free of bias towards or against different groups of candidates?).
For most pupils in the region primary education ends after seven to eight years with a national
examination. The more selective such examinations are the greater is the attention and
importance given by society, because the results of such annual exercises determine
significantly the future of many children and the hopes and ambitions of many parents for their
offspring.2 The outcome of the examinations also have severe repercussions on the schools
on learning and teaching methods, and on the teachers' role in local communities and within
the education system (see box: »Vihiga plan« is the way out/Fortunes change for Kikuyu).
2
See Dore, R. P. (1976) The Diploma Disease. Unwin Education. London.
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Tuesday, February 28, 1995
Despite the great attention paid to matters of testing and examining at the end of primary
education, the examination results rarely provide sufficient information on the effectiveness of
the educational system to make confident judgements on educational quality and learning
problems. If we are interested in influencing the teaching-learning process in the classroom
positively we may have to start with improvements in the ways pupils are assessed. This can
indicate what is not being understood and assimilated, and can point the way to strategies to
improve levels of achievement.
Any assessment system provides opportunities for teachers, pupils, and educators (e.g.
curriculum developers, examination-/testing specialists) to monitor progress and learn from
failures as well as successes. However, if large parts of examinations consist mainly of
straightforward recall questions where pupils are simply asked to reproduce from memory,
opportunities for a more comprehensive assessment of learning outcomes are lost and much
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teaching will follow objectives narrowly defined by a restricted range of questions. The mere
recollection of facts or names does not give any hint of the pupil's problem-solving skills, often
so strongly emphasized in the primary school curricula as essential outcomes of learning.
Repetition of whole sections from textbooks fails to indicate whether learners are able to
apply their knowledge and skills to different situations. Poorly constructed multiple-choice
tests leave much space for guess work and may encourage rote learning. They need to be
replaced by a broader concept of assessment testing more complex cognitive processes.
Consequently, the first step in a reform of conventional examinations is to analyse existing
tests in terms of whether and to what extent they contain items requiring higher-order thinking
and application. The next step is to develop or improve test items which examine pupils'
abilities to apply what they have learned to less familiar situations and problems or which
require them to link events or facts to each other in a consistent way.
The development and design of test items is mainly the domain of examination specialists
and/or curriculum developers. The work of all those involved in examinations should, but often
does not, include a strong research component in order to find out what kind of assessment
procedures deliver the most valid and reliable results efficiently and have the greatest positive
influences on classroom teaching. Educationists responsible for the design and analysis of
national examinations in eastern and southern Africa are trying hard to improve their
assessment systems and to answer the challenges of new ideas and requirements.3 During
recent years new subjects were added to previous core subjects, i.e. like Languages and
Mathematics. In many primary school systems History, Geography and Civics or Social
Studies have been included, along with science based subjects like Science, Agriculture,
Environmental Science, Home Economics. Most or all now feature in the national
examinations. Writing meaningful tests for the more practical subjects which go beyond
recalling facts requires familiarity and experience with the respective school curriculum as
well as with the possibilities and limitations of different types of assessment. Often the
demanding curriculum objectives of subjects like Science or Agriculture are not easily tested
in an appropriate way. Developing test items assessing pupils' understanding and application
of knowledge and skills to new situations require sophistication in constructing assessment
instruments even where testing is restricted to multiple-choice questions for reasons of cost
and administrative feasibility.
1
See Njabili, Agnes F. (1993) Public Examination: A Tool for Curriculum Evaluation. Mture
Publishers, Dar-es-Salaam.
Education experts responsible for revising national examinations to improve the quality of
education can learn from the approaches adopted to reform in different countries in the
region, particularly in the following areas:
• widening the range of skills tested and the instruments used;
• redesigning examination items to include more which test skills of higher-order thinking;
• gradually shifting the basis of testing from a norm-referenced to a more criterionreferenced system (measuring pupils' success or failure in relation to criteria which
represent competencies independent of the performance of other pupils);
• considering the possibilities for introducing continuous assessment alongside or instead
of terminal examinations, and using pupils' records and
• profiles which can reflect the acquisition of demonstrated competencies of a wider range
of different types than can conventional examinations.
One country in the eastern and southern African region has over many years spearheaded
new developments in using national examinations for monitoring and meaningful assessment
purposes. Kenya started reforming primary education examination in 1974 with the declared
aims of making the examination more relevant, improving the quality of education and
ensuring greater equity in the access to secondary schools. Two major strategies for reform
were employed; changing the content of the examination papers, and introducing an
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information-feedback system. »It was hoped that changes in the questions set would make
the CPE more relevant as a leaving examination, more equitable to pupils in less-privileged
socioeconomic groups, and more reliable as a selection instrument. The introduction of an
information-feedback system would, it was hoped, do something to improve the overall quality
of the primary school system and to reduce quality differences between high performing and
low performing schools.«4
4
Somerset, Anthony (1988) Examinations as an Instrument to Improve Pedagogy. In:
Heyneman, Stephen P. & Fägerlind, Ingemar (eds) University Examinations and
Standardized Testing - Principles, Experiences and Policy Options. World Bank Technical
Paper No. 78, Washington D.C., pp. 171-194, p. 174
The experience and expertise developed in Kenya over nearly twenty years is therefore very
relevant to the present discussion on revising national examination systems in other countries
of the region. The Kenya Certificate of Primary Education can serve as an example of
possibilities and as entry point to become acquainted with assessment techniques at the end
of primary school in the subjects SCIENCE and AGRICULTURE, and for monitoring primary
schools in general.
The success of the reform of the primary school examination system has not been achieved
without problems. Over the years Kenya has become more and more »exam-ridden«. The
results of primary or secondary school examinations receive more and more public attention.
Even to the extent that candidates' results are announced over public radio! Regions and
school districts compete vigorously to top the lists in the national examinations, very often to
the disadvantage of pupils who are unlikely to score highly and those who succeed but do so
as a result of long hours of repetitive 'cramming'. The incentives to cheat and find illegal
means to pass the test have also created many problems. Heavy emphasis on examinations
leads to a neglect of the broader pedagogical tasks of the schools. The school curriculum
may be only taught according to the importance of examination subjects and other aspects of
the national examination ignored. The »examination tail is wagging the curriculum dog«! John
Keeves reminds us of the real purpose of national examinations, »There is little doubt that a
national examination has a substantial influence on the teaching that occurs in schools not
only during the year at the end of which the examination is held, but in all years that have
gone before... it is important that the examinations should have beneficial effects on the
teaching and learning that takes place at all earlier stages of schooling«5
5
Keeves, John P. (1994) National examinations: design, procedures and reporting.
UNESCO: IIEP, Paris, p. 98.
The design and conduct of national examinations is therefore not an affair of one group of
specialists alone. Examination specialists, curriculum developers, psychometrists and
teachers have to cooperate to maximize the beneficial influence of the examinations on
practical teaching and avoid excessive testing and examination preparations in the schools.
Despite all good intentions on behalf of those setting the national examinations it seems to be
extremely difficult to prevent examination »fever« once such examinations have gained too
much importance in society as the means through which credentials are obtained, promotion
through the school system rationed, and jobs in the labour market allocated.
The manual on IMPROVING TEST DESIGN tries to assist those educationists who are
responsible for the design, conduct and control of national examinations in developing higher
quality assessment instruments which can provide better information on pupil achievement, a
fairer basis for selection, and influence learning and teaching to improve educational quality. It
can also be used as a kind of source for training those assisting in the development or
processing of examinations. The manual consists of two parts:
Volume 1:
Volume 2:
Constructing Test Instruments, Analysing Results and Improving Assessment
Quality in Primary Schools in Africa,
Assessment of Science and Agriculture in Primary Schools in Africa; 12 Country
Cases Reviewed.
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Both volumes are the result of two pilot training workshops in Kenya dealing with the
development of test items for Science, Agriculture, and Environmental Science and the use of
national examinations for improving the quality of primary education. These workshops were
jointly organised and conducted by the German Foundation for International Development
(DSE), Education, Science and Documentation Centre, and the Kenya Institute of Education
(KIE) in cooperation with the Kenya National Examinations Council. Participants came from
different countries in eastern and southern Africa. Each country invited was asked to
nominate one curriculum developer and one examination specialist, thus guaranteeing that
the curriculum aspects for Science, Agriculture, Environmental Science were equally
considered with the examination requirements.
Volume one deals with the practical aspects of test construction, analysis and the
improvement of assessment procedures. In addition Prof. Keith Lewin (University of Sussex)
takes up some of the theoretical aspects, especially the possibilities and limitations of
criterion-referenced assessment and test development in general. The practical exercise on
developing and administering tests draws to a large extent on the experiences with
assignments carried out during the second training workshop in Kenya, where participants
designed test items, conducted tests in primary schools and analysed the test results in
groups. The experiences of twenty years of examination reform are presented in two analyses
authored by education specialists from the Kenya National Examinations Council and the
Kenya Institute of Education. Finally, abstracts and papers are documented indicating the
discussion and direction of examinations and test constructions in eastern and southern
Africa.
Volume two starts with an account and analysis of the present situation regarding primary
school leaving examinations of countries in the region. Detailed information for each country
is provided in a tabulated overview illustrated by original examination papers in Science,
Agriculture and Environmental Science mainly from 1993 and 1994. In few countries Science
and Agriculture feature only as part of a larger »General Paper«. In these cases the items
covering Science or Agriculture have been included in the documentation. South Africa and
Namibia are also included, although presently they have not yet started end-of-primary
examinations, but discussions on the composition and design of examinations are in
progress. Furthermore, examples of follow-up communications after the examinations from
different countries are presented.
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2. End of Primary School Examination in Eastern and
Southern Africa - An Overview
Udo Bude
The evaluation of pupil's learning achievements is an essential part of the school curriculum.
However, methods and scope vary among and within countries. Information on how schools
and teachers carry out their tasks as suggested in curricula is of great importance to
educational planners, curriculum developers and examination specialists in ensuring
acceptable standards of attainment and in guiding the improvement of the quality of
education.
In most countries of eastern and southern Africa the dominant tradition is to use formal
examinations as a means of assessment at both individual and school level. Very often such
examinations consist of a mixture of aspects of assessment procedures inherited from
colonial systems mixed with recent developments in assessment methods. In the following
chapter we will focus on examinations taking place at the end of primary schooling in the
region. Children finish their first school cycle after seven or eight years. They are expected to
sit examinations that test mainly their knowledge and skills in Languages and Mathematics,
and in a range of subjects ranging from History and Geography to Religion, Science and
Social Studies. Sometimes Science is a separate subject, in other cases it is examined with
one or more others.
Tests in Education
Formal examinations and tests have not always been a part of education. The first formal
examination in a university occurred at the University of Bologna in 1219. Oral exams were a
part of the European university systems from the middle of the seventeenth century, and in
1803 formal written exams were introduced at Oxford University. The efforts of Joseph M.
Rice in the late 1800s were instrumental in establishing standardized tests as part of the
American educational system. Rice was trained as a physician, but he spent most of his
professional life developing tests to assess educational achievement. Another significant
figure in the history of educational tests is E.L. Thorndike. In the early 1900s Thorndike and
his students at Columbia Teachers College contributed tests of arithmetic, handwriting,
spelling, and other academic abilities. Today, routine achievement tests are a part of virtually
every academic endeavor.1
Note: Achievement tests were already applied over 2000 years ago in China. Candidates
had to pass a public examination for the entry into the Chinese Imperial Service.
1
Graham, John R./Lilly, Roy S. (1984) Psychological Testing. Prentice Hall, Englewood
Cliffs, New Jersey, USA, p. 6.
The primary school leaving examination is usually only the first of a series of examinations
that take place throughout the educational system. But even at the age of twelve to fourteen
such an examination determines the future of many children and is also valued by many
communities as an indicator of teachers' abilities and of school quality. Consequently,
teachers as well as pupils put great effort into the preparations for the examinations, the more
so because in most countries only the results in the final examination count for certification
and selection for secondary school.
Examinations have a tremendous influence on classroom instruction, particularly in the years
immediately preceding the end of primary school education. Where there are hardly any paid
jobs available after primary school and secondary places are limited, the competition to enter
secondary schools becomes more and more intensive and the all important terminal
examination the centre of attention. In the end the backwash effect of this examination may
penetrate the whole primary education system. Not surprisingly, one even finds teachers in
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standard/class 1 of primary schools trying to encourage pupils to practise multiple-choice
questions once their pupils have learnt to master the very basics of the 3 Rs. In some
countries formal tests are even being arranged in kindergartens.
Teachers know that they have to assess their pupils to build up a detailed understanding of
each student's strengths and weaknesses. Without such formative knowledge teachers
cannot be in a position to help and to assist. Summative testing is also valued and seen as an
indispensible part of teaching allowing overall judgement on the successful attainment of
educational objectives. Teachers often question why such testing cannot be left completely to
them. One reason is designing meaningful and valid tests is not an easy job. If simple »penciland-paper« tests are conducted by teachers as the only means of assessing pupils'
performance this will not do justice to the complexity of the learning objectives set out in the
curriculum. Nor is it likely to be technically sound as a valid and reliable measurement given
that few teachers are adequately trained in test design and many have no formal training at
all.
Furthermore, there is concern that over reliance on teacher set tests may undermine
balanced teaching of the curriculum because teachers may give undue emphasis to some
parts while neglecting others. In the end those parts of the total school curriculum which are
tested may be the only parts that are taught, and each teacher may value different topics.
Examinations rarely cover the full range and depth of the curriculum prescribed for the
different subjects. Thus, what should have been learned is only partially examined. In many
countries in eastern and southern Africa the examination questions set over the years come
to define the school curriculum in the last two years of primary school in a narrow and
stereotyped way.
»Teaching to the test«
Examinations and testing programmes have grown and multiplied with the expansion and
diversification of participation within education systems and probably also as the
consequence of an increasing demand for information on the development of 'human
resources' in the wider economy and society. Most of them have probably not been
specifically designed to help improve learning as such, but simply to verify or 'assess' whether
the student has certain knowledge, values and attitudes, skills or capabilities. Both of the two
main types of assessment information -criterion-referenced (can X and Y do Z?) and normreferenced (can X do better than Y on Z?) - are clearly in demand though for different
purposes. Within education systems, in cases where resource constraints require that only a
limited number of individuals within a given reference group (e.g., a cohort or class) be
selected for particular courses of study, the demand is for norm-referenced information; when
teachers simply need to know if students have acquired prerequisite knowledge and skills
before progressing to more advanced stages of learning, the demand is for criterionreferenced information. In both cases the student is challenged to perform a certain task or
tasks, and there is little doubt that the prospect of such a challenge can provide a stimulus to
learning. Indeed, the major end-of-cycle public examinations in many countries often are the
cause of anxiety and even anguish among parents as well as students because they are so
determining for life chances.
If, as is common, the knowledge and skills assessed by examinations are the ones that
teachers, students and parents concentrate on to the exclusion of what else is in the
curriculum, then there occurs the biggest single unwanted side-effect of external assessment.
Proponents of 'measurement-driven' or 'assessment-led' instruction have argued that if
'teaching to the test' produces higher test scores, then at least some learning has occured.
Critics have questioned whether those higher test scores represent useful and enduring
learning which will convert into future achievement -as opposed, say, to mere memorization of
facts which are quickly forgotten. Despite the amount of testing going on in the world, many
scholars probably would agree that there still is very little known about whether preparing for
and taking tests actually causes useful and enduring learning to occur.2
2
from: UNESCO (1991) World Education Report, pp. 82, 83
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The heavy reliance of developing countries on external examinations is in great contrast to
experiments in some European countries aimed at abolishing formal examinations at primary
school level and replacing them by more formative, school-based and pedagogically
integrated assessment. In Switzerland, for example, an experimental project has started
where children's progress was regularly evaluated through diagnostic methods (see Box).
Such a demanding approach, however, requires teachers with sufficient professional
experience and a thorough academic and pedagogic background.
In Switzerland, interesting experimental work is taking place which appears to have general
applicability to the problem. Research there and elsewhere has shown that the traditional
evaluation of pupils' performance often fails to achieve its objectives. Commonly, it does not
help the pupils to improve, it does not accurately inform parents of their child's progress, and
it does not give sufficient information to educationists to enable them to plan the child's
educational future. Difficulties arise partly because the main function of marking is not clear;
there can be no single all-purpose mark that is simultaneously predictive, a credentialling
device, and a diagnostic tool, but that is what teachers have tried to employ. In primary
schools, the process of assessment is also sometimes distorted by marks being used to
punish or reward. In addition, teachers find it difficult to transform a record of underachievement into a prescription for remedying it.
The Swiss research indicates that while formal evaluation instruments and data banking have
a role to play, the main solution lies elsewhere. Thus, in one experimental project, teachers
were encouraged to prepare their own diagnostic tests, and marks were not given though
mistakes were carefully analysed and explained to the pupil. Twice a year remarks, not
grades, were entered in parents' notebooks giving an account of the child's progress. Each
June an evaluation of the whole year was noted in the pupil's record. Teachers recorded the
achievement made during the year but there was no comparison between pupils - in other
words, the purpose of this evaluation was diagnostic not rank-ordering. Surveys showed that
parents and teachers favoured the new evaluation despite the work load involved, but there
was a clear need for teachers to receive more training with a view to encouraging them to
discard their old ideas about marking, and to develop their skills in being more precise about
objectives and in the construction of their own diagnostic materials. The great advantage of
this evaluation project has been the emphasis on the professional expertise of the teachers
and their need to communicate more effectively both with pupils and with their parents. At
primary level, it has been considered appropriate to give the diagnostic function of evaluation
priority over the other functions.3
3
OECD (1989) Schools and Quality. An International Report. Paris, p. 102
Such well-trained professionals are, under normal circumstances, not available in developing
countries and their lack would easily jeopardize such an approach.
Investigation of the end of primary school examinations in the Africa region reveals that most
of the countries have started reforming their examinations in recent years, particularly since
1990. Countries are well aware of the limitations of examination systems that depend heavily
on multiple-choice tests. There is a great need and demand for reviewing and redesigning the
written examinations to reduce simple recall items to a minimum and include more items that
test higher cognitive skills. The latest trends include:
• experiments with continuous assessment, and
• introduction of more criterion-referenced tests.
Swaziland has been experimenting with continuous assessment in primary schools for three
years. The trials cover English and Mathematics and are intended for the full primary school
cycle (up to Std. VII). Criterion-referenced tests were introduced to assess the performance of
individual pupils. The trial programme aims at improved quality of teaching and hopes to
reduce repetition and dropout rates. At the same time it is planned to extend the primary basic
education cycle from 7 to 9 years with a final examination at the end of Std. IX. The major
constraint to the implementation of continuous assessment is the low level of teachers'
14
training. The introduction of forms of continuous assessment in the primary education system
is also envisaged in Uganda. However, Uganda's Examinations Board is aware of the
problems involved, especially of the need to sensitize and train teachers thoroughly and to
establish spot-checks and controls at local level. In addition a national assessment exercise is
planned every two years to determine country-wide levels of performance (to find out about
rising or falling standards).
Lesotho's experiences with continuous assessments have had less success. The trials did not
encourage a general country-wide introduction. Teachers were unable to handle the
assessment instruments correctly. Children were promoted without ensuring appropriate
learning outcomes. Thus, the usual end of primary school examinations have been retained.
Because of the limitations of the norm-referenced testing system Botswana began in 1992 to
experiment with criterion-referenced testing. It is hoped that a shift from the present testing
strategies to criterion-referenced testing will ensure that the examinations mirror the aims and
objectives of the primary school curriculum more closely. The new examination will be
supplemented by a process of continuous assessment.4
4
See: Ministry of Education, Department of Curriculum Development and Evaluation, CRT
Implementation Committee (1992) Criterion-referenced Testing. Rationale for
Implementation. Republic of Botswana.
15
End of Primary School Examinations in Eastern and Southern African Countries
Country
Title
Institution
setting No
of No
of No of Language Items
Year of Children's Duration Amount
examination questions
pupils
subjects
papers of exam pretested latest
entry age of
of fees
sifting
tested
in
(except
exam
in primary primary
charged
exam
in
exam
language
reforms school
school
(in
yes no
1994
papers)
US$)
Botswana Primary
School Dept.
of
Curriculum 36,158
5
5
English
X
1991
7
7
Leaving Examination
Development & Evaluation,
and
Examinations,
Research
&
Testing
Division
Kenya
Kenya Certificate of Kenya
National 395,765
14
7
English
X
1985
6
8
4.5
Primary Education
Examinations Council
Lesotho
Primary
School National
Curriculum 31,396
8
5
English
X
6
7
2
Leaving Examination
Development Centre
Malawi
Primary
School Malawi
National 103,833
11
8
English
X
1995
6
8
Leaving
Certificate Examinations Board
Examination
Swaziland Swaziland
Primary Swaziland
Examinations 17,888
9
11
English
X
1970
6
7
10
Certificate
Council
Tanzania
Primary
School National
Examinations 384,762
9
3
Kiswahili
X
1994
7
7
Leaving Examination
Council of Tanzania
Uganda
Uganda
Primary Uganda
National 162,695
6
4
English
X
1983
6-7
7
2
Leaving
Certificate Examinations Board
Examination
Zambia
Grade 7 Composite Examinations Council of 179,148
6
5
English
X
6-7
7
1
Examination
Zambia
Zanzibar
Form
1
Entrance Ministry
of
Education, 7,189
9
?
Kiswahili
X
1993
7
7
Examination
Dept. of Higher, Science &
Technical Education
Zimbabwe Grade 7 Examination
Examinations
Branch, 306, 706
6
4
English
X
1990
51/2-6
7
Ministry of Education and
Culture
Note: Namibia and South Africa have not been included. In Namibia presently examinations only take place after junior secondary school (class 10); primary school
examinations are planned for 1997. In South Africa the Independent Examinations Board, a non-governmental organisation, offers national examinations since 1994 for Std, VII
leavers. Common exams are also set by the Provincial Departments of Education.
16
Zambia is the only country in eastern and southern Africa which includes in the Grade VII
Composite Examination at the end of the primary education two papers testing verbal and
numerical reasoning. In English and Mathematics pupils are asked to answer 50 questions for
each subject. The multiple-choice items can be answered in 60 minutes for English and in the
same time for Mathematics.
Tanzania has seen changes in the structure of the primary school examination over the last
years. For reasons of examination security the country used to be divided into different zones,
controlled centrally from the capital. From previous five zones in 1990 the »examination
zones« were gradually reduced to two in 1993. For each examination paper different versions
are produced according to the number of existing zones by the National Examinations
Council. Since 1994 Tanzania has produced only one set of examination papers for the whole
country. This development was accompanied by the creation of examination centres in the
regions and the compulsory presentation of candidates' photographs for identification
purposes.
The number of subjects tested in the end of primary school examinations in the different
countries of the region range from 14 (Kenya) and 11 (Malawi) to 6 (Uganda, Zambia,
Zimbabwe) or 5 (Botswana); 8 subjects are tested in Lesotho and 9 in Swaziland and
Tanzania, including Zanzibar. However, these subjects do not necessarily feature in the
examinations with papers of their own. Only the main subjects, like Languages and
Mathematics appear as separate papers, all others are presented in combination with other
subjects. The general impression prevails that the greater the number of subjects combined in
one paper, the smaller the range of the subject's curriculum covered in the test. Zimbabwe
e.g. tests three subjects in a combined General Paper (Religious & Moral Education/Social
Studies/Environmental Science) with the result that the whole curriculum of each subject has
to be reflected with 15 or 20 questions!
Pupils in all parts of the United Republic of Tanzania receive their examination questions in
the national language Kiswahili, and can answer in the same language. In all other countries
of the southern and eastern African region English is used as the official language, English is
required for understanding and answering the tests. Only the papers in the local/regional
language subjects use the respective languages as the medium of education and
assessment.
The test items for the different subjects are either developed by national examination boards
or councils or by national curriculum centres. In Lesotho the national curriculum centre is
responsible for setting the examination questions. All other countries of the region charge the
national examination boards or councils with this task. Over the years different procedures for
setting the examination questions have emerged. As a rule, specialists from different
educational institutions like curriculum development centres, examination boards, teacher
training colleges, universities and sometimes practising teachers etc. are invited to forward
sample items which are later moderated by specialists, sometimes trial tested and analysed
and finally compiled for the annual examination paper. Nearly all countries try to involve
experienced primary school teachers and inspectors at this stage. Only Malawi and Tanzania
refrain from using practising primary school teachers' experience for the design of test items.5
Half of the countries appear to analyse pre-test results in the development of items.
5
See also table 2: Groups involved in setting examinations.
17
CRITERION-REFERENCED TESTING
ADVANTAGES
• Fair and informative to students, parents,
and educators.
NORM-REFERENCED TESTING
• National educational progress may be
evaluated meaningfully in terms of
increased achievement.
• Smaller samples of content can provide
sound comparisons of student's relative
achievement, provided large samples of
students are used.
• Career guidance information can centre on
specific abilities fostered by the curriculum.
• Diagnosis of individual's deficiencies in
relation to curriculum objectives is more
possible.
• Meaningful curriculum-based continuous
assessment of students that are comparable
from school to school are possible.
DISADVANTAGES
• Student achievement is not so easily
compared.
• Smaller samples of content provide
weaker generalisations about a student's
performance in the curriculum domain.
• May discourage student competition that is
based on relative standing in a norm group.
• Readily reflects the achievement of each
examinee in relation to the norm group.
• May promote student competition and
competition between schools that is based on
relative standing in the norm group.
• Fair but less informative regarding what
levels of achievement were attained.
• National progress may be evaluated but
comparisons over the years are difficult.
• The information obtained may be less helpful
to target in-service training to specific aspects
of the curriculum.
• Diagnosis limited to broad areas of
curriculum (e.g. Math vs English) and in terms
of a student's curricular strengths relative to
other students in the norm group.
• Curriculum-based continuous assessments
are less meaningful and limited to relative
standing in the local classroom.
Note: Adapted from Ministry of Education, Department of Curriculum Development and
Evaluation, CRT Implementation Committee (1992) Criterion-referenced Testing. Rationale
for Implementation. Republic of Botswana, p. 13
Many members of the groups involved in setting examination questions for the end of primary
education as indicated in table 2 may have no formal training in assessment and simply draw
on experience.
Table 2: Groups involved in setting examination questions (end of primary schooling)
Country
primary
secondary school TTCs
University Curriculum Examination
school
school
inspec tutors
lecturers
developers specialists
teachers teachers
tors
Botswana
X
X
X
X
X
Kenya
X
X
X
Lesotho
X
X
X
X
Malawi
X
X
X
X
Swaziland
X
X
X
X
X
Tanzania
X
Uganda
X
X
X
X
Zambia
X
X
X
X
X
Zanzibar
X
X
X
X
Zimbabwe
X
X
X
X
18
A closer look at the situation of science subjects in the end of primary school examinations
reveals that Science features in all examinations, but the importance attached to this subject
differs from country to country. Science is either a compulsory paper like Mathematics and
Languages (e.g. in Botswana), or is part of a compulsory »General Paper« (e.g. Tanzania,
Zimbabwe), or appears only as an optional paper in the examination (e.g. Malawi). To stress
the importance of Science in primary education and ensure appropriate teaching, the
discussions in Zimbabwe have resulted in proposals to establish Science as an additional
compulsory paper in its own right, rather than to examine it with Social Studies and Religious
Education which are not cognate subjects.
Table 3: Science Subjects in End of Primary School Examinations
Country
Subject
paper
Type
items
Botswana
Science
Multiplechoice (4
options)
60
Time
available
for
subject
(minutes)
60
Kenya
Science
&
Agriculture
60
120
Lesotho
Science
70
90
Agriculture included in
Science paper.
Malawi
• Science and
Health
Education
Multiplechoice (4
options)
Multiplechoice (4
options)
Short
answers
31
120
Short
answers
25
120
Answers
in
English/From 1995 on
only one paper called
»Science Incorporated«
(incl.
Science,
Agriculture
and Health Education)
will feature as an
optional paper in the
exam
consisting
of
multiple-choice items.
Two papers are given in
Science,
one
with
multiple-choice
items,
one requesting short
answers in English.
Agriculture is examined
as an additional optional
paper.
Multiplechoice (4
options)
Short
answers
40
90
6
120
Multiplechoice (5
options)
Short
answers
30
90
• Agriculture
Swaziland
of
No
of
questions
• Science
Paper I
Paper II
• Agriculture
Section I
Section II
12
19
Remarks
Agriculture
not
examined in Primary
School
Leaving
Examination.
30 questions for each
subject.
Country
Subject
paper
Type
items
Tanzania
General
Knowledge
incl. Science
Multiplechoice (5
options)
20
Time
available
for
subject
(minutes)
30
Uganda
Basic Science
and
Health
Education
Short
answers
55
135
Zambia
Environmental
Science
Multiplechoice (4
options)
50
60
Zanzibar
Science
Multiplechoice (4
options)
Short
answers
Multiplechoice (5
options)
20
90
- Section A
- Section B
Zimbabwe
General
Paper
incl.
Science
&
Agriculture
of
No
of
questions
Remarks
General
Knowledge
paper
consists
of
History,
Geography,
Civics,
Science,
Agriculture, Health and
Home
Science.
20
questions for Science.
Answers in English;
Agriculture included in
the Basic Science and
Health Education paper.
Agriculture included in
Environmental Science
paper.
Agriculture
not
examined.
6
20
40
General paper consists
of Religious & Moral
Education,
Social
Studies,
Science
&
Agriculture.
Note: Tabulation based on the 1994 examination papers.
Agriculture as a separate subject in the examinations faces even greater problems finding
adequate recognition. Only one country does not include Agriculture in the examinations
(Botswana), but in most cases the subject is included as a subtopic in the compulsory
Science or General Paper. Agriculture appears as a separate, but optional paper only in
Swaziland.
Throughout the countries Science and Agriculture are tested in the national examinations with
using multiple-choice questions. The latest country to adopt this style of testing is Malawi
which started applying such items from 1995 on. The decision to use multiple-choice items in
the examination was preceded by two research analyses of the previous examination
system.6
6
See: Chimwenje, Catherine (1993) Evaluation of the Primary School Leaving
Examination in Malawi: How the Examination meets its educational and selection Goals.
PhD-thesis. Univ. of Sussex/England; Bradbury, Richard (Oct. 1992) Primary Science
School Leaving Examinations. Malawi-German-Primary Science Project, Occasional
Papers No. 1.
The opposite happened in Uganda, where 1983 multiple-choice questions in the examinations
were completely abolished and pupils had to get used to giving short answers in English to
each item. As a consequence of this revision the number of questions was reduced allowing
more time for the written statements from pupils allowing assessment of a wider range of
attainments. Swaziland has tried to compromise between multiple-choice and open-ended
questions by combining both. Science as well as Agriculture are tested in the end of primary
examination with two papers each. For example the Science test consists of a paper with 40
multiple-choice items and another with six questions where short answers are expected.
20
What kind of multiple-choice questions are used in the examinations? The claims of those
responsible for the design of the examination papers do not match the results shown by
analyses of the actual papers intended to test pupils' performances in the science subjects.
With the exception of Kenya all the other countries appear to include large proportions of
recall questions in Science and Agriculture. On average two thirds of the test items fall under
this category. Questions which test pupils' ability to apply what they have learned to new
situations, or which require an understanding of how facts are linked to one another, are
much less frequent, and in most countries account for 25 to 35% of all Science questions.
The case of Kenya demonstrates that the application of skills and knowledge acquired in
schools can be at the centre of the examination with 50 to 60% of all items intended to work
at this level. This leaves a substantial proportion of the total number of questions to test
higher order skills (10-20%).
The structure of examination questions in the science subjects shows a clear concentration
on those multiple-choice items testing simple knowledge. Higher-order skills or the capacity
for applied thinking are rarely tested. The good intentions of those setting the examinations to
evaluate achievement based on the educational objectives of subject curricula seem to run
into difficulty when skills are valued which require evidence of comprehension, application
and communication skills. In a provisional analysis of Environmental & Agricultural Science in
the national primary school Grade 7 Examination in Zimbabwe, Lewin shows that most items
he analysed in the General Paper required only the recall of information. Knowledge items
accounted for 66% of all Science items, comprehension items for 28% and application items
for only 6% of the total items in the 1990 and 1991 examinations papers. »Though the skills of
comparison and classification can be tested with multiple-choice items they appear not to be.
There are very few items that deal with measurement skills. A small number of items are
concerned with interpreting data. Thus opportunities seem to have been missed... to
interrelate the cognitive demand of examination items with the science skills identified in the
syllabus document«7 Although most of the countries only use multiple-choice items for their
tests in Science and Agriculture, examination specialists are aware of the limitations of such a
test method, particularly with regards to encouraging the expression and originality of the
pupils.
7
Lewin, Keith (May 1992) Provisional analysis of national examination papers 1990 and
1991, Environmental and Agricultural Science in Zimbabwe. Preliminary analysis, p. 4.
All countries of the region included in this survey report different performances of girls and
boys in the end of primary school examinations. On average girls achieve lower scores than
boys. There is some evidence that boys perform better on multiple-choice questions, whereas
girls show greater talent in free response items.8 It is also probable that, since no examination
construction procedures specifically filter out items with strong gender differentiation in
performance, that differences in performance are partly a result of the way items are chosen.
The 30 items developed during the training workshop in Nyeri/Kenya in 1994 and tested in six
different primary schools with more than 300 pupils showed gender differences in pupils
performance. This mock-examination in Science/Agriculture indicated that boys did much
better in all items referring to more abstract/technological questions (levers, pulleys etc.). Girls
however did significantly better on weather recording (charts) and on agricultural problems
dealing with maize growing. Interestingly in the best performing school where girls and boys
are boarders from Std. I and enjoy the advantages of a well-staffed and well-equipped elite
school, girls and boys scored equally highly on all items. Systematical checks of test items to
prevent gender biases are still to be included in the designs of primary school leaving
examinations.
8
See also Keeves, John P. (1994) National examinations: design, procedures and
reporting. UNESCO: IIEP, Paris, p. 71.
21
Multiple-Choice Items
Advantages:
• Because multiple-choice questions take little time to answer, a test can measure a broader
range of content than is possible with a test which relies solely on essay items or performance
tasks.
• They are less costly to score. If specially prepared forms are used, they can be machine
scored, allowing thousands of answer sheets to be scored in a very short period of time.
Marking is also more reliable.
• They are an efficient way to measure recall of factual knowledge and some skills.
Disadvantages:
• It is more difficult to design multiple-choice questions which measure higher levels of
thinking and problem solving.
• It is more difficult to design questions which measure more complex, real-life types of skills
and thinking.
• They take more time to develop because of the need to construct four or five response
choices.
• Multiple-choice tests promote multiple-choice teaching - that is, teaching where students are
always looking for the one right answer.
• There is a significant chance of being able to get the correct answer by guessing, which is
not the case with performance tasks or essays. If a multiple-choice question has four options,
the student has a 25 percent chance of guessing the item correctly. Though this may not
change the rank order of pupils, it may give a misleading impression of actual achievement.9
9
Adapted from Capper, Joanne (March 1994) Testing to Learn... Learning to Test. A
Policymaker's Guide to Better Educational Testing. Executive Summary. Academy for
Educational Development, Washington, D.C.
Further efforts are needed to ensure that end of primary examinations are of a high quality
and help at the same time to improve meaningful teaching/learning in primary schools. The
application of multiple-choice questions in national examinations influences classroom
teaching. »If the examination primarily contains items which have students selecting from
among options, then students are likely to spend much of their time preparing for the test with
worksheets in which they select the correct answer. This type of behavior is less likely to help
students make the extensive web of mental connections which help them to understand and
use what they learn in school«.10 Future examination reforms need to pay attention to three
priority areas:
(1) Devising assessment tasks which are stimulating and test active, problem-oriented
thinking, in valid and reliable ways;
(2) selecting questions which are as fair as possible to all groups involved (especially to
girls, pupils living in remoter or rural areas, and to pupils from less privileged socioeconomic backgrounds);
(3) including some open-ended tasks in the assessment process to avoid sole
dependence on multiple-choice questions (see BOX »Multiple-Choice Items«).
10
ibid., p. 23.
22
Over the last decade one country in the region has successfully improved the internal quality
of the examination at the end of primary education to make examinations more meaningful
and relevant to the things taught in school based on the curriculum. By changing the type of
questions asked in the Kenya Certificate of Primary Education examination from simple recall
questions to items testing intellectual skills, the examination reform has supported curriculum
changes. »... the whole success of such an operation in Kenya, as elsewhere, depends on
building up the skills not only of those who devise the items but also ultimately of the children
who read them, since a 'thinking type' question almost invariably employs more difficult
language structures than a 'recall type'«.11
11
Hawes, Hugh & Stephens, David (1990) Questions of Quality - Primary Education and
Development. Longman, p. 170.
Another problem causes even greater headaches. The increasing importance of examinations
has negative repercussions on classroom teaching and leads to all different kinds of
manipulation during and after the examinations. Uganda's National Examination Board
reported a situation typical for nearly all other countries:
• Primary schools concentrate solely on those subjects featuring in the national
examination;
• those subjects not tested in the examination (like Art & Crafts, Music, Physical
Education) disappear from the schools' timetable;
• children spend much more time in school than officially planned, because of many mockexaminations;
• even during vacations tutoring (against payment) for examinations takes place in
schools;
• private coaching clinics for end of primary school examinations flourish;
• examination cramming texts are bought in preference to official curriculum materials.
Similar experiences are also reported from Kenya. The struggle for being amongst the top
performing primary schools in the country and having as many pupils as possible placed in
the country's elite secondary schools has produced a classroom situation where children are
continuously assessed through written examinations throughout the year. Mock-examinations
are designed and set by a panel of teachers and parents have to pay fees for those »tests«.
On the average children write nine examinations per year and subject. The third term of the
last year in primary school is completely devoted to former examination papers of the Kenya
National Examinations Council. Thus, large parts of the curriculum for Std. VIII are not
covered properly. Every administrative unit (zone, division, district) organises special mockexaminations to provide as much opportunities as possible to getting prepared for the final
national examination. Most worryingly perhaps, practical activities which provide opportunities
to apply knowledge and concepts are relegated to occasional activities with little coherent
purpose.
In many countries, much more effort needs to be made to ensure that the examinations are of
the highest possible quality. Apart from the psychometric qualities of validity and reliability, the
following three criteria are suggested for judging the quality of examinations.
• Active thinking. Testing only recall information is to be avoided. Active ideas are held in the
mind as pictures in which elements are linked to each other in patterns. Knowledge-based
questions should test understanding of these patterns. Such questions should be concerned
with causes, consequences, and reasons; with relationships, trends, and general ideas. In
other words with understanding. The assimilation of the knowledge is a characteristic of active
thinking. Examinations in some subject areas should include a number of data-based
questions requiring students to read and interpret new information. Examinations should also
include questions testing the application of knowledge to new situations including drawing
23
inferences, making predictions, or solving problems. There is always the problem that what is
new to one student may not be new to another but, in general, it is possible to construct
questions which are known not to be in the major textbooks that have been used. The above
points have been well known since Bloom's Taxonomy of Educational Objectives« (Bloom et
al, 1956) appeared but surprisingly are often ignored.
• Equity. The examination should, to the maximum extent possible, be fair to all groups: to
girls, to students living in rural areas, particularly in remote parts of the country, and to those
from less-privileged socioeconomic backgrounds. Biases in individual questions are often
unavoidable (especially in questions which are experience-based). However the question
setters should attempt to ensure that, over the examination as a whole, these biases
counterbalance each other as much as possible. This is, however, no easy task. The
performance of students in the remote and less privileged schools is nearly always adversely
affected by the quality of the education they receive and therefore it is important to ensure
that avoidable biases in examination questions do not compound their disadvantage.
• Open-ended questions. Even when there is evidence to indicate that, from an assessment
point of view, the examination of open-ended questions does not provide additional
information for prediction purposes it is nevertheless desirable to include open-ended items
simply to ensure that teachers do not only use multiple-choice items. It must also be
remembered that it is impossible to assess students' ability to develop a logical argument, to
defend a point of view, to write essays and the like with multiple-choice items.12
12
Ross, Kenneth N. & Mählck, Lars (eds.) (1990) Planning the quality of education. The
collection and use of data for informed decision-making. UNESCO: IIEP. Pergamon Press,
pp. 28, 29.
In this way children are continuously assessed throughout their school career, starting with
tests in Std. I. Teachers have become so used to these assessment exercises and the related
fringe benefits like additional income, that they defend the tests as a necessary means for
providing better education and increasing children's chances to pass the examination. As a
result teaching/learning in Kenya's primary schools has become examination-oriented to an
extent that the pedagogical objectives of the curriculum are more and more neglected. »The
learning process is to fit the cut-throat competition for high grades in public examinations. The
teachers use all tricks they can to enable their children to perform well in public examinations,
including drilling them on how to answer examination questions and giving frequent trial test,
known in Kenya as mock examinations«.13 To counteract these unhealthy developments the
Kenya Institute of Education now tries to design model items to assess children at different
stages in primary school to reduce the inflation of mock-examinations and improve their range
and quality.
13
Mulusa, Thomas (1992) Pluralistic education in sub-Saharan Africa. An Overview. In:
PROSPECTS, Vol. XXII, No. 2, pp. 159-170, p. 162.
Pupils' knowledge and abilities can be measured in many ways. Because the different formats
of assessment have their advantages and disadvantages some countries try to include
various kinds of question formats in their examinations, like Swaziland using multiple-choice
items and open-ended questions in the Science paper. Performance tasks are a further
possibility to measure pupils' understanding of processes and the ability to demonstrate skills
and techniques in real-life situations. »Students at the primary level can learn to classify and
observe - two basic and essential elements of the scientific process. Hands-on science tests
at this level might involve students in putting seeds and beans into categories and explaining
why they selected those categories, or measuring and recording various objects, such as their
hands, feet, or pulse rate before and after exercise«14 The use of performance tasks in
examination however faces a number of constraints: Teachers need intensive training and
assistance in learning how to teach such tasks, and the administration and scoring is timeconsuming, costly and rather complex.
14
Capper, Joanne, op. cit., p. 20.
24
Pros and Cons of School-Based Assessment
Arguments can be advanced in favor of and against school-based assessment
(Heyneman 1988; Pennycuick 1990). Arguments in favor go as follows:
• Since assessment by teachers is a crucial component of good learning and teaching, every
effort should be made to improve teachers' competence in this area (Crooks 1988). If schoolbased assessment becomes part of the certification process, it is likely that greater effort will
be invested in improving teachers' general competence in assessment, and this should have
beneficial effects on teaching and learning.
• School-based assessment provides immediate feedback information to teachers on student
achievement and teaching effectiveness.
• Since school-based assessment is carried out over time and by a person who knows
students well, it is likely to provide a more valid and reliable appraisal of a student's
achievements than can a single external terminal examination. In this context, one
commentator in Zambia has observed that the school is »the only place where there is
enough information to do reasonable justice to a pupil« (Kelly 1986, p. 20).
• School-based assessment permits an extension of the range of curriculum topics to be
examined. The present system of examinations limits the range of achievements that can be
assessed and must narrow the curriculum in schools. Aspects of achievement that cannot be
satisfactorily assessed in a terminal examination include a student's ability to plan and
organize a project and persevere with it over time. While the assessment of oral and practical
skills may be carried out in a terminal examination, inevitably it will be limited, artificial, and
expensive.
• School-based assessment reduces the undesirable back-wash effects of external
examinations.
• School-based assessment, if spread over the year, can increase the level of pupil motivation
and application throughout the year.
Some of the following arguments advanced against the use of school-based
assessment in the certification of students:
• Its use can change the nature of the relationship between teachers and students towards
making the judicial aspect of the teacher's role more prominent.
• Marking standards in school-based assessment are likely to vary both within and among
schools. While moderation procedures can help, they tend to be expensive.
• School-based assessment can subject teachers to considerable parental pressure,
especially during the periods leading up to and immediately after critical public examinations.
• School-based assessment requires teachers to devote more time to assessment and
recording.
• School-based assessment gives rise to a variety of administrative problems for schools,
such as what to do when students are absent for tests or when students transfer from one
school to another.
• Teachers' assessments are subject to a variety of biases.
• In many instances, it is difficult if not impossible to apply school-based assessment to nonschool-based candidates.
• Teachers' assessments are often technically unreliable and may have low content and
predictive validity.15
15
Adapted from: Kellaghan, Thomas and Greaney, Vincent (1992) op. cit., pp. 42, 43.
25
The assessment of practical subjects in the final examinations poses particular problems.
Should e.g. in Art & Craft pupils produce something for the examination or should the
progress made over a certain period being continuously assessed and taken into
consideration for the ultimate judgement? Some countries have therefore started to
experiment with some kind of continuous school-based assessment. The advantages and
disadvantages of school-based assessment are well summarised by Kellaghan and Greaney
in a study of fourteen African countries (see BOX). Again, as in the case of using performance
tasks, teachers need to be trained carefully for this type of assessment. Furthermore, parents
and communities must have faith in the fairness of such examination procedures.
References
1. Bradbury, Richard (Oct. 1992) Primary Science School Leaving Examinations. MalawiGerman-Primary Science Project, Occasional Papers No. 1
2. Capper, Joanne (March 1994) Testing to Learn... Learning to Test. A Policymaker's Guide
to Better Educational Testing. Executive Summary. Academy for Educational Development,
Washington, D.C.
3. Chimwenje, Catherine (1993) Evaluation of the Primary School Leaving Examination in
Malawi: How the Examination meets its educational and selection Goals. PhD-thesis.
University of Sussex/England
4. Graham, John R./Lilly, Roy S. (1984) Psychological Testing. Prentice-Hall, Englewood
Cliffs, New Jersey, USA
5. Hawes, Hugh & Stephens, David (1990) Questions of Quality - Primary Education and
Development. Longman.
6. Keeves, John P. (1994) National examinations: design, procedures and reporting.
UNESCO: IIEP, Paris
7. Kellaghan, Thomas & Greaney, Vincent (1992) Using Examinations to Improve Education.
A Study in Fourteen African Countries. World Bank Technical Paper No. 165. The World
Bank, Washington, D.C.
8. Lewin, Keith (May 1992) Provisional analysis of national examination papers 1990 and
1991, Environmental and Agricultural Science in Zimbabwe. Preliminary analysis. Ministry of
Education and Culture, Zimbabwe/Deutsche Stiftung für internationale Entwicklung (DSE),
Bonn (Draft Report)
9. Ministry of Education, Department of Curriculum Development and Evaluation, CRT
Implementation Committee (1992) Criterion-referenced Testing. Rationale for Implementation.
Republic of Botswana.
10. Mulusa, Thomas (1992) Pluralistic education in sub-Saharan Africa. An Overview. In:
PROSPECTS, Vol. XXII, No. 2, pp. 159-170
11. OECD (1989) Schools and Quality. An International Report. Paris
12. Ross, Kenneth N. & Mählck, Lars (eds.) (1990) Planning the quality of education. The
collection and use of data for informed decision-making. UNESCO: IIEP. Pergamon Press
13. UNESCO (1991) World Education Report. Paris
26
3. Country Reports/Examination Papers
3.1. Botswana
3.1.1. Overview
End of Primary School Examination
1 Title of examination:
Primary School Leaving Examination
2 Amount of fees charged:
Nil
3. Examination after years in primary
school (6, 7, 8 years):
7 yrs
4. Children's entry age in primary
school:
7 yrs
5. Number of pupils sitting examination
in 1994:
36,158
6. Examination subjects offered:
• Setswana,
• English
• Mathematics
• Science
• Social Studies.
The Setswana and English papers have an
essay component in addition. The other papers
are objective papers.)
7. Language of examination:
English (except for Setswana paper)
8. Institution setting the examination
questions:
Department of Curriculum Development and
Evaluation, and Examinations, Research and
Testing Division
9. Have there been any reforms in the
examination questions?
Yes
When? (year)
1991
What kind?
The examination papers were nine and they
were cut down to five, thus excluding the
aptitude testing papers which were previously
used for selection. All the questions now test
skills prescribed by the curriculum. Criterionreferenced
testing
is
considered
for
implementation.
27
10.
Stages
examination
describe):
of
development
of
questions
(please
• Appointment of Chief Examiner by
Examinations Unit.
• Convening of the item writing workshop,
involving primary school teachers, Curriculum
Development experts, Examinations experts,
Research and Testing experts, and Education
Officers.
• Compilation of the paper by the Chief
Examiner.
• Shredding session comprising Curriculum
Development
Unit,
Examinations
Unit,
Research and Testing Centre, Chief Examiner
and invited educationists.
• Trial testing.
• Item analysis.
• Compilation of final paper by Chief Examiner.
11. Type of examination questions and
distribution of different kind of
questions.
Details vary from subject to subject.
12.
Is
continuous
assessment
incorporated in the final examination?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
13. Are examination items pretested?
Yes [x]
No [ ]
14. Which professional groups are
involved in setting the examination
questions?
• Primary school teachers
• School inspectors
• Tutors of TTCs
• Curriculum Developers
• Research Testing Officers
Expertise)
• Education Officers (in-service)
(Technical
15. Are the same professionals who set
the examination questions involved in
marking papers?
Yes [x]
No [ ]
The essay components (English and Setswana)
of the Primary School Leaving Examination are
marked by primary school teachers.
16. How are examination results used
for improving teaching in primary
schools?
Examination reports are sent to schools to
describe the behaviour of each item during
marking and how markers view it generally. The
reports of the results are given to Members of
Parliament, Education Officers, schools, the
district administrators and all government
departments. The authorities are motivated for
future planning by the type of result achieved.
17. To what other uses
examination results put?
They were formerly used for selection to
secondary education. With universal access to
nine years of Basic Education the selection
purpose fell away in 1993.
are
the
18. Main problem with Primary School
Leaving Examinations?
./.
28
3.1.2. Primary School Leaving Examinations: The Case of Botswana
by Mookgweetsi Masisi, Curriculum Development and Evaluation Department
The Primary School Leaving Examination in Botswana is the joint responsibility of the
Examinations, Research and Testing Division, and the Department of Curriculum
Development and Evaluation at the Ministry of Education. It must be mentioned at the outset
that practising primary school teachers play an extremely significant and active role
throughout the process.
Functionally, the Examinations, Research and Testing Division is responsible for the
administration of examinations and for ensuring that what needs to be done at various points
gets done. The actual development of examination items is carried out at an item writing
workshop. Participants of a primary school leaving examination item writing workshop are
practising teachers who are selected mainly by their Education Officer in collaboration with
the responsible Research and Testing Officer and/or Curriculum Officer. More as a matter of
principle than as a rule, upper primary school teachers are selected for the workshop. This is
because the examination is constructed from those topics and objectives that are taught in
standards five, six and seven. It is primarily the responsibility of the Examinations, Research
and Testing Division to ensure that such a workshop gets held, and to ensure that all the
necessary criterial attributes of test development are given due attention throughout the
workshop. The Curriculum Development and Evaluation Department, which takes part in such
workshops, is responsible for ensuring adherence to the test plan (curriculum spread).
Curriculum objectives or extrapolations of the topics serve as a guide when designing items.
The intention is to produce items that are positively related to the stated objectives.
The reality of this is obviously mitigated in subjects that either do not have stated objectives or
have »fuzzy« objectives. The Examinations, Research and Testing Division itself plays an
enabling role of administration - ensuring that schedules are not disregarded. The same
division bears the responsibility for appointing a chief examiner. It is at this state also that the
first evaluation by professionals takes place as regards validity of the items. Whilst the
Examinations, Research and Testing Division personnel will ascertain adherence to the
internal qualities of the items, the curriculum officers as well as the teachers will ascertain the
curricular validity of the items in the context of the syllabus and classroom.
Following the item writing workshop, at which items are generated, the chief examiner puts
together a draft paper which is presented for discussion at a shredding session. Professional
personnel from the Curriculum Development and Evaluation Department, the Examination
Research and Testing Division, education officers and teachers are present and take an
active part in the deliberations. At such a shredding session, attention is given to the
construct, face and curricula validity and the shredding (editing) is undertaken with these in
mind. All observations and recommendations are noted by the chief examiner and followed by
corrective measures. This having been done, a paper is prepared by the chief examiner who
then hands it over to Examinations, Research and Testing Division for trial testing. Through
the trial test, analyses of individual items are derived. The trial test establishes the item
difficulty. The item discrimination is also established which checks the internal consistency of
the test. It is the trial test results together with the professional opinion of the chief examiner
and the curriculum officer which determine the ingredients of the final paper.
Stages in Examination Development Process/Item Examples
1. Appoint chief examiner
2. Hold item writing workshop
3. Chief examiner compiles a draft paper
4. Shredding session
5. Chief examiner reconstructs draft paper
29
6. Trial testing and item analysis
7. Chief examiner constructs final life paper
At this juncture, examples of some items from some past Primary School Leaving
Examination papers are in order. The statistics presented with them are the actual ones from
their trial testing. Given that Agriculture has only recently been offered at the primary school
level and elements of Environmental Science are currently being tested under the auspices of
Science, only the Science examples are provided.
Below are five examples from past examination papers.
1. A certain season has the longest days, another has the longest nights. What are they?
A
B
C
D
Autumn, spring
Summer, winter
Spring, summer
Summer, autumn
.08
.61
.12
.16
-.14
.33
-.16
-.16
Source: Item 6 Science PSLE 1989
2. During a thunderstorm, light is sensed before sound because
A
B
C
D
light is not as heavy as sound.
eyes work more quickly than ears.
light travels faster than sound.
ears do not react as fast as eyes.
.13
.05
.75
.04
-.20
-.15
.33
-.14
Source: Item 7 Science PSLE 1989
3. What is the temperature shown by the thermometer below?
A
B
C
D
30°C
31°C
32°C
33°C
.22
.72
.02
.02
-.32
.41
-.11
-.15
Source: Item 8 Science PSLE 1990
30
The graph below shows the smoking habits of people who have died from lung cancer.
4. From the information in the graph which of the following statements is correct?
People who do not smoke can also die of lung cancer.
Only people who do not smoke die of lung cancer.
Smoking reduces chance of death from lung cancer.
The less one smokes the greater the chance of dying from lung cancer.
A
B
C
D
.15.
.05
.57
.20
.06
-.21
.07
.00
Source: Item 28 Science PSLE 1990
Four farmers planted their crops for four years in the following way.
Year 1
Year 2
Year 3
Year 4
Farmer A
beans
maize
sorghum
beans
Farmer B
sorghum
potatoes
maize
potatoes
Farmer C
potatoes
maize
beans
melons
Farmer D
maize
sorghum
maize
sorghum
5. Which of the four farmers A, B, C, and D had the best pattern for crop rotation?
.18
.08
.49
.23
-.10
-.12
.22
-.06
Source: Item 34 Science PSLE 1990
It will be realised that given the nature of our PSLE, an inordinate emphasis is placed on
achievement norm-referenced testing. Part of the reason is its convenience for selection, but
frankly it is also easier to undertake. The utility of using such tests for selection is diminishing
over time as access to the next level is expanding.
Data Capture and Processing
Achievement scores are captured through machine scorable sheets. The sheets are scanned
and item responses recorded on to magnetic types at the Examinations, Research and
Testing Division (ERTD). Programmes for merging student name files and test scores,
31
checking inconsistencies and missing data are run by the Government Computer Bureau
(GCB). The ERTD does error checking and editing of the merged files.
The raw scores for each candidate are standardized to T-scores. The standardization formula
is as follows:
⎛x−x⎞
10⎜
⎟ + 50
⎝ SD ⎠
Where
x = subject core
x = subject mean
SD = subject standard deviation
10 = given standard deviation
50 = given mean
The transformed subject scores are graded into A, B, C, and D. Sample:
Student 001
Row
Scores
T - scores
Sets
Essay
25
Sets
Obj. T.
39
Eng
Essay
26
Eng
1
40
Eng
2
43
Maths
1
40
Maths
2
36
Soc
Stu
32
Science
37
58
47
60
58
57
63
60
53
55
Sets
Essay
24
Sets
Obj. T.
33
Eng
Essay
25
Eng
1
33
Eng
2
33
Maths
1
22
Maths
2
26
Soc
Stu
18
Science
24
56
50
58
51
48
44
46
38
41
Student 002
Raw
Scores
T - scores
The transformed scores are then added together and averaged to obtain an aggregate which
is graded into A, B, C, and D.
Sample:
Student A
Maths 1
Maths 2
Science
Soc Stu
Eng 1
Eng 2
Sets
T-Scores
63
60
55
53
59
57
58
Grades
A
B
B
C
B
B
B
Aggregate Score
Pass Level
57.76
B
Grading
There are set cut off points used for grading both subject test scores and aggregate scores.
Subject Grading
Grade
A
B
C
D
Standard Score
63 - up
55-62
46-54
45 - down
32
Aggregate Grading
Grade
A
B
C
D
Standard Score
63.01 - up
55.01 - 63.00
46.01 - 55.00
46.00 - down
SD Range
+ 1.00 SD & over
+ 0.5 SD - 1.00 SD
- 0.5 SD - + 0.5 SD
- 1.5 SD & below
Approx. % of Candidates
8
24
42
26
It is the aggregate score that is used in the merit list which in turn is used for selection where
and when applicable.
Reporting
Various reports are produced by the Government Computer Bureau for the Examinations,
Research and Testing Division. These are procedural reports some of which are used
internally and the rest for public consumption. The internal reports are the Raw Scores, the
Transformed Scores and Item Analyses.
Sample: Item Analysis
Question
Answer
001
B
002
B
003
D
A
B
.04
-.11
.14
-.15
.10
-.10
C
.73
.36
.72
.34
.19
-.29
D
.20
-.29
.07
-.19
.05
-.14
None
.01
-.09
.06
-.19
.64
.39
Multi
.00
.00
.00
-.01
.00
.00
.00
.00
.00
.00
.00
.00
The Examinations, Research and Testing Division also receives a merit list which is used
mainly for selection purposes by the Secondary Education Department
Sample:
Merit List
Pass level
A
A
A
A
Aggr Score
79.30
78.45
78.07
77.73
Sets
0
78
0
0
Eng 1
74
76
78
75
Eng 2
71
71
72
72
Maths 1
82
83
81
82
Maths 2
89
83
82
84
Soc Stu
81
79
79
80
Science
79
80
78
74
All government departments, schools, primary education officers and parastatals receive the
overall results document which shows subject grades (A, B, C, and D), aggregate pass levels
(A, B, C, and D) and various summaries. The results are shown by centre. At the end of each
centre's results are summaries for the centre. The document also contains national
summaries showing the overall number of candidates per district, the breakdown per grade
level and the percentage of candidates in each grade A, B, C, or D. These summaries can be
used to tell how districts perform against others.
Sample:
Actual Results
Pass level
B
A
C
c
B
Sets
c
B
C
c
A
Eng 1
B
A
C
B
B
Eng 2
A
A
C
C
B
Maths 1
A
A
B
C
B
33
Maths 2
A
B
C
C
B
Soc Stu
A
A
B
C
A
Science
A
A
C
D
B
A - 29 B - 34 C - 24 D - 6 Total - 93
Members of Parliament too can receive reports on request for their political districts. Most
leaders have provided their constituencies with trophies as encouragement and so with the
help of the reports they are able to tell how the different schools in their constituencies
perform over time. The reports can be used to attempt to establish causality of success or the
lack of it, hopefully followed by remedial action.
1991 PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING EXAMINATION PERCENTAGE A+B+C CATEGORIES
BY DISTRICT - Sample
The Examinations, Research and Testing Division produces some reports for education
officers only on request. An education officer would be in a position to provide services to
schools based on their performance from year to year. For instance a school might require
inservice training, more qualified teachers, more classrooms etc.
34
PROPORTIONS OF STUDENTS OBTAINING "A", "B" AND "C" PASSES ON THE 1991
PSLE: CENTRAL NORTH WEST REGION - Sample
References
1. Somerset, H.C.A. (1977) Selection, Examinations and Achievement in Botswana (A paper
in Education for Kagisano, Volume 2 Annexes), Gaborone.
2. Republic of Botswana (1992) Criterion-Referenced Testing Rationale for Implementation.
Department of Curriculum Development & Evaluation.
3.1.3. 1994 Primary School Leaving Examination/Science Paper
REPUBLIC OF BOTSWANA
1994 PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
TIME: 60 MINUTES
Directions
1.
2.
3.
4.
Use HB pencil ONLY. DO NOT use ink or ball point.
Print your name on the answer sheet in the space provided.
Fill the oval by BOY if you are a boy or GIRL if you are a girl.
In the four boxes under CENTRE write your centre number.
In the three boxes under STUDENT write your examination number. In the column of
numbers below each box, fill the oval that has the same number that you entered in the
box.
Fill the ovals with heavy black marks that fill the oval:
35
5.
6.
7.
8.
When you are told to begin, work as fast and as accurately as you can. If you cannot
answer a question, do not spend too much time on it; go to the next question and come
back to it later.
You may do rough work on the test paper or on a sheet of blank paper. DO NOT use the
answer sheet for rough work.
Several possible answers are given for each question. Select the answer you think is the
best and fill the oval for that answer on your answer sheet.
Be sure to fill the ovals like this:
Erase completely answers that you wish to change.
Do not make any stray marks on your answer sheet.
If more than one oval is filled for a question it will be marked wrong.
Be sure the oval you fill on your answer sheet is for the question you are working on in
the test paper.
DO NOT mark the ovals like this:
9.
If you do, your answers will be marked wrong.
Sample questions are given to help you. Read them carefully before doing the
questions.
36
Sample Questions
Sample 1
Sample 2
If a drum-skin is tightened its note will
A. increase in pitch.
B. decrease in pitch.
C. sound louder.
D. sound quieter.
SAMPLE 1
A man with a heavy cold finds his food tasteless because
A. the cold germs kill the taste of the food.
B. the cold germs numb the taste buds.
C. his blocked nose cuts out his sense of smell.
D. he has lost his appetite.
SAMPLE 2
A group of Standard 7 pupils recorded what the weather had been like in regions P, Q, R, S
and T on the map shown below. Use the information to answer questions 1 to 3.
1. In which of the following regions was it raining?
A P and Q
B R and S
C P and T
D S and T
2. In which direction was the wind blowing in regions Q and R?
A North-west
B South-east
C North east
D South-west
3. What was the weather like in region Q?
A Sunny and cloudy
B Sunny and windy
C Cloudy and windy
D Cloudy and hot
37
4. An anemometer is used to measure
A amount of rainfall.
B speed of wind.
C atmospheric pressure.
D temperature.
5. In which of the following diagrams is the rain gauge correctly placed?
6. Which of the following is a source of underground water?
A River
B Lake
C Dam
D Borehole
7. Evaporation takes place when
A steam turns to water.
B water turns to steam.
C water turns to ice.
D ice turns to steam.
8. Which water will a farmer who ploughs be most interested in when it rains?
A Water that runs off the surface of the soil.
B Water that is held around the soil particles.
C Water that runs off to the sea.
D Water that evaporates into the atmosphere.
Mpho heated some water in a container and recorded the temperature every two minutes as
shown below. Heating was stopped after 28 minutes. Use the table to answer questions 9 to
11.
TIME (minutes)
TEMPERATURE
(°C)
0
10
2
12
4
16
6
24
8
30
10
38
12
44
9. How long did it take for the water to heat up to 60 °C?
A 16 minutes
B Between 16 and 18 minutes
C Between 18 and 20 minutes
D 18 minutes
38
14
50
16
58
18
64
20
72
22
80
24
96
26
96
28
96
10. What was the temperature of the water at the beginning and end of heating?
A
B
C
D
Starting temperature
0 °C
10 °C
0 °C
10 °C
End temperature
96 °C
86 °C
100 °C
96 °C
11. Which of the following reasons best explains why the temperature remained 96 °C
between the 24th and 28th minute?
A The burner was not hot enough.
B The water had reached boiling point.
C All the water had evaporated.
D The thermometer was not working.
12. Which of the following organs is used to sense light?
A Skin
B Ear
C Eye
D Tongue
13. At which point in the diagram below would the stick break easily?
14. Which of the following activities will help in conserving soil?
A Burning wood
B Building houses
C Keeping many animals
D Digging terraces
The diagram shows a water system in a village. Use it to answer questions 15 and 16.
15. The water tank is covered to prevent
A the water from being contaminated.
B the water from evaporating.
C people from misusing the water.
D cattle from drinking the water
39
16. The water in the tank is purified by
A distillation.
B filtration.
C chlorination.
D sedimentation.
17. Wheelbarrows, scissors, hammers and spades are all examples of
A gears.
B inclined planes.
C pulleys
D levers.
Study the table below and answer questions 18, 19 and 20.
VERTEBRATE
P
COVERING
OF THE BODY
hair
Q
feathers
TYPES
OF
LIMBS
arms and legs
or four legs
wings and legs
R
scales
legs
S
damp skin
T
thin scales
legs
with
webbed feet
fins
REPRODUCTION
BODY
TEMPERATURE
warm blooded
young are born
alive feed on milk
eggs with hard
shell
eggs, with leathery
shell
eggs laid in water
cold blooded
eggs laid in water
cold blooded
warm blooded
cold blooded
18. Which of the following vertebrate groups have bodies covered with scales?
A P and R
B S and T
C R and T
D P and Q
19. Which of the following vertebrates are represented by the characteristics at P?
A Amphibians
B Reptiles
C Birds
D Mammals
20. A frog is an example of a vertebrate represented by
A T.
B S.
C R.
D P.
21. When a substance is attracted to a magnet, it is said to be
A an insulator.
B magnetic.
C a conductor.
D non-magnetic.
Study the pictures of animals shown below, and answer question 22.
40
22. Which pair of animals shown below feeds on plants?
A III and II
B I and III
C IV and II
D I and II
23. Which of the following can be added to the soil to increase nutrients needed for plant
growth?
A Manure
B Plastic
C Sand
D Water
The diagram below shows parts of a plant. Use it to answer question 24.
24. The name of the part labelled I is
A leaf.
B fruit.
C flower.
D stem.
A class of pupils observed some animals in their environment. They classified them and
invented names for them as shown below. Use it to answer questions 25 and 26.
41
25. What is the name of animal X?
A TANA
B WAWA
C TUNA
D WINA
26. What is the name of animal Y?
A WAWA
B TANA
C TUNA
D WENU
27. Sound is heard when sound vibrations reach the
A eyes.
B nose.
C skin.
D ears.
Bontle grew plants in four different types of soil. She gave the plants the same amount of
water and exposed them to the same amount of sunlight. Row I shows the plants at the
beginning of the experiment and Row II shows the same plants after two weeks.
42
28. Which of the plants is likely to have been grown in loam soil?
AF
BG
CH
DI
29. Which of these shows the correct order of the life-cycle of a flowering plant?
43
The diagram below shows an aquarium.
30. The water weed produces its own food. What is needed for this to take place?
A Movement
B Heat
C Sunlight
D Sound
31. The diagrams below show how plants were grown in a field for three years on the same
plot.
What farming practice is most likely to have been carried out?
A Row planting
B Broadcasting
C Fallowing
D Crop rotation
32. Soil erosion can be prevented by
A ploughing down the slope.
B cutting down of trees.
C over stocking.
D ploughing across the slope.
33. What happens to light as it shines on the mirror as shown in the diagram below?
A
B
C
D
It is reflected.
It is refracted.
It is absorbed.
It is emitted.
44
The table below shows temperatures recorded in the morning and at midday for houses P, Q,
R and S roofed with different material.
House
P with iron roof
Q with clay tiles roof
R with grass roof
S with asbestos roof
Temperature in the morning
15 °C
18 °C
20 °C
18 °C
Temperature at midday
37 °C
28 °C
27 °C
34 °C
34. Which house shows the greatest rise in temperature?
AP
BQ
CR
DS
35. Which one of these instruments uses a string to produce sound?
A A guitar
B A drum
C A trumpet
D A flute
36. What would happen when the north pole of a magnet is brought near the north pole of a
suspended magnet?
A They will attract.
B They will repel.
C Suspended magnet will lie in N-S direction.
D Suspended magnet will be demagnetised.
Dineo set an experiment shown in the diagram below to find substances through which
electricity flows.
37. Which pair of substances would make the bulb light when they are connected between X
and Y?
A Wood and paper
B Rubber and aluminium
C Glass and Plastic
D Iron and copper
38. What would happen when the number of coils is increased in the electromagnet shown
below?
45
A The electromagnet would become weak.
weak.
B The nail would loose its magnetism.
C The electromagnet
electromagnet would become strong.
D The strength of the electromagnet would remain the same.
39. Which of the following connections would make the bulb light?
40. Which of these diseases is caused by lack of cleanliness?
A Scabies
B Syphilis
C Measles
D Malaria
41. Which of the chemicals shown below are dangerous when swallowed?
A II and IV
B III and IV
C I and III
D I and II
42. Who is most likely to be free from a sexually transmitted disease?
A
B
C
D
46
43. Which of the following foods would make a balanced meal?
A Porridge, meat and cabbage
B Samp, bread and porridge
C Meat, eggs, and fish
D Spinach, pumpkin and cabbage
44. Which of the following changes takes place in a boy at puberty?
A He becomes fat.
B His voice deepens.
C His hips grow larger and round.
D He grows hairs in the ears.
The table below shows the causes of death from accidents in the home in one country. Use it
to answer questions 45 and 46.
Cause of Death
Falls
Poisoning
Burns
Drowning
TOTAL
0-4
21
10
57
20
108
Age group in years
5-14
15-64
65-74
6
334
359
8
398
53
26
192
94
3
21
12
43
945
518
TOTAL
75+
2092
56
270
17
2445
2812
525
639
73
4049
45. What was the cause of most deaths?
A Burns
B Poisoning
C Falls
D Drowning
46. What age group had most accidents?
A 0-4 years
B 15-64 years
C 65-74 years
D 75+ years
47. Which of the following methods of birth control can help to prevent pregnancy and spread
of sexually transmitted diseases?
A Using birth control pills
B Using a loop
C Using a cream that kills sperms
D Using condoms
48. Which of the following drugs helps people to get well?
A Vaccine
B Alcohol
C Tobacco
D Medicine
47
The chart below is used to see if one is overweight, underweight or just the right weight. Use
it to answer questions 49 and 50.
49. A person weighs 80 kilograms and is 176 centimetres tall. In which group is this person
in?
AP
BQ
CR
DS
50. In which group is a person most likely NOT eating enough?
AP
BR
CS
DT
51. Smoking in young people may
A slow the growth of the body.
B make them grow taller.
C make them grow fat.
D deform their bones.
The diagram below shows some groups of foods.
W
Carrots
Spinach
Tomatoes
Oranges
Y
Eggs
Beef
Beans
Chicken
X
Sugar
Potatoes
Bread
Rice
Z
Cheese
Butter
Groundnuts
Margarine
48
52. Which foods would you eat for energy?
A W and X
B W and Y
C Z and X
D Z and Y
53. Which one of the following is part of the digestive system?
A Lungs
B Kidney
C Heart
D Small intestine
54. Which one of the following statements about smoking is NOT true?
A It is good for pregnant women.
B People who smoke cannot stop it easily.
C Smoking increases the chances of getting lung cancer.
D Smoking increases the risks of heart attack.
55. Which is the correct statement about the diseases cholera, typhoid and bilharzia?
A They can be prevented by vaccinating in children.
B People suffering from these usually get well after a few weeks.
C They are caused by lack of cleanliness of the body.
D Organisms causing them are spread by water with human waste.
The diagram below shows parts of the breathing system.
56. The part labelled Z is the
A lung.
B rib.
C diaphragm.
D wind-pipe.
Study the diagram of the system shown below.
49
57. The part labelled I is the
A bladder.
B heart.
C kidney.
D ovary.
58. Stagnant water must not be kept near homes because organisms which spread ________
may breed in it.
A tuberculosis
B measles
C malaria
D scabies
59. Who is responsible for proper disposal of waste in towns and villages?
A Health Inspector
B Family Welfare Educator
C Police Officer
D Medical Officer
A group of students set an experiment shown in the diagram below. Each material shown on
the labels was buried in the soil.
60. Which of the materials are going to be decomposed?
A Aluminium can, dead insects, wood, iron
B Paper, plastic, iron, steel can
C Grass, plastic, milk carton, aluminium can
D Grass, dead insects, paper and wood
50
3.1.4. 1993 Primary School Leaving Examination/Science Paper
REPUBLIC OF BOTSWANA
1993 PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
TIME: 60 MINUTES
Directions
1.
2.
3.
4.
Use HB pencil ONLY. DO NOT use ink or ball point.
Print your name on the answer sheet in the space provided.
Fill the oval by BOY if you are a boy or GIRL if you are a girl.
In the four boxes under CENTRE write your centre number.
In the three boxes under STUDENT write your examination number. In the column of
numbers below each box, fill the oval that has the same number that you entered in the
box. Fill the ovals with heavy black marks that fill the oval:
5.
When you are told to begin, work as fast and as accurately as you can. If you cannot
answer a question, do not spend too much time on it; go to the next question and come
back to it later.
You may do rough work on the test paper or on a sheet of blank paper. DO NOT use the
answer sheet for rough work.
Several possible answers are given for each question. Select the answer you think is the
best and fill the oval for that answer on your answer sheet.
Be sure to fill the ovals like this:
6.
7.
8.
Erase completely answers that you wish to change.
Do not make any stray marks on your answer sheet.
If more than one oval is filled for a question it will be marked wrong.
Be sure the oval you fill on your answer sheet is for the question you are working on in
the test paper.
51
DO NOT mark the ovals like this:
9.
If you do, your answers will be marked wrong.
Sample questions are given to help you. Read them carefully before doing the
questions.
Sample Questions
Sample 1
Sample 2
If a drum-skin is tightened its note will
A. increase in pitch.
B. decrease in pitch.
C. sound louder.
D. sound quieter.
SAMPLE 1
A man with a heavy cold finds his food tasteless because
A. the cold germs kill the taste of the food.
B. the cold germs numb the taste buds.
C. his blocked nose cuts out his sense of smell.
D. he has lost his appetite.
SAMPLE 2
DO NOT TURN OVER THE PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
Questions 1 and 2
Mpho was sick for a week. The graph below shows his body temperature recordings.
52
1. What was Mpho's temperature on Monday?
A 37,3 °C
B 37,5 °C
C 37,6 °C
D 38,7 °C
2. On what day was Mpho's temperature 36,6 °C?
A Monday
B Tuesday
C Thursday
D Saturday
3. What type of animal is a snake?
A A mammal
B An amphibian
C A reptile
D A fish
4. The best food for a baby is
A cow's milk.
B goat's milk.
C mother's milk.
D milk powder.
5. Which of these will melt when heated?
A Paper
B Cotton
C Leather
D Plastic
6. To which part of a plant are insects mostly attracted?
A Flower
B Leaf
C Stem
D Root
7. Plants kept in the dark become thin and yellowish because they lack
A air.
B sunlight.
C manure.
D water.
53
Questions 8 and 9
The graph below shows rainfall recordings for some places in Botswana for a day in
January.
8. The place with the least amount of rainfall recorded is
A Lobatse.
B Ghanzi.
C Bokspits.
D Francistown.
9. Which place had more rain than Gaborone?
A Francistown
B Maun
C Mahalapye
D Lobatse
10. Select the diagram that correctly shows the water cycle.
54
11. Which of the following types of soil is the most fertile?
A Clay
B Sand
C Loam
D Gravel
12. The picture below shows part of a wire to be connected to the "live" pin of an electric
three-pin plug.
Which of the following materials can be used to make part Y?
A Rubber
B Plastic
C Copper
D Wood
13. Which organ pumps blood to all parts of the body?
A Brain
B Kidney
C Liver
D Heart
14. The largest cause of death among smokers is
A heart attack.
B tuberculosis.
C lung cancer.
D cancer of the liver.
15. What are infectious diseases? They are diseases which
A can easily be passed on from person to person.
B are caused by a shortage of a particular food.
C cannot be cured.
D only infect young people.
16. The following diagram shows part of a human skeleton.
Which of the following is a function of this part? It protects the
A heart.
B brain.
C heart and lungs.
D brain and lungs.
55
17. The most likely way to get a sexually transmitted disease is by
A sharing toilets used by infected people.
B kissing or touching another person.
C having sexual intercourse with an infected person.
D sharing cups and plates with other people.
18. Which of the following objects changes movement energy to sound energy?
A Lamp
B Battery
C Guitar
D Match stick
Questions 19 and 20
The graph below shows the volume of water used in Botswana from 1980 to 1985.
19. The largest use of water during 1984-85 was in
A BMC.
B industry.
C government.
D homes.
20. How much water was used at BMC in 1980-81?
A 500 000 m3
B 1 000 000 m3
C 1 500 000 m3
D 2 250 000 m3
56
21. Select the diagram that represents a battery.
22. The season that has longer nights and shorter days is
A summer.
B autumn.
C winter.
D spring.
Questions 23 to 27
Choose diseases from the list below to answer questions 23 to 27.
A Bilharzia
B Malaria
C Scabies
D Diarrhoea
23. For which of the diseases above should patients be given an oral rehydration drink?
24. Which of the diseases above is caused by a blood fluke?
25. Which of the diseases above is the commonest among children under 5 years in
Botswana?
26. Which of the diseases above is spread by mosquitoes?
27. Which of the diseases can be prevented by regular washing of the body?
28. If the south pole of a magnet is brought near the north pole of another magnet, the two
magnets will
A remain at rest.
B attract one another.
C repel one another.
D point in the north-south direction.
29. Which of the following substances will dissolve in water?
A Chalk dust
B Sand
C Sugar
D Bread flour
30. Which of the following parts of the body is the hardest?
A Skin
B Hair
C Muscle
D Bone
57
31. Which of the following does not make a healthy mother?
A Having babies every year
B Spacing children
C Having fewer children
D Breast feeding her babies
32. What instrument is used to measure humidity?
A Hygrometer
B Rain gauge
C Speedometer
D Anemometer
33. The purest form of natural water is
A river water.
B pond water.
C well water.
D rain water
34. Which of the following are all agents of soil erosion?
A Water, wind and animals
B Animals, plants and wind
C Wind, water and plants
D Animals, water and plants
35. The part of the human eye through which light passes to the inside is called the
A iris.
B pupil.
C cornea.
D retina.
36. Which of the following forms of energy do we need to cook our food?
A Electrical energy
B Heat energy
C Light energy
D Solar energy
37. Which of the following statements is true about plants?
A All leaves have the same shape.
B Green plants can make their own food without sunlight.
C The stem holds fruits and flowers.
D The root holds plants firmly to the ground.
38. Which of the following statements best describes soil erosion?
A It is the breaking down of rocks to form soil.
B It is the layers that make up the soil.
C It is the removal of mineral salts from the soil.
D It is the removal of topsoil.
39. Which of the following factors does not control the weather?
A Pressure
58
B Week day
C Sun
D Humidity
40. The most likely reason for having windows on two opposite sides of a room is to
A make the house look beautiful.
B allow people to escape if there is a fire.
C allow movement of air for ventilation.
D enable one window to be closed while the other is open.
41. In which of the following conditions will wet clothes dry fastest?
A In moving, hot air
B In moving, damp air
C In still, hot air
D In still, cool air
42. What source of energy does a solar heater use?
A Moonlight
B Sunlight
C Electricity
D Gas
43. Four groups of pupils A, B, C and D collected some small animals and classified
them as follows:
Group
A
B
C
D
Body parts
3
2
2
3
Jointed legs
6
6
8
8
Wings
1 or 2 pairs
1 pair
0
2 pairs
One of the animals collected was a spider. Which group could have collected the spider?
44. Maize, cooking oil, honey, sugar and butter are all good examples of
A energy-giving foods.
B foods dangerous to health.
C protective foods.
D body-building foods.
45. The diagram below shows a soil profile.
What is layer 3?
59
A Topsoil
B Subsoil
C Parent rock
D Sandy soil
46. Which of the following is used for preventing disease?
A Nicotine
B Aspirin
C Alcohol
D Vaccine
47. What does the road sign shown below mean?
A Road crossing with another.
B For pedestrian crossing.
C One-way road.
D No entry.
48. In which direction does a compass needle point?
A North
B South
C East
D West
49. The diagram below shows a lever.
Which of the parts labelled A, B, C or D is the pivot?
50. What do plants get from humus?
A Mineral salts
B Chlorophyll
C Oxygen
D Water
51. Tebogo added water to soil in a tin. She observed bubbles coming out. This is because
A soil breathes air.
60
B water has air.
C soil has air.
D bacteria in the soil produce air.
52. Which of the following statements about AIDS is false?
A AIDS affects men, women and children.
B A person with AIDS can look perfectly healthy.
C AIDS is spread through shaking hands.
D AIDS is caused by a virus.
53. Badiri wanted to make a square using four bar magnets as shown in the diagram
below.
What should pole Y be for him to succeed?
A North
B South
C West
D Neutral
Questions 54 and 55
The diagram below shows how infections can be spread because of poor hygiene.
54. Which of the following paths of infection is NOT represented in the diagram?
A Faeces ⇒ soil ⇒ food ⇒ mouth
B Faeces ⇒ skin ⇒ mouth
C Faeces ⇒ flies ⇒ food ⇒ mouth
D Faeces ⇒ water ⇒ mouth
61
55. Which of the following diseases is likely to be spread by the water?
A Polio
B Measles
C Cholera
D Whooping cough
56. Which of the following is NOT looked after by the Council Health Services?
A Planting vegetables
B Food hygiene
C Preventing spread of disease
D Rubbish disposal
57. Which of the following will cause physical weathering of rocks?
A Water, temperature change and oxygen
B Water, wind and oxygen
C Wind, temperature change and oxygen
D Water, temperature change and wind
58. A student set up the following circuit and observed that the bulb lit normally. He connected
a mystery box, W, to the circuit and observed that the bulb lit more brightly.
What does the mystery box contain?
A another bulb
B a piece of wire
C another cell
D a strip of plastic
59. How does heat travel from the sun to the earth?
A Radiation
B Reflection
C Convection
D Conduction
60. The diagram below shows toothed gear wheels connected by a chain.
62
If gear I is turned clockwise, gear II will turn
A clockwise.
B anticlockwise.
C sideways.
D upwards.
3.2. Kenya
3.2.1. Overview
End of Primary School Examination
1, Title of examination:
Kenya Certificate
(KCPE)
of
Primary
Education
2. Amount of fees charged:
≈ US$ 4.5
3. Examination after years in primary
school (6, 7, 8 years):
8 yrs
4. Children's entry age in primary school:
6 yrs
5. Number of pupils sitting examination in
1994:
395,765
6. Examination subjects offered:
14 subjects, 7 compulsory papers:
• English
• Kiswahili
• Mathematics
• Science & Agriculture
• Art & Craft, Music
• Business Education & Home Economics
• GHC (Geography, History, Civics), Religious
Education (Christian or Islamic or Hindu)
7. Language of examination:
English (except for Kiswahili paper)
8. Institution setting the examination
questions:
Kenya National Examinations Council
9. Have there been any reforms in the
examination questions?
Yes
When? (year)
1985
What kind?
There was a shift from simple recall questions
to higher-order questions.
10. Stages of development of examination
questions (please describe):
• Invitation of setters
• Setting of questions
• Pre-moderation of questions
• Final moderation
63
11. Type of examination questions and
distribution of different kind of questions.
All are multiple-choice questions with:
26% recall questions
33% comprehension
24% application
17% higher abilities
12.
Is
continuous
assessment
incorporated in the final examination?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
13. Are examination items pretested?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
The set KCPE papers are not pretested
because of technical problems (inadequate
time, costs involved, security).
14. Which professional groups are
involved in setting the examination
questions?
• Primary school teachers
• Tutors of TTCs
• Examination Officers
15. Are the same professionals who set
the examination questions involved in
marking papers?
Yes [x]
No [ ]
16. How are examination results used for
improving teaching in primary schools?
Primary school teachers change their
teaching strategies to improve performance in
examination.
• Selection
• Certification
17. To what other uses
examination results put?
are
the
18. Main problem with Primary School
Leaving Examinations?
Assessment of practical skills
3.2.2. Writing of Test Items for the Primary School Leaving Examination in Kenya
by Philip M. Kitui, Kenya National Examinations Council
Background
The primary education course in Kenya takes eight years. The Kenya Certificate of Primary
Education examination was administered for the first time in November 1985 by the Council to
primary school leavers who had completed the first cycle of the 8.4.4. Education System. The
examination consists of seven compulsory papers and tests each of the pupils in 14 subjects
namely, English, Kiswahili, Mathematics, Science, Agriculture, History, Civics, Geography,
Music, Craft, Home Science, Art, Business Education and either Christian Religious
Education, Islamic Religious Education or Hindu Religious Education. Over the last years
about 400,000 candidates took the examination annually.
Objectives of the KCPE Examination
The objectives of the KCPE examination are:
1) To rank candidates according to their achievement in all the subjects offered in the
examination. This ranking facilitates fair selection for further education.
2) To award certificates to persons who have completed primary education. Every
candidate who sits the KCPE examination is awarded a certificate in which his/her
attainment in each of the subjects he/she sat is indicated by means of a letter grade and a
standard score.
64
3) To generate data on candidates' performance that can be used in the evaluation of the
curriculum and effectiveness of instruction in the primary schools. For the KCPE
examination to facilitate a fair allocation of the limited opportunities for further education
and training to over 400,000 candidates, it has to be objective. Thus it must satisfy the
psychometric criteria for a good test, namely: validity, reliability and efficiency.
Administration of the test should also be cost-effective. Hence the Kenya National
Examinations Council uses objective items of the multiple-choice type for most of the
papers. Each item has four options, one of which is the key. In addition to an objective
paper, each of the two language subjects, English and Kiswahili, is tested by means of a
composition.
For the practical subjects like Science, Agriculture and Home Science, questions testing
practical skills are part of the written test.
However, there is a school-based practical assessment of these subjects and other subjects
of the school curriculum conducted by the Ministry of Education for the purpose of awarding
specially revamped primary school leaving certificates. School-based assessment was started
in 1984 as a Government policy. This approach is superior and has the support of modern
thinking on certification. The modern approach is dichotomous, the examination certificate
being supported by a profile from the school. In our case, the school leaving certificate is a
basis for this approach and needs to be strengthened.
The KCPE examination papers for each subject are based on national syllabi developed by
the Kenya Institute of Education. These, syllabi specify both the objectives of the learning
activities and the content and skills to be learned. In so doing, they set the levels of
competence expected of a learner who completes the course in any subject.
Development of the KCPE Examination Papers
For each of the subjects it examines, the Kenya National Examinations Council has employed
a tests and measurement specialist who is also an expert in the subject. This person not only
plans the work and schedules necessary for the development of tests but also provides
guidance in the area of tests and measurements to contracted professional people appointed
by the Council to perform the functions of setters and moderators. The development of a test
paper for the KCPE examination is carried out through the following stages:
Stage 1: The Council identifies and appoints six professional educators as setters for the
paper. For each subject, persons identified must
(1) have had practical experience in either teaching at the primary school level or in the
development of the primary school curriculum for the subject;
(2) be trained teachers who are competent in the subject;
(3) be men and women of proven integrity;
(4) be conversant with the technicalities of writing multiple-choice test items;
(5) not be preparing candidates for the KCPE examination.
Stage 2: The subject specialist and the setters prepare a table of specifications for the test.
The specifications are the blueprint for the test. They show the syllabus content and cognitive
skills to be tested, the number of questions for each type of content and cognitive skill.
Drawing up this table enables the setters to identify a representative sample of content for the
test as well as spread the skills to be tested so that the test as a whole can discriminate
effectively between candidates of different levels of achievement.
Stage 3: The setters divide up the work of writing test items on various units of content and
skills. The council tests and measurement specialist goes over the expected qualities of test
items and reminds the setters of the precautions they must take to safeguard security of the
65
drafts they will work on. In the course of writing items, the setters meet to discuss the items
they have come up with. During the discussions poor items are discarded and shredded while
advice is given on items that must be improved upon. In the end, the setters put together a
draft question paper which they submit to the Council through the tests and measurement
specialist. The draft is then kept in a secure place to await moderation.
Stage 4: Moderation of the draft test items is done by a group of 10 experts. They include the
six setters and four other experts identified on the basis of the criteria used for identifying the
setters. The moderation meeting is chaired by a senior tests and measurement specialist. It
may take two to five full working days depending on the quality of items produced by the team
of setters. During the period of moderation, some of the questions may be replaced while
others will be re-worded.
Stage 5: The tests and measurement specialist, who is also secretary to the moderation
committee for the subject, writes a neat draft of the paper and ensures that all the necessary
diagrams, graphs and pictures are drawn in their final form and labelled correctly. The
specialist proofreads the paper as it is typeset and printed and advises on necessary
corrections. For the English Composition and Kiswahili Insha papers only one setter is
commissioned for the setting. The team of moderators for each of these two papers goes over
the drafts with as much thoroughness as for papers consisting of multiple-choice questions.
However, they take less time on their work because they moderate only one
composition/Insha.
The skills required for writing test items can only be acquired through intensive practical
training. The item writer needs to be familiar with the types and varieties of test items and with
their possibilities and limitations. The Kenya National Examination Council mounts itemwriters' workshops regularly to train item writers for its examinations. This is a practice that
should be encouraged and supported financially by national examining boards, and local and
international organisations. The financial support should incorporate training-of-trainers at
such internationally recognized testing centres as the Educational Testing Service of the
United States of America and the local Examinations Syndicate of the United Kingdom.
3.2.3. KCPE 1994/Science and Agriculture Paper
THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL
KCPE 1994
SCIENCE AND AGRICULTURE
Time: 2 hours
READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. You have been given this question booklet and a separate answer sheet. The question
booklet contains 60 questions.
2. Do any necessary rough work in this booklet.
3. When you have chosen your answer, mark it on the ANSWER SHEET, not in this question
booklet.
HOW TO USE THE ANSWER SHEET
4. Use only an ordinary pencil.
5. Make sure that you have written on the answer sheet:
YOUR INDEX NUMBER
66
YOUR NAME
NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL
6. By shading the correct numbered ellipses (small oval shapes) mark your full Index Number
(i.e. School Code Number and three-figure Candidate's Number) in the grid near the top of
the answer sheet.
7. Do not make any marks outside the ellipses.
8. Keep the sheet as clean as possible and DO NOT FOLD IT.
9. For each of the questions 1-60 four answers are given. The answers are lettered A, B, C,
D. In each case only ONE of the answers is correct. Choose the correct answer.
10. On the answer sheet, show the correct answer by shading the ellipse in which the letter
chosen is written.
Example
In the Question Booklet:
16. The pressure exerted by a liquid depends on its
A. volume
B. depth
C. surface area
D. mass.
The correct answer is 'B'.
On the Answer Sheet:
16
17
18
19
20
In the set of ellipses numbered 16, the ellipse with B in it is shaded.
11. Your shading MUST be within the ellipse. Make your shading as DARK as possible.
12. For each question ONLY ONE ellipse is to be shaded in each set of four ellipses.
4007
This Question Paper consists of 8 printed pages.
© The Kenya National Examinations Council, 1994.
TURN OVER
SCIENCE
1. A charcoal burner was used to boil water and the steam produced was used to turn a
turbine.
Which one of the following shows the correct order of the energy changes that took place
from the time the charcoal was lit to the time the turbine turned?
A. Chemical heat mechanical.
B. Heat chemical mechanical.
C. Chemical mechanical heat.
D. Heat mechanical chemical.
67
2. The diagram below represents a solar heater.
Which of the following would make the water heat up faster?
A. Painting the pipe black and the inside of the metal box white.
B. Painting the glass cover white and the inside of the metal box black.
C. Painting the pipe black and reducing the number of coils.
D. Painting both the pipe and the inside of the metal box black.
3. The purpose of a fuse in a circuit is to
A. break the circuit when necessary
B. reduce the current
C. switch the current on and off
D. complete the circuit.
4. Which one of the following mixtures can be separated by decanting?
A. Sand and water.
B. Sand and sugar.
C. Salt and water.
D. Salt and iron filings.
5. Which one of the following is NOT a correct method of determining whether a piece of
metal is a magnet or not?
A. Repulsion between the metal and a magnet.
B. Attraction between the metal and a magnet.
C. Attraction between the metal and a pin.
D. Suspending the piece of metal in air to observe the direction it points to.
6. Standard seven pupils carried out an investigation on mixing liquids. They used four liquids
P, Q, R and S and made the following observations:
Liquid P mixed with liquid Q
Liquid P mixed with liquid R
Liquid Q mixed with liquid R
Liquids P, Q, R did not mix with liquid S.
They then poured all the four liquids into a transparent bottle and shook the bottle.
The number of layers that were formed is
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four.
68
7. Which one of the following gases makes approximately one fifth of air by volume?
A. Nitrogen.
B. Carbon dioxide.
C. Oxygen.
D. Water vapour.
8. A drinking glass was inverted over water in a basin and pushed down as shown in the
diagram below.
Water did not enter the glass because
A. air occupies space
B. water is denser than air
C. the glass is upside down
D. water cannot move upwards.
9. The correct unit for expressing density is
A. g
B. g/cm
C. g/cm2
D. g/cm3.
10. A boat sinks deeper in a fresh water lake than in sea water. This happens because sea
water differs from lake water in
A. mass
B. volume
C. density
D. weight.
11. A section through a bean seed is shown in the diagram below.
The part labelled Q is the
A. hilum
B. plumule
C. radicle
D. cotyledon.
69
12. Which one of the following diagrams represents the beak of a flesh eating bird?
13. Which one of the following parts of a flower is correctly matched with its function?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Part
Stigma
Petals
Anther
Style
Function
Produces pollen grains.
Attract insects.
Receives pollen grains.
Holds the anther.
14. Use the information below to answer the question that follows.
Frogs eat grasshoppers.
Grasshoppers eat grass.
Snakes eat frogs.
From this information, which one of the following is the correct food chain?
A. Frogs ⇒ grasshoppers ⇒ grass ⇒ snakes.
B. Snakes ⇒ frogs ⇒ grasshoppers ⇒ grass.
C. Grass ⇒ grasshoppers ⇒ frogs ⇒ snakes.
D. Grass ⇒ grasshoppers ⇒ snakes ⇒ frogs.
15. Which one of the following seeds is NOT correctly matched with its agent of dispersal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Seed
Pawpaw
Coconut
Black jack
Castor
Agent
Animal.
Water.
Animal.
Wind.
16. Which one of the following parts of an insectivorous plant is adapted for trapping insects?
A. Flower.
B. Leaf.
C. Stem.
D. Fruit.
17. The correct life cycle of a mosquito is
A. adult larva pupa egg
B. egg pupa larva adult
C. adult pupa larva egg
D. egg larva pupa adult.
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18. The thick layer of fat under the skin of a whale is for
A. keeping the skin of the whale oily
B. making the whale heavier
C. keeping the body of the whale warm
D. making the whale float in water.
19. Mary cut four pieces from a yam whose shapes are as shown in the diagrams below.
She then held each piece by the top and pushed it downwards in a jar containing water.
Which one of the pieces would Mary find easier to push down?
A. K.
B. L.
C. M.
D. N.
20. The diagram below represents a simple machine.
Which one of the following simple machines is of the same type as the one shown in the
diagram?
A. Gear wheel.
B. Crow bar.
C. Winch.
D. Inclined plane.
21. In which of the following pairs do both machines have the fulcrum between the load and
the effort?
A. Bottle opener, wheel barrow.
B. Seesaw, pliers.
C. Hammer, nut cracker.
D. Pair of scissors, fishing rod.
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22. Two identical containers P and Q containing water were balanced on a beam. The set up
is as shown in the diagram below.
Which one of the following statements about the set up is CORRECT?
A. Container P contains as much water as Q.
B. Container P contains a quarter as much water as Q
C. Container P contains half as much water as Q.
D. Container Q contains half as much water as P.
23. The diagram below represents a simple machine that can be used to raise water from a
well.
Which one of the following is the effort distance?
A. PQ.
B. QR.
C. RS.
D. ST.
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24. An experiment was set up as shown in the diagrams below.
The experiment was to investigate
A. water retention by different types of soil
B. capillarity in different types of soil
C. amount of air in different types of soil
D. amount of humus in different types of soil.
25. The set-ups shown in the diagram below were used to investigate how water moves up in
different types of soil.
Which one of the following need NOT be the same in both set-ups?
A. Size of containers.
B. Size of glass tubes.
C. Amount of cotton wool in each glass tube.
D. Amount of soil in each glass tube.
26. When the arrow of a wind vane points to the east, the wind must be blowing from
A. South to North
B. West to East
C. North to South
D. East to West.
27. The rotation of the earth on its axis causes
A. day and night
B. phases of the moon
C. high and low tides
D. seasons.
28. Which one of the following materials DOES NOT pollute the environment?
A. Sawdust.
B. Broken pieces of glass.
C. Plastic paper bags.
D. Metal cans.
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29. Cancer of the lungs may be caused by excessive
A. chewing of khat (miraa)
B. sniffing of glue
C. smoking of cigarettes
D. drinking of beer.
30. Which one of the following drugs is NOT extracted from plants?
A. Bhang.
B. Mandrax.
C. Cocaine.
D. Heroin.
AGRICULTURE
31. Why is it recommended to transplant seedlings late in the afternoon?
A. To give a farmer time to prepare the field in the morning.
B. To avoid withering of seedlings due to strong heat.
C. To ensure that the ground is warm enough for the seedlings.
D. To allow the farmer to work when the day is cool.
32. During a visit to a local farm, Standard VII pupils found one cow lying down and unable to
rise up. The cow died later. What would have been the best way of disposing of the dead
cow?
A. Throwing it away from the farm.
B. Selling it to a local butcher.
C. Skinning it and boiling the meat for pets.
D. Burying it deep in the ground.
33. Which one of the following is the correct tool for pruning small coffee branches?
A. Handsaw.
B. Sickle.
C. Secateurs.
D. Hacksaw.
34. The purpose of placing litter on the floor of a brooder is to
A. make the floor comfortable
B. keep the floor clean
C. keep the floor dry
D. keep the floor free from pests.
35. Which one of the following practices is carried out in order to produce clean eggs in a
deep litter system of poultry rearing?
A. Supplying green vegetable matter to the layers.
B. Providing oyster shells to the layers.
C. Giving a balanced diet to the layers.
D. Collecting the eggs frequently.
36. Why is it necessary to reduce green vegetable material feeds and to increase grains in
the diet of rabbits during the last month before marketing?
A. To fatten the rabbits.
B. To reduce the cost of feeding.
C. To improve the food intake.
D. To maintain the weight of rabbits.
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37. Why is it advisable to reduce watering and to remove overhead shade gradually from a
nursery one week before transplanting seedlings?
A. To allow seedlings to form the green colour.
B. To control pests in the nursery.
C. To control diseases in the nursery.
D. To make seedlings get used to the field conditions.
38. A farmer wishes to borrow a loan from the Agricultural Finance Corporation to improve his
farm. Which one of the following would be required by the Agricultural Finance Corporation
before the loan is processed?
A. Security offered by the farmer.
B. Records of the farmer's educational background.
C. Market for the farm produce.
D. Map showing the layout of the farm.
39. Which one of the following is an advantage of zero-grazing?
A. It requires less skill to manage.
B. There is less feed wastage.
C. It is cheap to start.
D. It requires less labour.
40. To discourage bees from abandoning a bee hive during a dry season, it is necessary to
A. shift the bee hive close to a water point
B. move the bee hive to a sheltered place
C. provide a sugar solution close to the bee hive
D. leave the bee hive undisturbed.
41. Before handling newly born rabbits, it is advisable to rub the doe's bedding materials on
the hands to avoid
A. the likelihood of introducing infection to the newly born rabbits
B. the likelihood of rejection of newly born rabbits by the doe
C. disturbing and making the doe aggressive
D. interference with the growth of the newly born rabbits.
42. Which one of the following is used as the planting material by farmers in sugar cane
production?
A. Cuttings.
B. Splits.
C. Suckers.
D. Seeds.
43. Why is it necessary for farmers to leave strips of unploughed land between ploughed
portions during seedbed preparation?
A. To keep crop remains after harvesting.
B. To provide grass for grazing.
C. To control insect pests.
D. To control soil erosion.
44. A farmer kept 200 layers from which she collected 165 eggs one day and 155 eggs the
following day. Calculate the laying percentage of the layers for the two days.
A. 37.5%
B. 50.0%
C. 60.0%
D. 80.0%
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45. Which one of the following crop pests is correctly matched with the part of crop that the
pests damage?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pests
Weevils
Aphids
Armyworms
Cutworms
Part of crop
Stem
Root
Leaves
Flowers
46. The following list shows records for Soy farm as at 31st December, 1993.
Cash in bank
Loan from AFC
Value of cattle on the farm
Value of buildings on the farm
Money to be paid to KGGCU
Value of farm land
Sh. 5,000
Sh. 45,000
Sh. 78,000
Sh. 210,000
Sh. 15,000
Sh. 350,000
Calculate the value of the assets of Soy farm.
A. Sh. 643,000
B. Sh. 763,000
C. Sh. 778,000
D. Sh. 823,000.
47. After finishing school Robi was given a piece of land by her father for which she acquired
a title deed. She grows tomatoes and kales on the land. What kind of land ownership is this?
A. Owner operator.
B. Tenancy.
C. Landlordism.
D. Communal ownership.
48. Small scale dairy farmers in Mwambao location are finding it difficult to sell their milk, to
acquire cattle feeds and to manage their cattle. Which one of the following actions is the most
appropriate for the farmers to take?
A. Attend adult education classes.
B. Form a co-operative society.
C. Sell milk at the local market.
D. Buy a lorry for milk transportation.
49. Which one of the following practices would be most suitable for improving soil fertility on a
flat farm land?
A. Application of manures.
B. Controlling soil erosion.
C. Application of mulch.
D. Draining away excess water.
50. Below is an illustration of a tree seedling with a structure around it.
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The reason for erecting such a structure around a seedling is to
A. provide shade from strong sunlight
B. make the seedling grow upright
C. protect the seedling from attack by animals
D. protect the seedling from strong wind.
51. The diagram below represents a wooden chicken feed trough.
What is the use of the rotating bar?
A. To prevent chickens from competing for the feed.
B. To prevent chickens from perching on the trough.
C. To provide a resting place for chickens after feeding.
D. To divide the trough into two feeding sides.
52. Standard V pupils collected different types of soils from their home areas for experiments.
One of the soil samples was found to have the following characteristics:
(i) has very fine soil particles
(ii) retains more water than all the others
(iii) makes thinner and longer ribbons than all the others
Which one of the following types of soils has the characteristics listed above?
A. Clay soil.
B. Loam soil.
C. Sandy soil.
D. Sandy loam.
53. Which one of the following should a calf be fed on during the first three days of its life?
A. Calf pellets.
B. Dairy meal.
C. Whole milk.
D. Colostrum.
54. 4-K Club pupils made nursery beds that were 150 cm wide. Their teacher advised them to
reduce the widths to 100 cm. Why was it advisable to reduce the widths of the nursery beds?
A. To keep the cost of watering low.
B. To enable pupils to work without stepping on the beds.
C. To be able to make many nursery beds in an area.
D. To be able to produce healthy seedlings.
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55. A farmer kept maize in a raised, well ventilated and properly roofed store. Later she found
the maize rotting. What was the most likely cause for the rotting?
A. Damage to the maize by pests.
B. Wet weather conditions.
C. High moisture content of maize.
D. High temperature in the store.
56. In which type of record should a farmer enter the details of the quantity of farm produce
sold and the amount of money obtained from the sale?
A. Production records.
B. Field operation records.
C. Inventory records.
D. Marketing records.
57. A livestock officer went to a farm to examine a sick cow. In which structure should the cow
be put during examination?
A. A pen.
B. A shed.
C. A crush.
D. A hutch.
58. Which one of the following tools requires sharpening as a maintenance practice?
A. Trowel.
B. Chisel.
C. Hacksaw.
D. Fork jembe.
59. Which one of the following is a symptom of coccidiosis in livestock?
A. Blood stained diarrhoea.
B. Swollen lymph glands.
C. Wounds in the mouth.
D. Difficulty in breathing.
60. A local agricultural extension officer advised a farmer to include a legume crop in her crop
rotation system. The main reason for including a legume is to
A. provide feed for livestock
B. improve the soil structure
C. increase nitrogen content in the soil
D. provide cover for the soil.
78
3.2.4. KCPE 1993/Science and Agriculture Paper
THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL
KCPE 1993
SCIENCE AND AGRICULTURE
Time: 2 hours
READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. You have been given this question booklet and a separate answer sheet. The question
booklet contains 60 questions.
2. Do any necessary rough work in this booklet.
3. When you have chosen your answer, mark it on the ANSWER SHEET, not in this question
booklet.
HOW TO USE THE ANSWER SHEET
4. Use only an ordinary pencil.
5. Make sure that you have written on the answer sheet:
YOUR INDEX NUMBER
YOUR NAME
NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL
6. By shading the correct numbered ellipses (small oval shapes) mark your full Index Number
(i.e. School Code Number and three-figure Candidate's Number) in the grid near the top of
the answer sheet.
7. Do not make any marks outside the ellipses.
8. Keep the sheet as clean as possible and DO NOT FOLD IT.
9. For each of the questions 1-60 four answers are given. The answers are lettered A, B, C,
D. In each case only ONE of the answers is correct. Choose the correct answer.
10. On the answer sheet, show the correct answer by shading the ellipse in which the letter
chosen is written.
Example
In the Question Booklet:
46. Which one of the following services is provided by the Kenya Grain Growers Cooperative Union?
A. Provides employment to farmers.
B. Sells inputs to farmers.
C. Organises agricultural shows.
D. Banks money for farmers.
The correct answer is 'B'.
79
On the Answer Sheet:
45
46
47
48
49
In the set of ellipses numbered 46, the ellipse with B in it is shaded.
11. Your shading MUST be within the ellipse. Make your shading as DARK as possible.
12. For each question, ONLY ONE ellipse is to be shaded in each set of four ellipses.
3007
This Question Paper consists of 9 printed pages and 3 blank pages.
© The Kenya National Examinations Council, 1993.
TURN OVER
SCIENCE
1. The pressure exerted by a liquid depends on its
A. volume
B. mass
C. depth
D. surface area.
2. A small porous bag containing wet iron nails was fixed onto the bottom of a glass container.
The glass container was then inverted over water in a basin as shown in the diagram below.
Which one of the following is most likely to happen if the set up is left for a few days?
A. Level of water in the basin will rise.
B. Level of water in the glass container will rise.
C. Weight of the iron nails will decrease.
D. Air bubbles will escape from the glass through the water.
3. The shape of a rubber sheet which was tied round the mouth of a bottle appeared as
shown in diagram I. After immersing the bottle in cold water, the shape of the rubber sheet
appeared as in diagram II.
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The shape of the rubber sheet changed because
A. the rubber sheet absorbed air
B. air in the bottle expanded
C. air escaped through the rubber sheet
D. pressure in the bottle decreased.
4. Four groups of pupils P, Q, R and S wanted to compare rates of evaporation of different
liquids. The materials set up by each group were as follows:
P Identical containers with different amounts of liquids.
Q Identical containers with equal amounts of liquids.
R Different sizes of containers with equal amounts of liquids.
S Different sizes of containers with different amounts of liquids.
Which one of the groups of pupils set up the materials CORRECTLY?
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S
5. Two mirrors were placed as shown in the diagram below.
If an object is placed at point X, which one of the following would be TRUE?
A. Many images will be formed.
B. The image formed will be smaller than the object.
C. Only one image will be formed.
D. The image formed will be upside down.
6. A kerosene stove was used to boil water to produce steam for turning a model turbine.
Which one of the following shows the correct order of energy changes that took place?
A. Heat chemical mechanical.
B. Chemical heat mechanical.
C. Chemical mechanical heat.
D. Heat mechanical chemical.
7. The diagram below represents a flower opened to show inner parts.
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The part marked X is the
A. stamen
B. filament
C. stigma
D. style.
8. A section through a maize grain is shown in the diagram below.
The part marked P is the
A. radicle
B. hilum
C. cotyledon
D. plumule.
9. Which one of the following animals is CORRECTLY MATCHED with its adaptation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Animal
Hawk
Frog
Praying mantis
Ant-bear
Adaptation
Long beak.
Scales.
Colour.
Teeth.
10. The chart below shows a simple classification of vertebrates.
82
Which one of the following groups of vertebrates does W represent?
A. Reptiles.
B. Amphibians.
C. Fish.
D. Birds.
11. Which one of the following is a function of the pancreas? It
A. absorbs digested food.
B. produces digestive juice.
C. absorbs water.
D. stores digested food.
12. A pupil classified some animals as shown in the chart below:
Which of the folowing animals was NOT classified correctly?
A. Housefly.
B. Spider.
C. Chameleon.
D. Lizard.
13. When the heart of a mammal contracts, blood in the left ventricle is forced out
A. through the aorta
B. through the pulmonary artery
C. through the pulmonary vein
D. into the left auricle.
14. A fruit of a certain plant is shown in the diagram below.
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The fruit is mainly dispersed by
A. wind
B. animals
C. explosive mechanism
D. water.
15. Kijita dipped a ruler in water in a glass container.
Which of the following diagrams shows how the ruler appeared when viewed from the side of
the glass?
16. Which one of the following properties of soil does NOT depend on the size of its particles?
A. Colour.
B. Water retention.
C. Drainage.
D. Texture.
17. Equal amounts of different types of soils J, K, L and M were put into four identical glass
containers. Equal volumes of water were then added to each container. After all the air had
escaped from the soil in each container, the levels of water in the containers were as shown
in the diagrams below.
84
Which one of the following conclusions about the soils is correct?
A. Soil L had more air spaces between its particles than soil K.
B. Soil M had the most air spaces between its particles.
C. Soil K had less air spaces between its particles than soil M.
D. Soil J had the least air spaces between its particles.
18. The chart below shows a record of weather made by pupils in Standard Five for a week.
Which one of the following statements about the weather chart above is correct?
A. It only rained after strong winds blew earlier in the day.
B. It was cloudy in all the afternoons.
C. It was sunny everyday in the morning and windy everyday in the afternoon.
D. Strong winds blew in the mornings on more days than in the evenings.
19. As Katinda was walking from home to school early in the morning, she saw her shadow
on her right hand side and the school directly ahead of her.
In which direction was the school from where she was?
A. East.
B. West.
C. North.
D. South.
20. Amina was instructed by the doctor to lake two teaspoonfuls of some medicine after every
six hours for five days. She forgot the instructions and look four teaspoonfuls of the medicine
at once. After realising her mistake, Amina should have
A. sought immediate advice from a doctor
B. taken the medicine only after the next twelve hours
C. drunk plenty of water to dilute the medicine
D. continued taking the medicine correctly as instructed.
85
21. Cirrhosis is a disease of the liver which is commonly caused by excessive
A. drinking of beer
B. smoking of tobacco
C. chewing of miraa
D. inhaling of cobbler's glue.
22. Movable and fixed pulley arrangements shown in the diagram below were used
separately to lift a load by a distance of one metre.
Which one of the following shows the correct distances moved by the effort in each case?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed pulley
1m
2m
1m
2m
Movable pulley
1 m.
1 m.
2 m.
2 m.
23. Which one of the following practices does NOT pollute the environment?
A. Spilling used oil in a forest away from homes.
B. Spraying some oil in a lake to kill mosquito lavae.
C. Dumping vegetable remains in a farm near homes.
D. Dumping factory wastes into a river that flows into the sea.
24. The chart below shows a feeding relationship in a certain habitat.
Grass ⇒ Insects ⇒ Lizards ⇒ Snakes.
Note: The arrow points to the eater.
If a disease killed all the lizards, which one of the following would be the immediate effect?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Grass
Decrease
Increase
Decrease
Increase
Insects
increase
increase
decrease
decrease
Snakes
decrease.
decrease.
decrease.
decrease.
86
25. The diagram below shows a loaded wheelbarrow being pushed.
Which one of the following represents the effort distance?
A. QS.
B. PS.
C. QR.
D. PR.
26. Juma sat on the seesaw at point P while John sat at point Q. The seesaw tilted lifting
John up.
Which one of the following should John do in order to balance with Juma?
A. Move nearer the fulcrum.
B. Remain at Q and press the seesaw downwards.
C. Move the fulcrum closer to himself.
D. Move further away from the fulcrum.
27. In which one of the following activities does a man need to reduce friction?
A. Walking downhill.
B. Writing on a piece of paper.
C. Sliding a carton of milk across a table.
D. Picking bottles from a crate.
28. A transparent plastic container was filled with water. Two small holes were then made,
one on the lid and the other at the bottom. It was noticed that when both holes were open,
water flowed out through the bottom hole. When the top hole was closed, the flow of water
stopped. The flow of water stopped because
A. water in the container is denser than air
B. pressure in water is greatest at the bottom
C. air pressure in the container increased
D. pressure exerted by the water is equal to the air pressure at the bottom hole.
29. A little amount of water in a tin can was heated and the water allowed to boil for
sometime. The tin was closed firmly and cold water poured on it. The can collapsed suddenly.
This happened because
A. pressure outside the tin can increased
B. pressure inside the tin can increased
C. the contraction of tin can was sudden
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D. pressure inside the tin can decreased.
30. A small piece of glass was cut off from a large shee of glass. Which one of the following
properties o glass does NOT change after the cutting?
A. Mass.
B. Weight.
C. Volume.
D. Density.
AGRICULTURE
31. Which one of the following sheep breeds is kept for wool production?
A. Maasai.
B. Merino.
C. Blackhead Persian.
D. Dorper.
32. Which one of the following sets of characteristics apply to a dairy cow?
A. Early maturity and block shaped body.
B. Thick neck and high fertility.
C. Short legs and strong back.
D. Well developed udder and wedge shaped body.
33. Which one of the following parasites CANNOT be controlled by rotational grazing?
A. Ticks.
B. Tapeworms.
C. Tsetse flies.
D. Liver flukes.
34. A farmer noticed that one of his cows was eating objects such as clothes and soil.
What action should the farmer take to correct this behaviour?
A. Give the cow more feed.
B. Give the cow feed rich in proteins.
C. Separate the cow from others.
D. Give the cow mineral salts.
35. The diseases below attack the animals shown against them.
Disease
Anthrax
Foot and mouth
Nagana
Coccidiosis
Animals attacked
cattle, sheep, goats
pigs, sheep, cattle, goats
camels, pigs, sheep, goats, cattle
chickens, rabbits, sheep.
Which of the following animals are attacked by all of the above diseases?
A. Cattle.
B. Goats.
C. Sheep.
D. Pigs.
36. Which one of the following characteristics can be used to identify a hen that has stopped
laying when culling poultry?
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A. Bright and alert eyes.
B. Large and warm comb.
C. Large and moist vent.
D. Dry comb and hard abdomen.
37. The reason for smearing grease on wires that suspend Kenya Top-bar hive is to prevent
A. ants from reaching the hive
B. the wire from rusting
C. rats from reaching the hive
D. birds from resting on the wire.
38. A farmer built a house for his chickens to stay in at night and provided watering points for
the chickens in the farm.
What system of poultry rearing was the farmer practising?
A. Free range.
B. Deep litter.
C. Battery cage.
D. Fold.
39. Which one of the following statements describes the term mixed farming?
A. Growing cereal and leguminous crops together.
B. Rearing livestock and growing crops on the same farm.
C. Rearing livestock and keeping poultry on the same farm.
D. Growing vegetables and cash crops together.
40. How do plants help to control soil erosion?
A. By their leaves preventing rain water from reaching the ground.
B. By their roots holding the soil particles together firmly.
C. By their leaves preventing sun's heat from reaching the soil.
D. By preventing moving water from passing between them.
41. What is the purpose of constructing a shade over seedlings in a nursery bed?
A. To conserve soil moisture.
B. To make seedlings grow taller.
C. To improve soil fertility.
D. To prevent rain water from reaching the seedlings.
42. The sketch map given below represents a school farm.
Calculate the area of the plot planted with beans in hectares.
A. 1.15 ha.
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B. 1.35 ha.
C. 1.40 ha.
D. 2.10 ha.
43. A farmer noticed that his maize at flowering stage had holes on the leaves and stems.
Which one of the following pests is likely to have caused the damage?
A. Aphids.
B. Armyworms.
C. Weevils.
D. Stalkborers.
44. Which one of the following is an oil crop?
A. Pawpaw.
B. Peas.
C. Sun-flower.
D. Wheat.
45. Tomato plants are staked in order to
A. allow for easy pruning.
B. keep the fruits off the ground.
C. allow uniform ripening of fruits.
D. prevent the fruits from being damaged by insects.
46. Which one of the following entries should NOT be entered under Input records?
A. Foods given to poultry.
B. Fertilizers used for planting.
C. Eggs sold to the market.
D. Pesticides applied to crops.
47. Mrs. Juma kept the following information in the records for her dairy cattle:
Dates when cows are served
Dates when cows are due to calve down
Sexes of calves born
Breeds of bulls used for service
In which one of the activities below would the above information be most useful to Mrs. Juma
in managing her farm?
A. Marketing her dairy products.
B. Selecting suitable animals for breeding.
C. Detecting the health of her livestock.
D. Buying the required materials for her livestock.
48. The price of groundnuts at Mur Malanga market on one Tuesday was Shs. 65.00 per kg
before mid-day, and Shs. 85.00 per kg after mid-day.
What is likely to have caused the increase in price?
A. Less quantity of groundnuts supplied in the morning and few buyers present.
B. Large quantity of groundnuts supplied in the afternoon and few buyers present.
C. Less quantity of groundnuts supplied in the afternoon and many buyers present.
D. Large quantity of groundnuts supplied in the morning and few buyers present.
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49. In the month of June 1992, a farmer kept the following records:
1st June sold eggs for Shs. 900.00
4th June bought layers mash for Shs. 1,080.00
8th June sold carrots for Shs. 1,000.00
16th June sold cabbages for Shs. 2,400.00
20th June bought fertilizers for Shs. 1,000.00
30th June bought fungicides for Shs. 300.00
What profit or loss did the farmer make during the month of June 1992?
A. A profit of Shs. 1920.00.
B. A loss of Shs. 2380.00.
C. A profit of Shs. 4300.00.
D. A loss of Shs. 6680.00.
50. Which one of the following organisations provides loans for farming?
A. 4-K Clubs.
B. Agricultural Society of Kenya.
C. Young Farmers Clubs.
D. Agricultural Finance Corporation.
51. In which one of the following land tenure systems does a farmer have full right to the use
of land?
A. Tenancy.
B. Communal ownership.
C. Individual owner operator.
D. Co-operative.
52. Which one of the sets of tools and equipment listed below is the most appropriate to use
when constructing a wooden chicken feed trough?
A. Handsaw, claw hammer, try square and tape measure.
B. Spirit level, try square, tape measure, and handsaw.
C. Ball pein hammer, panga, try square and spirit level.
D. Try square, panga, tape measure and handsaw.
53. Which one of the following tools is most suitable for preparing a seedbed from a hard
piece of ground that has couch grass?
A. Garden fork.
B. Jembe.
C. Mattock.
D. Fork jembe.
54. What maintenance practices should be carried out on garden tools to prevent rusting
during long storage?
A. Clean, dry and apply oil on tools before storage.
B. Clean, dry and sharpen tools before storage.
C. Wash the tools and replace worn out parts.
D. Wash the tools and repair broken parts.
55. Which one of the places described below is suitable for siting a bee hive?
A. An open place near flowering plants.
B. A place far from a grazing field and far from a water source for bees.
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C. A sheltered place close to a water source for bees.
D. A sheltered place close to a homestead.
56. Matera Primary School pupils have observed for a number of years that their maize crops
get damaged by being blown down by strong winds.
What action should they take to control the problem in future?
A. Apply more fertilizers to their maize crops.
B. Grow a short maize variety.
C. Intercrop maize with beans.
D. Plant trees around their maize plot.
57. Which one of the following sets of practices contains safety measures which should be
"observed when applying insecticides?
A. Wearing protective clothing and using insecticides of correct concentration.
B. Using the right type of insecticide and spraying against the direction of wind.
C. Wearing protective clothing and using highly concentrated insecticides.
D. Pouring the remaining insecticides on the grass and cleaning the equipment after use.
58. Below is an illustration of a sheep. Which one of the parts labelled is usually docked?
59. Which one of the following planting materials is used to establish a crop of bananas?
A. Tubers.
B. Suckers.
C. Bulbils.
D. Cuttings.
60. Why should compost materials be turned three to four limes during the preparation of
compost manure?
A. To reduce the smell of compost materials.
B. To encourage uniform rotting of compost materials.
C. To allow fast water penetration in the compost heap.
D. To check if the compost heap is ready for use.
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3.3. Lesotho
3.3.1. Overview
End of Primary School Examination
1. Title of examination:
Primary School Leaving Examination
2. Amount of fees charged:
≈ US$2
3. Examination after years in primary
school (6, 7, 8 years):
7 yrs
4. Children's entry age in primary school:
6 yrs
5. Number of pupils sitting examination
in 1994:
31,396
6. Examination subjects offered:
8 subjects in 5 papers:
• Mathematics
• English
• Sesotho
• Social Studies
• Science (Science, Home
Agriculture, Health Education)
Economics,
7. Language of examination:
English (except for Sesotho paper)
8. Institution setting the examination
questions:
N.C.D.C. (National Curriculum Development
Centre) and Primary Examination Office for
printing
9. Have there been any reforms in the
examination questions?
No, but syllabi for primary schools were
revised 1994 and are on trial in selected
schools countrywide.
10.
Stages
of
development
of
examination questions (please describe):
• Item writing workshop for Primary School
Leaving Examination by selected teachers
with the assistance of subject specialists from
National Curriculum Development Centre. The
workshop is conducted by the Examination
Office with the assistance of the Office of
Evaluation, Research and Testing.
• Editing and proofreading of developed items
by Evaluation, Research and Testing Division.
Final proofreading by subject specialists.
• Banking of good items by Evaluation,
Research and Testing Division.
• Two papers per subject produced by
Evaluation, Research and Testing Division
and printing of papers by Examination Office.
• Pre-testing on selected sample by the
Inspectorate.
• Scoring of answer sheets on computer and
item analysis coordinated by the Inspectorate.
93
11. Type of examination questions and
distribution of different kind of questions.
Multiple-choice in English, Sesotho, Science,
Mathematics and Social Studies; mainly recall
questions; essay writing: English and Sesotho.
12.
Is
continuous
assessment
incorporated in the final examination?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
13. Are examination items pretested?
Yes [x]
No [ ]
14. Which professional groups are
involved in setting the examination
questions?
• Primary school teachers
• School inspectors
• Primary Examination officers
• Curriculum developers
15. Are the same professionals who set
the examination questions involved in
marking papers?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
If no, who marks the papers (state)?
District Education Offices select teachers for
marking of English and Sesotho essays and
letters.
16. How are examination results used for
improving teaching in primary schools?
The District offices, National Curriculum
Development Centre and Examination office
produce a report which is sent to schools,
curriculum developers and Ministry of
Education for the purpose of improving
teaching in primary schools. Examination
results are used together with the report by
the three bodies mentioned above. Evaluation,
Research and Testing Division conducts an
analysis of items used by NCDC to improve
items, and teachers to improve teaching.
17. To what other uses
examination results put?
the
The examination results are also used for
selection into secondary schools.
18. Main problem with Primary School
Leaving Examinations?
• Distribution of examination papers is difficult
because some places are not easy to reach.
• Security of papers is not guaranteed.
• Production of scanner sheets.
are
3.3.2. Item Writing for Primary School Leaving Examination in Lesotho
National Curriculum Development Centre (N.C.D.C.)
Introduction
During last week of October the Primary School Leaving Examination (PSLE) is administered
countrywide. The time table which has been given to the head-teachers is followed to the
letter. Five subjects are tested, namely: English, Sesotho, Mathematics, Science and Social
Studies. These subjects are normally scheduled to be administered in four days. The
language subjects Sesotho and English have three papers each. The first paper requires a
composition on one of the two given topics. The second paper deals with composing a letter,
and the third paper contains multiple-choice questions on comprehension and usage of the
language. The other three subjects test the candidates by applying multiple-choice items.
In 1993 about 31,887 students enrolled for PSLE but the actual number of students who sat
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for PSLE were 31,979 of which 8,725 got the first division (1st class), 8,644 got the second
class and 11,665 got third class. Only 1,742 students failed, while the total number of passes
was 29,034 (90.8% of candidates who sat for PSLE).
The Development of the Item Bank
In 1987 it was decided that an item bank should be built up for the PSLE. The banked items
would be pre-tested and statistically analysed. The Evaluation and Testing (E&T) Division of
the National Curriculum Development Centre (NCDC) was then assigned the task of
developing and building up the bank.
Step 1
The E&T Division consults with different subject divisions which in turn nominate a number of
teachers (normally five per subject area) to attend the item writing workshop. It was felt that
the contribution made by teachers towards this exercise would be more appropriate.
The criteria used are as follows:
(a) Subject panel members: This criteria has the disadvantage of not giving many different
teachers a chance to gain an idea of proper item writing.
(b) Resource teachers: The aim here is that when the teachers get back to their respective
regions they will share whatever knowledge they have gained on good item writing with
their colleagues.
(c) Teachers from different localities throughout the country: The idea is the same as
above; teachers would spread the message to teachers in their schools and neighbouring
schools on how to write good items.
The subject divisions are encouraged to mix their nominees; e.g. out of five people, at most
two teachers should already have attended the workshop while the other three teachers
should be new to the exercise. The aim is that the experienced teachers give a lead to the
inexperienced teachers.
Step 2
The item writing workshop normally runs for five days. On the first day and the first half of the
second day teachers are introduced to the item writing circle as well as given tips on how to
write good items. They are also given examples of items which are considered to be good or
to be poor.
Teachers start writing items from the second half of the second day up to the fourth day. On
the fifth day, teachers are normally given a chance to go through their work to convince
themselves that they have produced what is required. From the very first day of the workshop,
the representatives of the subject divisions work with the E&T group to guide teachers. Since
teachers work in different groups according to the subjects they write items for, each
representative of subject divisions works with his/her subject group.
Step 3
The following step after the item writing workshop is that of editing the items written by
teachers. This exercise is done by the E&T group. Immediately after editing, the test papers
are compiled using the edited items. When the papers are ready, the E&T Division passes
them over to the respective subject divisions where the items are edited further. After the
second editing the E&T Division produces final test papers ready for printing.
For each subject, two test papers are produced (papers A and B). The purpose of having two
papers is to increase the chances of having many good items during pretesting (those items
that show good statistical characteristics when analyzed).
95
Step 4
The test papers are taken for printing at this stage. The printing is done by the Instructional
Materials Resource Centre (I.M.R.C.) unit, which also falls under the Ministry of Education
(MOE).
During the printing of the test papers the E&T Division together with the Primary Examinations
Office (PEO) selects a sample of schools in which pre-testing will take place.
The criteria for selecting schools takes a number of factors into consideration:
• The size of the district (the number of schools per district).
The locality of the school within the district (e.g. rural, urban, foothills or mountains).
• Denomination of the proprietor (more than 95% of the primary schools in the country
belong to churches).
• The performance of the school at PSLE level (e.g. very high, average or very low).
The schools are then warned a month in advance about the pretest visits.
Step 5
At this stage the E&T group together with the PEO administers the pre-test exercise. This
exercise takes a full month (4 weeks), and it is done in September, when pupils are just ready
to sit for their PSLE. Each test paper must be taken by at least 200 pupils. The tests taken at
each school are chosen at random. One school takes two sittings. That is, either two or four
different tests per school, depending on the size of the school.
Step 6
The pre-testing involves only the objective type of tests. Thus, the computer answer cards are
used and scored by computers. The scoring is done by the Education Statistics Unit of the
MOE.
The scoring computer has been fed with a programme which has been derived from the
Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR20) formula, which allows it to produce item analysis
immediately after scoring the cards.
Step 7
The item analysis comes out in such a way that the E&T Division can easily decide whether
an item should be banked, revised or trashed altogether. The items that are banked are those
which show good statistical characteristics, and these are the items that would be put in the
PSLE papers.
Step 8
When the PSLE papers have to be produced the E&T Division consults with each subject
division to decide on the items that should be included in the papers. For this exercise the
subject divisions are encouraged to use a table of specification (test blueprint) so that they
can avoid bias.
When the items have been decided upon by the subject divisions, the E&T Division compiles
the test papers, which in turn are proofread by the respective subject divisions. The cameraready copies are then produced by the E&T Division and handed over to the PEO. It is the
responsibility of the Primary Education Office to see that the test papers are printed, parcelled
and sent to schools under very tight security. The PEO gets full help from the District
Education Offices in order to perform these duties.
96
Step 9
The administration of the examinations is done by invigilators, who also have to send the
candidates' papers to the relevant centres. The invigilators normally are teachers of class 6
and they should neither be headteachers nor should they be class 7 teachers as well. This is
simply because these two categories of teachers have to be there when the examinations are
being administered in their schools. The selection procedure takes place each year in
September and at that very same time the test booklets are sent to schools; their safety is left
with the head of the school. The invigilators are given a one-day training on how to conduct
the PSLE and are also given each a PSLE administrators manual.
Step 10
After the PSLE results have been processed the item analysis of the objective tests is
produced and sent to the E&T Division which decides on which items should be banked,
revised or discarded.
Step 11
The District Education Offices are required to send comments to the E&T Division after
marking the essays and letters. The required comments should have been made by markers,
and they should be on points which they feel teachers should lay more emphasis on when
teaching. The subject divisions also comment on problems concerning classroom teaching.
They perform this exercise with the help of the E&T Division, on the basis of item analysis
produced from the test papers. The E&T Division then produces a report based on all those
comments and sends it to the schools.
Subjective Tests
Most of the steps outlined above prepare the objective tests candidates take. The subjective
tests, that is, essays and letters for the languages, are not pre-tested. However, the topics are
recommended by the teachers during the item writing workshop. The respective subject
divisions are consulted by the E&T Division for them to decide on the topics which should be
included in the PSLE papers.
Conclusion
PSLE is the only instrument on which to test and measure the ability and the extent of
instruction at primary level. It is the only means that assesses countrywide the amount of
skills, knowledge, and attitudes acquired in seven years of the learners' exposure to
classroom instruction. It is still a way of selecting students who should proceed with higher
education (post primary education).
However the Evaluation Research and Testing Division of the National Curriculum
Development Centre presently explores a different way of assessment, whereby at the end of
classes 3 and 6 students' achievements in Maths, English and Sesotho will be checked. The
time and exposure given to the item writing during the workshops with teachers is too short. It
is possible that some teachers write poor items because they may not have grasped some of
the concepts. There has never been a chance to make a follow-up on teachers to ensure that
they do share whatever they have gained with their colleagues.
97
3.3.3. Primary School Leaving Examination, Standard 7, 1994/Science Paper
KINGDOM OF LESOTHO
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING EXAMINATION
STANDARD 7
OCTOBER 1994
SCIENCE
(Time: 1 hour 30 minutes)
(Marks: 70)
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Use only PENCIL on your answer sheet.
2. When you have chosen the answer to a question, shade in the letter space COMPLETELY
for that answer on the answer sheet.
Example:
3. If you wish to change any answer you have chosen, use a rubber to rub out the mark
COMPLETELY and then make a new mark. If you do not rub out completely the machine
may mark the answer wrong.
4. Examples have been given to help you. Read them carefully before you start doing the
questions.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
I. Food should always be covered to keep away ________________.
A) smell
B) flies
C) people
D) rats
The correct answer is "B". You would shade in the space for B on your answer sheet.
II. Milk is a ___________.
A) crystal
B) solid
C) liquid
D) gas
The correct answer is "C". You would shade in the space for C on your answer sheet.
1. Which sense does Mpho use to tell that there is some nicely cooked food?
A) sight
B) touch
C) hearing
D) smell
98
2. Which sense is used to tell that water is cold or hot?
A) Touch
B) Smell
C) Taste
D) Hearing
3. Where does the moon get its light from?
A) Earth
B) Itself
C) Sun
D) Star
4. What can be done to the plough wheels that make a lot of noise?
A) wash the wheels
B) oil the wheels
C) spray the wheels with water
D) punch the wheels
5. Which of the following substances dissolves in water?
A) sand
B) sugar
C) wheat-meal
D) maize meal
6. Which of the following will help in pollinating roses?
A) Sheep
B) Birds
C) Bees
D) Man
7. Which one of the following animals is covered with scale?
A) Horse
B) Cow
C) Hen
D) Tortoise
8. How does a fish move? It _____.
A) swims
B) climbs
C) hops
D) runs
9. Fish uses __________ for breathing.
A) gills
B) stomata
C) lungs
D) pores
10. __________ soil has big particles.
A) clay
B) sand
99
C) loam
D) aluvial
11. What kind of soil holds water for a long time?
A) loam
B) sand
C) clay
D) gravel
12. Which of the following flowers is a maize flower?
A) d
B) a
C) c
D) b
13. Which one of the diagrams below will reflect the rays of the sun when directed to it?
A) b
B) a
C) c
D) d
14. See the picture below. What will help the milk go out of the container?
A) Air pressure
B) Tea
C) Cup
D) Jar
100
15. What happens to the wax when a candle burns? It _________.
A) expands
B) becomes black
C) becomes yellow
D) melts
16. In the diagram below what will happen to the magnets? They will _______ each other.
A) repel
B) attract
C) miss
D) change
17. Tau rubs a ruler on his head and after some few seconds the ruler was able to attract
pieces of papers. This shows that a ruler becomes a ________.
A) magnet
B) permanent magnet
C) radiator
D) temporary magnet
18. How does a scorpion respond when being touched?
A) runs away
B) raises its sting
C) fights
D) stays still
19. Which part do plants use for breathing?
A) stem
B) flowers
C) leaves
D) roots
20. Which machine can you use to cut through a large piece of wood?
A) Axe
B) Knife
C) Nail
D) Hoe
21. How did Mphatlalatsane derive its name? It appears _________.
A) in the middle of the day
B) before sun set
C) before sun rise
D) after sun set
22. Which one of the following shows a complete life cycle of a grasshopper?
A) pupa, egg, adult and larva
B) adult, larva, egg and pupa
C) larva, pupa, adult and egg
D) egg, larva, pupa and adult
101
23. Which one of the following animals lives partly in water and on land?
A) frog
B) rat
C) hare
D) cat
24. Which of these is a wild animal?
A) Cat
B) Hare
C) Lamb
D) Cow
25. __________floats in water.
A) Pumpkin
B) Stone
C) Egg
D) Feather
26. What can you use to find the perimeter of the leaf?
A) a ruler
B) a string
C) a tape measure
D) foot steps
27. A bean pod disperses by _____________.
A) itself
B) wind
C) animals
D) water
28. Which of the following lists has a list of living things only?
A) paper, plastic, rose
B) horse, stone, soil
C) man, cat, carrot
D) house, bag, boy
29. When bicarbonate of soda is mixed with vinegar it will ________.
A) melt
B) make bubbles
C) change colour
D) evaporates
30. Which agent will help in breaking down rocks into small particles?
A) paper
B) road
C) water
D) insects
31. Tseli is ill and she goes to the clinic to see the doctor. The doctor uses ________
thermometer to measure her body temparature.
A) clinical
102
B) mercury
C) alcohol
D) scale
32. Which is a non-living object?
A) cat
B) tree
C) boy
D) stone
33. One has to wear dark clothes in Winter because they ________.
A) reflect light
B) absorb heat
C) are beautiful
D) lose heat
34. A flame needs _________ in order to keep burning.
A) carbon
B) water vapour
C) nitrogen
D) oxygen
35. The wearing away of soil by wind and water is called ______.
A) convection
B) conservation
C) erosion
D) migration
36. Which animal sleeps in winter?
A) snake
B) rabbit
C) rat
D) dog
37. The chameleon takes the colour of the place where it lives in order to _______.
A) move quickly
B) smell its food
C) protect itself
D) see other animals properly
38. The part of the leaf marked 2 is called the __________.
A) vein
B) edge
C) midrib
D) stalk
103
39. Sand cannot dissolve in water. It is said to be _________ in water.
A) inseparable
B) insoluble
C) soluble
D) insolvent
40. A clinical thermometer is an instrument used for measuring body_____________
A) the time of day
B) air pressure
C) rainfall
D) temperature
41. We can prevent soil erosion on sloping ground by _________ the slope.
A) ploughing furrows across
B) frequently grazing animals on
C) ploughing up and down
D) burning vegetation on
42. Water and wind easily carry away top soil when the ground is ________________.
A) warm and fertilized
B) stony and wet
C) planted with trees
D) bare and dry
43. Soil erosion can be most effectively reduced on sloping fields by __________.
A) a drainage system
B) contour ploughing
C) bustard trenching
D) shift cultivation
44. Which one of the following practices is a means of preventing soil erosion?
A) Ploughing up and down the slope
B) Winter ploughing
C) Planting grass and trees
D) Cutting grass
45. A field crop which contains oil is _________.
A) sorghum
B) maize
C) sunflower
D) wheat
46. Most of my wheat crops did not form grain but produced powder of _________ effects.
A) pneumonia
B) rust
C) blight
D) mildew
47. Plants get their minerals from the ___________.
A) gravel
B) air
104
C) clouds
D) soil
48. Lesotho is advised to construct __________ for irrigating fields during drought.
A) dams
B) boreholes
C) tanks
D) reserviors
49. After washing garden tools one must apply ________ on them to prevent rust.
A) grease
B) vaseline
C) fat
D) dripping
50. Field crop which grow well in the highlands of Lesotho are __________.
A) sorghum and sunflower
B) maize and letils
C) wheat and peas
D) barley and beans
51. We can keep our bodies fit and strong by ___________.
A) keeping our bodies clean
B) drinking a lot of water
C) eating a lot of fatty foods
D) Exercising regularly
52. Teboho does not eat carrots. Which disease is he likely to suffer from?
A) Bleeding gums
B) Poor eye sight
C) Weak blood cells
D) Poor growth of bones
53. Drugs and alcohol are dangerous to our bodies because they ___________.
A) affect our brains and minds
B) destroy our muscles
C) cause breathing problems
D) weaken our bones
54. A prepared mixture of sugar, salt and water can be used for treating a child suffering from
___________.
A) whooping cough
B) sore throat
C) diarrhoea
D) Toothache
55. Daily exercises helps you to be ___________.
A) injured
B) healthy
C) tired
D) sleepy
105
56. We wash hands before eating to prevent spread of __________.
A) fleas
B) flies
C) lice
D) germs
57. Before crossing the road, one must look __________.
A) tright and down
B) up and down
C) right and left
D) left and up
58. If a child has headache, give him/her _______ to stop pain.
A) sweets
B) cool-drink
C) jam
D) paracetamol
59. Loss of ________ is example of physical disability.
A) limb
B) hearing
C) vision
D) memory
60. Cleaning of ears with a matchstick may damage the ear _______.
A) drum
B) bone
C) tube
D) flap
61. Which one of these vegetables is in the same food group as meat?
A) tomatoes
B) potatoes
C) cabbage
D) beans
62. Meat and other foods decay quickly in the __________.
A) winter
B) spring
C) summer
D) autumn
63. _________ brush should be used to clean a plain wooden floor.
A) Shoe
B) Scrubbing
C) Hair
D) Clothes
64. To find out the length of the material one of these is used.
A) Tape measure
B) Scissors
106
C) Thimble
D) Cord
65. Mention one article that can be made of wool.
A) blouse
B) jersey
C) stockings
D) shirt
66. Paint stains are removed with ____________.
A) paraffin
B) solution of salt
C) sour milk
D) vinegar
67. Which is the balanced meal among these?
A) potatoes, samp, tea
B) potatoes, meat, samp
C) soft porridge, tea, meat
D) meat, vegetable salad, rice
68. Why do you use soap when washing clothes? To remove ___________.
A) lice
B) colour of a cloth
C) dirt properly
D) bugs
69. When we clean leather shoes we need __________.
A) rags and oil
B) polish and brushes
C) polish and rags
D) oil and brushes
70. Which stain is removed by soaking a cloth in cold water with a little salt added?
A) grease
B) ink
C) milk
D) blood
107
3.3.4. Primary School Leaving Examination, Standard 7, 1993/Science Paper
KINGDOM OF LESOTHO
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING EXAMINATION
STANDARD 7
OCTOBER 1993
SCIENCE
(Time: 1 hour 30 minutes)
(Marks: 70)
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Use only PENCIL on your answer card.
2. When you have chosen the answer to a question, shade in the letter space COMPLETELY
for that answer on the answer card.
Example:
3. If you wish to change any answer you have chosen, use a rubber to rub out the mark
COMPLETELY and then make a new mark. If you do not rub out completely the machine
may mark the answer wrong.
4. Examples have been given to help you. Read them carefully before you start doing the
questions.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
I. Food should always be covered to keep away ________________.
A) smell
B) flies
C) people
D) rats
The correct answer is "B". You would shade in the space for B on your answer card.
II. Milk is a___________.
A) crystal
B) solid
C) liquid
D) gas
The correct answer is "C". You would shade in the space for C on your answer card.
1. On very cold winter mornings Thabang cannot get water from a well or a tap because the
water has changed to __________.
A) snow
B) dew
C) frost
D) ice
108
2. You can make your wheelbarrow move easier by ___________ it.
A) oiling
B) carrying
C) watering
D) filling
3. Lineo's mother uses a cloth to hold a hot saucepan. The cloth is a __________ conductor
of heat.
A) cold
B) bad
C) good
D) hot
4. The yellow dust that insects carry from plant to plant is called _________.
A) stamen
B) sepal
C) pollen
D) pistil
5. A flame needs _________ in order to keep burning.
A) oxygen
B) water vapour
C) nitrogen
D) carbon
6. The wearing away of soil by wind and water is called ______.
A) migration
B) conservation
C) convection
D) erosion
7. A/An _________ makes it easier to get a heavy barrel onto a table.
A) wedge
B) lever
C) inclined plane
D) pulley
8. Hot plates on stoves are made of metal because metal ______.
A) is a bad conductor of heat
B) is a good conductor of heat
C) will stay cool
D) will burn easily
9. Which animal sleeps in winter?
A) dog
B) rabbit
C) rat
D) snake
109
10. The chameleon takes the colour of the place where it lives in order to _______.
A) protect itself
B) smell its food
C) move quickly
D) see other animals properly
11. Air is a mixture of _________________________.
A) salts
B) water
C) gases
D) liquids
12. The part of the leaf marked 2 is called the ________________.
A) edge
B) vein
C) midrib
D) stalk
13. Sand cannot dissolve in water. It is said to be _________________ in water.
A) insolvent
B) inseparable
C) soluble
D) insoluble
14. A clinical thermometer is an instrument used for measuring ________________.
A) air pressure
B) body temperature
C) rainfall
D) the time of day
15. The path of electricity is called a ___________.
A) switch
B) cell
C) circuit
D) terminal
16. Which of the following is an electric appliance?
A) Torch
B) Rain gauge
C) Barometer
D) Thermometer
110
17. Light travels in ____________ lines.
A) dotted
B) straight
C) curved
D) broken
18. When a magnet is freely suspended it will always face __________.
A) East-South
B) South-East
C) West-North
D) North-South
19. Drops of water seen on leaves of plants in the morning are called _________.
A) rain
B) mist
C) dew
D) snow
20. Which sense does Mpho use to tell that there is some nicely cooked food?
A) smell
B) touch
C) hearing
D) sight
21. Which sense is used to tell that water is cold or hot?
A) Touch
B) Smell
C) Taste
D) Hearing
22. Where does the moon get its light from?
A) Earth
B) Itself
C) Sun
D) Star
23. What can be done to the plough wheels that make a lot of noise?
A) punch the wheels
B) wash the wheels
C) spray the wheels with water
D) oil the wheels
24. Which of the following substances dissolves in water?
A) sand
B) sugar
C) wheat-meal
D) maize meal
25. Which of the following will help in pollinating roses?
A) Bees
B) Birds
111
C) Sheep
D) Man
26. Which of these soils is good for smearing (ho lila) when mixed with cow dung?
A) Sand
B) Loam
C) Clay
D) Glavel
27. What do we call animals with backbone?
A) Reptiles
B) Invertebrates
C) Mammals
D) Vertebrates
28. Which one of the following animals is covered with scale?
A) Hen
B) Cow
C) Tortoise
D) Horse
29. How does a fish move? It _____.
A) climbs
B) swims
C) hops
D) runs
30. How does a scorpion respond when being touched?
A) raises its sting
B) runs away
C) fights
D) stays still
31. __________ soil has big particles.
A) loam
B) clay
C) sand
D) alluvial
32. What will happen to a paper clip when put next to a magnet? It will be ___________ a
magnet.
A) bend by
B) repelled from
C) stretched by
D) attracted to
33. Which one of the diagrams below will reflect the rays of the sun when directed to it?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 2
D) 4
112
34. Which of the following flowers is a maize flower?
A) 3
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
35. What kind of soil holds water for a long time?
A) gravel
B) sand
C) loam
D) clay
36. See the picture below. What will help the milk go out of the container?
A) Air pressure
B) Tea
C) Cup
D) Jar
37. Maize in the diagrams below was grown at the same time on different types of soil. On
what type of soil was maize '1' grown?
A) gravel
B) clay
C) loam
D) sand
113
38. What happens to the wax when a candle burns? It _________.
A) expands
B) becomes black
C) becomes yellow
D) melts
39. Name an instrument used for measuring temperature.
A) Thermometer
B) Rain gauge
C) Syringe
D) Telescope
40. Which sense do we use to identify paraffin?
A) Taste
B) Smell
C) Sight
D) Touch
41. __________ disease attacks dairy cows.
A) Lice and mites
B) Boat
C) Mastitis
D) Bots
42. A good way to prevent wind erosion is to ___________.
A) plant trees
B) graze goats
C) build dams
D) make contours
43. Good top soil with plenty of ___________ produce the best plants.
A) sand
B) compost
C) air pockets
D) snow
44. We can prevent soil erosion on sloping ground by _________ the slope.
A) burning vegetation on
B) frequently grazing animals on
C) ploughing up and down
D) ploughing furrows across
45. in order to feed the soil after we have cultivated it, we can use ______________.
A) fertilisers
B) rocks
C) water
D) dust particles
46. _________ insect pest attacks cabbage.
A) Millipede
114
B) Blight
C) Aphis
D) Centipede
47. _______ is used for leveling the soil.
A) Digging fork
B) Rake
C) Spade
D) Hoe
48. Garden tools should be stored in a ________.
A) fenced place
B) shady place
C) cold place
D) dry place
49. _________ is a root crop.
A) Spinach
B) Cabbage
C) Potatoe
D) Egg plant
50. The milk turns sour because of ________.
A) mastitis
B) bacteria
C) black quarter
D) boat
51. We can keep our bodies fit and strong by
A) Exercising regularly
B) drinking a lot of water
C) eating a lot of fatty foods
D) keeping our bodies clean
52. If the temperature of your body is 37° C, you are probably _____________.
A) overheated
B) sick
C) fainting
D) healthy
53. Animals and man use the _________ stored in food to help them do work.
A) taste
B) energy
C) colour
D) weight
54. ________ contain some substances which are harmful to the health of an individual.
A) Coffee
B) Drinks
C) Sweets
D) Drugs
115
55. In order to kill germs, water should be _______ before drinking.
A) boiled
B) filtered
C) covered
D) served
56. The insect which carries disease germs to uncovered food is __________.
A) louse
B) bee
C) house fly
D) beetle
57. In order to avoid accidents at night, one should wear _________ clothes when walking
near the road.
A) bright
B) warm
C) black
D) tight
58. The disease likely to be caused by smoking is called __________.
A) lyphoid
B) lung cancer
C) polio
D) cholera
59. One of the following diseases is a lung disease.
A) Kwashiorkor
B) Marasmus
C) Tuberculosis (TB)
D) Diarrhoea
60. Which of the following sentences about tight fitting clothes is true?
A) They help stale air around the body to escape.
B) It is healthier to wear them.
C) They are more confortable.
D) They prevent the flow of blood through the skin.
61. The embroidery below shows a __________ stitch
A) feather
B) blanket
C) decorative
D) chain
62. For cutting cloths we should use a ____________.
A) thimble
B) pair of scissors
C) tape measure
D) needle
116
63. Mother's milk is a perfect food for ________.
A) babies
B) grandmothers
C) grandfathers
D) girls
64. These are the good sources of energy.
A) peas, cabbage, carrots
B) apples, bananas, oranges
C) bread, samp, sugar
D) bread, apples, carrots
65. To protect our bodies from heat and cold, we have to wear _____.
A) clothes
B) sacks
C) leaves
D) shoes
66. The best water for washing clothes is ________ water.
A) hard
B) greasy
C) muddy
D) warm
67. Which animals kill rats and mice in the store rooms?
A) Dogs
B) Cats
C) Hens
D) Pigs
68. _________ are a good source of vitamin C.
A) Eggs
B) Cakes
C) Oranges
D) Onions
69. When frying an egg one should use __________.
A) vinegar
B) water
C) fat
D) sauce
70. Which article is best for cleaning classroom chalk board.
A) hand
B) broom
C) grass
D) duster
117
3.4. Malawi
3.4.1. Overview
End of Primary School Examination
1. Tide of examination:
Primary
School
Leaving
Examination (PSLCE)
2. Amount of fees charged:
Nil
3. Examination after years in primary
school (6, 7, 8 years):
8 yrs
4. Children's entry age in primary school:
6 yrs
5. Number of pupils sitting examination in
1994:
103,833
6. Examination subjects offered:
11 subjects in 8 papers:
• English
• Arithmetic
• General Knowledge (Geography, History,
Civics)
• Chichewa
• Agriculture
• Science & Health Education
• Home Science
• Needle Craft
The last three subjects are optional.
Candidates are required to choose anyone.
In practice boys opt for Science & Health
Education, girls choose between Home
Science and Needle Craft. Each candidate
therefore covers 6 subjects which all must
be passed to qualify for the PSLCE.
Note: From 1995 on the former 11
examination subjects are offered in 7
papers:
• English (Paper I Composition, Paper II
Grammar, Structure, Comprehension)
• Chichewa (Paper I Composition, Paper II
Grammar, Comprehension)
• Arithmetic
• General Paper (History, Geography, Civics)
• Science (incl. Agriculture and Health
Education)
• Home Economics
• Needle Craft
The papers in subjects 1-4 are compulsory.
One additional optional paper out of 5-7 is
further needed.
7. Language of examination:
English (except
language paper)
118
for
the
Certificate
national/local
8. Institution
questions:
setting
the
examination
9. Have there been any reforms in the
examination questions?
Malawi National
(MANEB)
Examinations
Board
Yes
1991 and 1995
Deliberate introduction of items testing
higher cognitive skills (1991).
Introduction of Multiple-Choice Test Items
(1995).
When? (year)
What kind?
10. Stages of development of examination
questions (please describe):
• Appointment of chief examiners or setters.
• Drafting of examination papers.
• Typing of drafted examination papers.
• Moderation of examination papers by
panels.
• Typing and proofreading of final
examination papers.
11. Type of examination questions and
distribution of different kind of questions.
No multiple-choice questions but mostly
structured and essays.
Composition: 50% recall, 50% application
and higher order. However, note the
changes since 1995.
12.
Is
continuous
assessment
incorporated in the final examination?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
13. Are examination items pretested?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
14. Which professional groups are
involved in setting the examination
questions?
• Secondary school teachers
• School inspectors
• Tutors of TTCs
• Curriculum developers
15. Are the same professionals who set the
examination questions involved in marking
papers?
Yes [x] but in the capacity of team leaders,
the markers being primary school teachers.
No [ ]
16. How are examination results used for
improving teaching in primary schools?
Chief examiners' reports which analyse
examination are issued to schools.
17. To what other uses are the examination
results put?
For selection to secondary school.
18. Main problem with Primary School
Leaving Examinations?
Very competitive, to the extent that they
guide the curriculum and promote cheating
especially in the schools. There is also the
problem of repetition at standard 8.
119
3.4.2. Innovations in Primary School Leaving Certificate Examinations (PSLCE) in
Malawi and Overview of the 1993 Results
by Jacob Mwanza, Malawi National Examinations Board
Introduction
A consultancy report in 1987 by H.C.A. Somerset had pointed out that PSLCE and Junior
Certificate Examinations (JCE), and PSLCE in particular, tended to test simple factual recall
at the expense of more important cognitive skills such as comprehension, application and
reasoning. Recall type of questions were found to be predominant especially in Science,
History, Geography, and Agriculture. Further, candidates are usually asked to recall a single
isolated fact: a name, a date or a place. Questions which probe understanding of causes or
reasons are much less common. The questions ask »who«, »when«, »what« or »where«,
rather than »why« or »how« (Somerset 1987).
These findings were confirmed by a research study in 1988 carried out by the Malawi National
Examinations Board (MANEB). This study also indicated that sampling of content tended to
be unbalanced in some subjects of the PSLCE.
Somerset gives the following examples picked from past examination papers to illustrate his
point:
1. Mention the four types of bollworm that attack cotton.
2. Name the branch of Agriculture that a farmer practises when he grows
a) Cabbages.
b) Bluegum or Eucalyptus.
c) Millet or Maize.
d) Hibiscus flowers.
(1986 Agriculture)
3. Name the type of ship that carries
a) oil.
b) people.
4. Name two ways by which people in USA earn their living.
5. Which two countries in Africa are leading producers of copper?
6. Mention the two types of coffee grown in Tanzania.
Partly in the light of these findings, a contract for a Test Development Specialist (TDS) was
arranged by the Malawi National Examinations Board (MANEB) in conjunction with the
Ministry of Education and Culture (MOEC). The contract was managed by the British Council
and funded by the World Bank through the 5th Education Sector Credit for the period 10
March 1989 to 10 March 1991.
Among the TDS's terms of reference were the following:
Purpose: Improve the Malawi Examination Systems
Main Duties:
- be responsible for the development of examinations at the Primary School Leaving
120
Certificate Examination, Junior Certificate Examination and Malawi School Certificate of
Education levels;
- be responsible for curriculum development and construction and developing essay and
objective examinations. Besides he will be responsible for pre-testing the items in
Secondary Schools, Primary Schools and Teachers' Colleges;
- organise and conduct item writing workshops;
- train examiners in both essay and objective tests;
- establish and construct the blueprint for use by the examiners in both essay and
objective tests;
- help determine the skills to be tested in each subject area. That is, determine the
percentage of each skill to be tested in each subject area.
Primary School Examinations
Malawi has an 8-4-4 education system, which implies that pupils spend at least eight years in
primary school before they can go to secondary school, if at all.
PSLCE have undergone major improvements in Malawi. In 1989 a workshop for chief
examiners and moderators was held. The workshop exposed participants to principles of
examining and to ways of devising questions which test higher cognitive abilities.
In five subjects which had tested mainly recall - Agriculture, General Paper (Geography,
History and Civics), Science and Health Education, Home Economics, and Needle Craft complete papers were eventually produced by workshop participants and MANEB staff.
Prior to pre-testing the papers, sets of specimen papers were issued to schools in May 1990
with notice that changes in examination questions would be effected for the first time in July
1991. Another innovation was the conversion of all the papers to answer booklet form. This
enables candidates to write their answers in spaces next to the questions on the paper. It has
the advantage of being easier for candidates to handle and for examiners to mark, and of
reducing the amount of loose paper which MANEB has to issue to schools.
In July 1990 the papers were pre-tested. A sampling framework was devised by finding the
pass rate in the 1989 examinations for each of the 24 districts in the country and then
choosing a school from each district of an appropriate size with a pass rate similar to that of
its district. Each school was asked to enter candidates for two out of the three subjects
Agriculture, General Paper, and Science/Health Education, according to an overlapping pair
design. The subjects Home Economics and Needle Craft were also pretested in those of the
sample schools which offered them as options. Arithmetic, Chichewa and English were not
pre-tested as the style of questioning in the new papers differed little from that in use.
Candidates' Performance in Pre-Tests
Pre-test papers were marked by chief and senior examiners during July and August 1990. At
the end of marking, the examiners were interviewed for their impressions of how the
questions had behaved. In general, their impressions were favourable with none thinking that
the papers were far too difficult for the candidates.
The subsequent statistical item analysis confirmed the examiners' impressions. Also the
marks which the candidates were given on the pre-test papers compared favourably with
those on the real PSLCE although all pre-test papers were found to be more difficult, but not
by such a wide margin.
The new-format examination has been in operation since 1991 and what needs to be done is
to follow it up and reinforce it, preferably by holding workshops for examiners to review the
121
results of the first new examinations and for teachers to ensure that the aims of the reforms
are understood.
Use of Multiple-Choice Items for PSLCE
MANEB has been encouraged by the World Bank to use multiple-choice items in some
subjects of the PSLCE. With increasing numbers of candidates, this would speed up marking
and increase the reliability of the examinations. Multiple-choice testing is not new to Malawi at
the primary school level. It was in use until about 20 years ago, when it was abolished,
probably because of its restrictive effect on the development of pupils' power of expression.
Plans, however, are under way for the introduction of multiple-choice testing of the 1995
PSLCE. During the months of June and July 1992, MANEB pre-tested multiple-choice papers
at a sample of schools throughout the country in Science and Health Education, Agriculture
and General Paper.
The 1993 Primary School Leaving Certificate Examinations
In 1993 the total numbers of pupils in class 8 was 96,434 and of these 63,771 were boys and
32,663 were girls, or 66.13% boys and 33.87% girls which means education is more
accessible to boys than to girls. The number of pupils who passed the examination was
60,418 which represents a percentage pass of 62.65. The number of boys who passed the
examination was 42,341 (66.40%) and the number of girls was 18,077 (55.34%). The table
below compares the performance of boys and girls within the 28 education districts in Malawi.
Table I: Performance of Boys and Girls within the 28 Education Districts in the 1993
PSLCE
District
Total Entry
No. of Girls
Total Entry
No. of Boys
(Girls)
Passing
(Boys)
Passing
Chitipa
1,164
716 (61.5%)
2,406
1,725 (71.70%)
Karonga
774
562 (72.61%)
1,793
1,317 (73.45%)
Nkhata Bay
938
592 (63.11%)
2,055
1,452 (70.66%)
Rumphi
1,210
733 (60.58%)
2,101
1,440 (68.54%)
Mzimba
3,332
1,760 (52.82%)
6,679
4,206 (62.97%)
Kasungu
1,107
796 (71.91%)
2,068
1,562 (75.53%)
Nkhotakota
626
391 (62.46%)
1,406
978 (69.56%)
Ntchisi
588
376 (63.95%)
946
672 (71.04%)
Dowa
990
608 (61.41%)
2,273
1,602 (70.48%)
Salima
577
394 (68.28%)
1,520
1,168 (76.84%)
Lilongwe
1,936
1,158 (59.81%)
3,954
2,828 (71.83%)
Mchinji
623
392 (62.92%)
1,309
1,002 (76.55%)
Dedza
838
374 (44.63%)
1,788
1,123 (62.81%)
Ntcheu
1,203
622 (51.70%)
2,277
1,430 (62.85%)
Mangochi
791
459 (58.03%)
2,011
1,415 (70.36%)
Machinga
1,047
517 (49.38%)
2,040
1,296 (63.53%)
Zomba
1,586
687 (43.32%)
3,366
2,087 (62.00%)
Chiradzulu
1,029
489 (47.52%)
1,784
1,084 (60.76%)
Blantyre
1,199
477 (39.78%)
2,279
1,206 (52.92%)
Thyolo
1,403
793 (56.52%)
2,770
2,770 (73.39%)
Mulanje
1,874
885 (47.23%)
3,643
2,332 (64.04%)
Chikwawa
561
275 (49.02%)
1,696
955 (56.31%)
Nsanje
407
301 (73.96%)
1,061
849 (80.02%)
Mwanza
409
261 (63.81%)
794
525 (66.12%)
Blantyre City
3,258
1,204 (36.96%)
4,765
2,406 (50.49%)
Lilongwe City
1,872
1,281 (68.43%)
3,019
2,183 (72.31%)
Mzuzu City
625
506 (80.96%)
879
706 (80.32%)
Zomba Urban
667
454 (68.07%)
1,039
716 (68.91%)
What is clearly discernible from the table I is that, except for Mzuzu City, girls' performance
122
(% pass) was lower in all districts than that of boys in the 1993 PSLCE. The
underachievement of girls is scantly documented in Malawi although it is common knowledge
that girls do not perform as well as boys. But the fact that girls achieved less than boys
nationwide in this examination (perhaps the trend is the same in earlier years) should be
cause of concern. What is strange too about these results is that the percentage pass of both
girls and boys is lowest in the biggest City of Blantyre (39.96% girls and 50.49% boys).
Research in Malawi on the secondary school leaving examinations indicates that urban
schools do better than rural schools, especially in science subjects. One would have expected
a similar result at the primary school level.
Malawi is divided into three administrative regions, the Northern region, Central region and
the Southern region. Although the country is so divided for administrative reasons, there are
marked differences between the regions. The Northern region, for example, has one
dominant language which is different from the one largely spoken in the South and Centre;
and the people's customs in the Centre and South are, generally, different. There are, of
course, other differences within the regions e.g. prevalence of several dialects and customs,
but generally differences are more marked between regions. Nationwide all schools take the
same examination on similar days and times. Because of the influence of such factors as
catchment area, test bias, etc. on achievement, it becomes important to study pupils'
achievement in different localities and hence attempt to see whether pass rates in different
regions of the country are the same or not and why, if different, especially where the
examination is the same.
Some research at the school leaving level indicates differential student achievement between
the regions in some subjects. Table II shows that the percentage of pupils who passed the
1993 PSLCE in the Southern region of both girls and boys is lower than that of the Centre and
North.
Table II: % Pass by Region for Boys and Girls
Region
% Pass Girls
South
47.80
Centre
61.70
North
60.54
% Pass Boys
62.04
70.81
68.16
The percentage of girls passing the 1993 PSLCE is lower than that of boys in all the regions
and is lowest in the Southern region. The differences in the pass rates of girls in the North
and Centre were marginal and so were the differences in the pass rates for the boys in the
same regions. The reasons for these anomalies/similarities can only be entangled through
indepth research.
Table III: Examination Statistics (means, standard deviations, medians and modes)
Subject
SD
Mode
Median Mark
X
Science and Health Education
Arithmetic
General Paper
Agriculture
English
Needle Craft
Housecraft
Chichewa
56.76
57.92
59.43
61.41
61.12
71.67
73.47
75.19
20.17
23.50
20.01
19.00
19.04
11.94
12.47
12.27
70
73
74
75
70
76
75
78
59
60
62
63
63
73
75
77
The statistics on table III indicate that Science and Health Education was most difficult in the
1993 PSLCE followed by Arithmetic and General Paper (note the low means, large SDs and
low median marks). The easiest subject was Chichewa (the national language) then
Housecraft followed by Needle Craft. English and Agriculture were of the same difficulty.
Arithmetic had the largest standard deviation implying that the dispersion of scores was
widest while Needle Craft had the lowest followed by Chichewa and Housecraft. Arranged in
order of difficulty with the most difficult first, they rank as follows:
123
1. Science & Health Education
2. Arithmetic
3. General Paper
4. Agriculture
5. English
6. Needle Craft
7. Housecraft
8. Chichewa
Science subjects therefore, except Agriculture, were the most difficult (i.e. Science and Health
Education - X = 56.76 and Arithmetic - X = 57.92). This is not a surprising result. Our
schools have problems imparting scientific knowledge either because of poor tuition, student
anxiety or some other unknown factors.
These discussions, however, should be treated with caution not only because they are based
on aggregated data but also because pupil background factors as well as school factors have
not been accounted for in the analyses.
Note: From 1995 on the PSLCE has been changed in format and method. With the exception
of the language paper in Chichewa and English who are each split into two papers
(Composition and Multiple-Choice answers) all other papers use multiple-choice questions
only.
3.4.3. 1995 Primary School Leaving Certificate Examinations/Science Incorporated
Paper
THE MALAWI NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS BOARD
1995 PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION
SCIENCE INCORPORATED
Subject Number: P192
Tuesday, 18 July
Time Allowed: 1 ½ hours
1.30 - 3.00 pm
Name of Candidate:__________________________________________________
Name of School: ______________________________________________________
Examination Number: __________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper contains 12 pages. Please check.
2. Answer all questions. Write your answers on the separate answer sheet provided.
3. There are 70 questions in this paper.
4. IMPORTANT
Please hand over your computer answer sheet to the Invigilator: DO NOT FOLD THE
COMPUTER ANSWER SHEET.
© 1995 MANEB
Because of the recent changes we have included the 1995 examination paper, now called
124
SCIENCE INCORPORATED.
EXAMINATION NO.:____________
Section A (25 marks)
AGRICULTURE
1. To which branch of Agriculture does the growing of cauliflower belong?
A. Floriculture
B. Olericulture
C. Aboriculture
D. Silviculture
2. Which of the following practices can control rosette in groundnuts?
(1) early planting
(2) correct plant spacing
(3) planting resistant varieties
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
3. One advantage that indigenous cattle have over cattle introduced into this country from
temperate countries is that indigenous cattle
A. grow faster.
B. are more tolerant to drought.
C. have longer horns.
D. produce more milk.
4. Which centre of early civilization used the source of power shown in Figure 1 below?
A. Egypt
B. India
C. Mesopotamia
D. China
5. In an experiment, pupils applied 15 kg of UREA fertilizer to a one hectare plot of maize. In
another hectare plot of maize they applied 15 kg of CAN fertilizer. In both plots all
recommended production practices were followed. What might have been the objective of the
experiment?
A. to find out the type of fertilizer that gives the best yield
B. to find out the amount of fertilizer that gives the best yield
C. to find out if following recommended production practices improves yield
D. to find out if application of fertilizer is necessary in maize growing
125
6. Why is it advisable to grow different types of crops on a farm?
A. to earn more money during marketing
B. to reduce the danger of total crop failure in times of low rainfall
C. to have enough to eat and surplus to sell to others
D. to be self reliant on crop production
7. Which of the following are advantages of crop rotation?
(1) It helps to maintain soil fertility.
(2) It helps to reduce labour.
(3) It helps to control diseases and pests.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (2) and (3) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
8. Name the cheapest system of keeping chickens.
A. deep litter system
B. semi-intensive system
C. free range system
D. battery cage system
9.
STATEMENT
Pruning is one of the recommended
practices in tree growing
BECAUSE
REASON
it protects trees from diseases and
pests.
A. The statement is true but the reason is false.
B. The statement is false but the reason is a true fact.
C. Both the statement and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
statement.
D. Both the statement and the reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation
of the statement.
10. A farmer bought 10 bags of fertilizer at K30 each, maize seed at K20 and paid K40 for
labour. He harvested 20 bags of maize which he sold at K25 each. How much profit did he
make?
A. K500
B. K220
C. K180
D. K140
11. Figure 2 is a diagram of a cow.
Which of the following things can be made from the part of a cow labelled X?
A. brushes
B. buttons
C. shoes
D. bags
Figure 2
126
12. Which of the following practices can prevent egg-eating in a flock of layers kept in a deep
litter system?
(1) allowing adequate ventilation in the room
(2) debeaking the layers
(3) providing more calcium in the feed
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
13. What should a fish farmer do if he observes black foul looking water in his fish pond?
A. He should stop feeding the fish.
B. He should harvest the fish.
C. He should apply fertilizer to the pond.
D. He should supply the fish with more food.
14. If Chitembana groundnut seed costs K4.20 per kilogram, and the seedrate for
Chitembana groundnuts is 100 kg per hectare. What would be the cost of seed for 500 square
metres? (1 hectare = 10,000 m2).
A. K21
B. K210
C. K420
D. K2100
15. Which of the following fruits is not correctly matched with its method of propagation?
A. oranges
B. pawpaw
C. apples
D. banana
budding
seeds
grafting
layering
16. In animal husbandry the purpose of vaccinating animals is to
A. eradicate animal parasites.
B. control outbreak of diseases.
C. control internal parasites.
D. ensure high quality breeds.
17. Commercial farming is best described as the production of
A. hybrid crops and animals.
B. crops and animals to satisfy one's needs.
C. crops and animals for saleD. crops mainly for food and animals mainly for sale.
18. Which of the following is a list of storage pests only?
A. stalk borer, beetles, giant loopers
B. armyworm, locust, mealy bug
C. weevil, moth, rat
D. moth, aphids, mite
127
19. Name a natural resource which plants need to manufacture their food and is also a source
of Vitamin D.
A. air
B. sunlight
C. water
D. soil
20. The best time to apply farmyard manure and compost manure in a maize garden i
A. when maize is about to tassel.
B. when maize is about knee high.
C. soon after germination.
D. before planting.
21. In an experiment pupils put some soil in a glass jar. They poured some water into the jar.
The soil and water were shaken together. The mixture was allowed to settle. The diagram in
Figure 3 below shows the components seen through the glass.
Figure 3
The numbered layers are likely to be
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
floating organic matter
gravel
floating organic matter
silt
2
sand
floating organic matter
clay
gravel
3
gravel
sand
gravel
floating organic matter
22. Soil erosion may be prevented by
A. ridging across the slope.
B. practicing mixed farming.
C. early land preparation.
D. burning crops attacked by diseases.
23. Which of the following explains how early planting of maize gives high yields?
(1) The growing plants make full use of rainfall and plant food.
(2) The farmer has enough time to do other things apart from caring for maize.
(3) The plants escape some of the attacks by diseases and pests.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
128
24. One of the methods of controlling foot and mouth disease of cattle is by
A. dipping the animals regularly.
B. vaccinating all the animals.
C. vaccinating the infected animals.
D. providing adequate spacing for the animals.
25. The diagrams in Figure 4 below show some examples of vegetables.
Figure 4
Which is a leguminous group?
Section B
SCIENCE (30 marks)
26. Two necessary conditions for a rainbow to form are
A. sunlight and humidity.
B. sunlight and raindrops.
C. clouds and sunlight.
D. raindrops and clouds.
Figure 5 is a chart showing recordings of wind direction. Use it to answer questions 27 and
28.
Figure 5
27. What is the name of this chart?
A. wind rose
B. wind vane
C. wind gauge (anemometer)
D. windsock
129
28. According to the chart, from which direction does the wind mostly come?
A. North-East
B. East
C. South-East
D. South
29. Which of the following liquids will conduct electricity?
(1) salt solution
(2) sugar solution
(3) soap solution
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only)
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3
Study the table below and use it to answer questions 30 and 31.
Planet
X
Venus
Earth
Jupiter
Uranus
Neptune
Distance from the Sun
58 million kilometres
108 million kilometres
150 million kilometres
780 million kilometres
2870 million kilometres
4500 million kilometres
Time for one trip round the sun
88 days
225 days
1 year
12 years
84 years
165 years
30. What is the name of the planet represented by letter X?
A. Mercury
B. Pluto
C. Saturn
D. Mars
31. There is another planet not shown in the table. It is 1430 million kilometres from the sun.
About how long will it take this planet to make one trip round the sun?
A. 10 years
B. 30 years
C. 100 years
D. 250 years
32. The diagrams in Figure 6 show simple electric circuits. When a bulb and battery are
connected by wires as shown in Figure 6a the bulb lights.
Figure 6a
Figure 6b
130
What would happen if the battery is reversed as in Figure 6b?
A. The bulb will be brighter than in Figure 6a.
B. The bulb will be less bright than in Figure 6a.
C. The bulb will light as bright as in Figure 6a.
D. The bulb will not light.
33. A guitar has strings arranged as shown below. The strings are equally tight.
Which string will produce the lowest sound when plucked?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
Figure 7
The diagram in Figure 7 above shows an incident ray of light and four other rays labelled A,
B, C and D. Which of the four rays is reflected from the incident ray?
35. Why are telephone wires tied loosely between telephone poles?
A. to allow the smooth passing of sound
B. to give room for the contraction and expansion of wire
C. to give room for vibrations inside the wire
D. to avoid wire breakage when a pole falls
The diagram in Figure 8 shows how matter changes from one state to another due to heating
or cooling. Use it to answer questions 36 and 37.
Figure 8
131
36. Which number represents the process of evaporation?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
37. Which two numbers represent change of state resulting from cooling of the substance?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
38. Where in a plant does most transpiration take place?
A. leaves
B. roots
C. stems
D. Flowers
39. The diagram in Figure 9 below shows a balance with a 2 kg mass placed at 6 cm away
from the balancing point.
Figure 9
Where on the other side would you place a 4 kg mass in order to balance?
A. 2 cm away from the balancing point
B. 3 cm away from the balancing point
C. 4 cm away from the balancing point
D. 6 cm away from the balancing point
Study the diagram of a food web in Figure 10 below and use it to answer questions 40 and
41.
Figure 10
132
40. Name the producer.
A. maize
B. man
C. locust
D. Chicken
41. Which of the following food chains is correctly represented in the food web?
A. locust ⇒ maize ⇒ man ⇒ frog
B maize ⇒ chicken ⇒ locust ⇒ man
C. locust ⇒ chicken ⇒ snake ⇒ frog
D. maize ⇒ locust ⇒ frog ⇒ snake
42. Mary wanted to find out if sugar dissolves in water just as quickly as salt. She put two
spoonfuls of sugar in a glass of water. She also put two spoonfuls of salt in another glass of
water as shown in Figure 11. She stirred the two solutions slowly and timed how long it took
the sugar and salt to disappear.
What should Mary have done to get accurate results?
A. She should have used equal volumes of water.
B. She should have used the same container.
C. She should have used hot water.
D. She should have stirred quickly.
43. In a simple cell, zinc and copper plates are called
A. positive poles.
B. negative poles.
C. electrolytes.
D. electrodes.
44. In Figure 12 below are drawings of two measuring cylinders. Cylinder 1 contains water
as shown. When a stone is dropped in it the water level rises to a level as shown in cylinder
2. (1 ml = 1 cm3)
Figure 12
133
What is the volume of the stone?
A. 1 cm3
B. 5 cm3
C. 20 cm3
D. 25 cm3
45. The diagram in Figure 13 below shows a column of water trapped in a glass tube.
Figure 13
Why does the column of water rise on gentle heating?
A. Air inside the glass tube expands more than water.
B. Air can take the place of liquids when there is heat.
C. The heat pushes the column of water up.
D. Air expands when heated and pushes the water column up.
46. Figure 14 shows four types of non-flowering plants labelled A, B, C and D.
Figure 14
134
Which one does not manufacture its own food?
47. Substances which allow light to pass through are said to be
A. luminous.
B. spectrum.
C. transparent.
D. opaque.
Figure 15 is a diagram of a water cycle. Study it and answer questions 48 and 49.
Figure 15
48. What is the importance of the sun in the cycle?
A. It is required in rainbow formation.
B. It provides heat which causes water to evaporate.
C. It is necessary in the formation of clouds.
D. It makes the water vapour to condense.
49. Which of the following is the correct order for the cyc
A. 1 ⇒ 2 ⇒ 3 ⇒ 4
B. 2 ⇒ 1 ⇒ 3 ⇒ 4
C. 4 ⇒ 1 ⇒ 2 ⇒ 3
D. 4 ⇒ 3 ⇒ 2 ⇒ 1
50. Which of the following is not a mammal?
A. whale
B. pigeon
C. bat
D. cow
51.
Figure 16
135
When the sun, the moon and the earth are in line as shown in Figure 16 above, which of the
following happens?
A. An eclipse of the sun happens.
B. An eclipse of the moon happens.
C. An eclipse of the earth happens.
D. A lunar-solar eclipse happens.
52. The rotten remains of dead animals and plants in the soil are called
A. loam
B. clay.
C. humus.
D. sand.
53. The diagrams in Figure 17 below show two beakers filled with two different liquids, X and
Y.
Figure 17
Which of the following statements about the two liquids are true?
(1) Particles of X hold each other more strongly than particles of Y.
(2) particles of Y hold each other more strongly than particles of X.
(3) X has a bigger drop size than Y.
(4) Y has a bigger drop size than X.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (1) and (4) only
D. (2) and (4) only
Figure 18 below shows the path of food through the body. Study it and use it to answer
questions 54 and 55.
Figure 18
136
54. The parts labelled 1 and 3 are
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
gullet
gullet
small intestines
email intestines
3
stomach
large intestines
large intestines
stomach
55. Name a fluid produced in the part labelled 2.
A. pancreatic juice
B. bile
C. saliva
D. gastric juice
Section C (15 marks)
HEALTH EDUCATION
56. Which of the following diseases can be caused by careless disposal of human excreta?
A. malaria
B. common cold
C. dysentery
D. Marasmus
57. The first aid to be given to a person bitten by a dog is to
A. tie with a cloth just above the bitten part.
B. wash the bitten part with soap and water.
C. cover up the wound with a dressing.
D. take the patient to the hospital.
58. Figure 19 is a bar chart showing the relationship between smoking habits and the number
of lung cancer patients. Use it to answer questions 58 and 59.
Figure 19
Which group has the lowest danger of suffering from lung cancer?
A. chain smokers
B. moderate smokers
C. light smokers
D. non-smokers
137
59. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Only smokers can suffer from lung cancer.
B. Smoking increases the danger of suffering from lung cancer.
C. Both smokers and non-smokers have equal chance of suffering from lung cancer.
D. Non-smokers can never suffer from lung cancer.
60. At the water works why is alum added to water?
A. to filter the water
B. to stick together pieces of mud
C. to kill germs
D. to dissolve unwanted particles
61. One of the advantages of the under-five clinic is that it allows
A. babies to eat balanced meals.
B. expectant mothers to learn baby care.
C. babies to be vaccinated against childhood diseases.
D. mothers to discuss baby care.
62. How is the malarial parasite transmitted to a new host?
A. through body contact
B. through breathing
C. through eating poorly cooked food
D. through mosquito bite
63. Which of the following tissues join bones to muscles?
A. cartilage
B. fat
C. ligament
D. tendon
64. The part of the ear that carries messages from the ear to the brain is the
A. eardrum.
B. eustacian tube.
C. auditory nerve.
D. optic nerve.
65. One of the causes of anaemia is the deficiency of
A. mineral iron.
B. mineral calcium.
C. vitamin C.
D. vitamin D.
66. What kind of fracture is shown in Figure 20 below?
Figure 20
A. complicated fracture
B. simple fracture
C. compound fracture
D. greenstick fracture
138
67. The immunity that one gets after antibodies have been injected into the body is called
A. inborn immunity.
B. acquired active immunity.
C. acquired passive immunity.
D. natural immunity.
68. Which of the following happens when we do not do exercises?
A. We become lonely.
B. We get tired easily.
C. We become weak.
D. Our bones become soft.
69. At lunch Chifundo ate nsima, cabbage, an orange and cassava. The meal was not a
balanced diet because it did not contain
A. proteins..
B. vitamins.
C. carbohydrates.
D. mineral salts.
70. Study the diagram in Figure 21 below and answer the question that follows.
Figure 21
What is wrong with this set-up?
A. The well can be contaminated.
B. The latrine can fall into the well.
C. The wind can blow bad smell from the latrine to the well.
D. The latrine can be used by too many people coming to draw water.
END OF QUESTION PAPER
139
3.4.4. 1994 Primary School Leaving Certificate Examinations/Science and Health
Incorporated Paper
THE MALAWI NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS BOARD
1994 PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION
SCIENCE AND HEALTH EDUCATION
(100 marks)
Subject Number: P191
Wednesday, 13 July
Time Allowed: 2 hours
1.30 - 3.30 pm
Instructions:
1. This paper contains 16 pages. Please check.
2. Write the name of the District where you are writing the examination, Centre Number and
your Examination Number on every sheet in the spaces provided.
3. Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
4. If you find any question too difficult, leave it and return to it later if you have time.
5. If you have any questions about these instructions, ask them now. You may not ask
questions once the examination has begun.
DISTRICT
_______________
1994
CENTRE NO.
_______________
EXAMINATION NO.
_______________
P191
SCIENCE
1. a. What do we call water when it is in solid form?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Figure 1 is a diagram showing a saucer and a cup containing equal volumes of water.
Figure 1
Suggest a reason why the water will evaporate faster from the saucer than from the cup.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
140
2. Figure 2 is a diagram showing the result of mixing paraffin, water and cooking oil (covo)
labelled A, B and C but not necessarily in that order.
Figure 2
a. Which of these, A, B or C is paraffin?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Give a reason for your answer to 2a.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
3. If an axe with a wooden handle is left lying in the sun for some hours, the axe feels hot
while the handle feels warm.
Suggest a reason for this difference.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
4. a. (i) Mention one type of mosquito.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) What disease is transmitted by the type of mosquito you have mentioned in 4a (i)?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Give any two ways in which the number of mosquitoes in a given area can be reduced.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
c. What does an ant lion eat?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
141
5. Figure 3 is a diagram showing an empty plastic bottle A and the same bottle B when it is
squeezed.
Figure 3
Why does the stopper in bottle B go out?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
6. a. State two conditions that are necessary for the multiplication of bacteria.
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. In what two ways are bacteria important to man?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
7. a. What is the centre of the solar system?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Name the type of movement the earth makes which results into day and night.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. Explain why the new moon is not visible.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
d. Give one reason why life is impossible on the moon.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
142
8. Figure 4 is a diagram showing an Irish potato tuber that is beginning to grow:
Figure 4
a. Name tw o features which show that the tuber is a stem.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. What is the function of this type of stem?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
9. a. Name the two parts which make up a stamen of a flower.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. Maize is usually cross pollinated.
(i) What is cross pollination?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) How are the chances of self pollination reduced in a maize plant?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
10. a. What feature makes the toes of the hind legs of a frog similar to those of a duck?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. What is the function of the feature you have mentioned in 10a?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
11. The image of an object on the film in a pin-hole camera is upside down. What property of
light does this show?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
143
12. a. State two ways in which sounds differ.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. Figure 5 is a diagram of one of the musical instruments played in Malawi.
Figure 5
(i) What is the name of the instrument?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) How is this instrument played?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
13. a. Explain why mineral salts are easily washed away in sandy soil.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Mention one way in which earthworms are useful in the soil.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
14. The table below shows readings on a wet and dry bulb thermometer taken from Monday
to Friday.
Dry Bulb
Wet Bulb
Mon
30°C
25°C
Tue
27°C
26°C
Wed
28°C
27.5°C
Thur
30°C
24.5°C
a. On which day was humidity lowest?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. (i) On which day did it likely rain?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) Give a reason for your answer to 14b (i).
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
144
Frid
30.5°C
24°C
15. Figure 6 is a diagram showing how living things depend on each other for food.
Figure 6
a. Complete the diagram by filling in the blank box. (1 mark)
b. What would happen to:
(i) the grasshoppers if all the frogs disappeared?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) the organism you have mentioned in 15a if all the frogs disappeared?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. Give a reason for your answer to 15b (ii).
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
16. a. Mention two plants which can be grown using a stem.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. How does water from the ground get to all parts of the plant?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
17. Figure 7 is a diagram showing a balancing beam.
4 bottle-tops of the same weight were placed on side A
3 cm away from the centre.
Figure 7
On side B, where would you put 2 bottle-tops of the same weight as those on side A in order
to balance the beam? Show your work.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (3 marks)
145
18. A pupil is given the materials shown in figure 8 below.
Figure 8
Explain how the pupil would use the measuring cylinder and the water to measure the volume
of the stone.
_____________________________________________ (3 marks)
19. Figure 9 is a diagram showing beaks of two different birds.
Figure 9
a. Suggest the type of food each one of them feeds on.
(i) A feeds on ______________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) B feeds on _____________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Give reasons for your answer to 19a (i) and (ii).
(i) A _____________________________________________
_________________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) B _____________________________________________
__________________________________________________ (1 mark)
20. Figure 10 is a diagram showing a ray of light striking a glass containing water.
Figure 10
Complete the diagram to show how the ray passes through the water and comes out on the
other side of the glass. (2 marks)
146
HEALTH EDUCATION
21. a. What do you call a place where two or more bones meet?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Mention one common injury that can occur where two or more bones meet.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. State one sign of the injury you have mentioned in 21b.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
22. a. Study the following list of food items:
cassava, fish, beans, pineapples, rice and mangoes.
Choose any three food items from the above list which make a balanced meal.
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. How does each of the three food items you have chosen in 22a help to make a balanced
meal?
(i) _____________________________________________
(ii) _____________________________________________
(iii) _____________________________________________ (3 marks)
23. a. A patient with diarrhoea should be given plenty of water to which some substances are
added.
Mention the two substances.
(i) _____________________________________________
(ii) _____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. Give one reason why a patient with diarrhoea should be given such a drink.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
24. State why it is necessary to
a. prevent things from entering our eyes.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. have our eyes checked by an eye specialist regularly.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
147
25. Figure 11 is a diagram showing a road sign.
Figure 11
a. What is the meaning of this road sign?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Figure 12 is a diagram showing two roads crossing.
Figure 12
(i) You want to go to C from A on a busy day. Which path is safer, A to C direct, or A to B and
then to C?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) Give a reason for your choice.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
26. a. State two reasons why it is more important to breathe through the nose than through
the mouth.
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. (i) Write one possible cause of nose bleeding.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) What first aid would you give to a patient with nose bleeding?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
148
27. a. What is immunisation?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Mention one way in which immunisation is done.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. State one disease that can be prevented by immunisation.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
28. Figure 13 is a flow diagram which can be used by a family to make river water safe for
drinking.
Figure 13
a. Why is the water filtered?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Why is the water still not safe for drinking after being filtered?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. (i) What process is carried out at X?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) Explain why the process carried out at X is important.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
d. How is the water protected from contamination when stored in the container?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
29. a. Give two differences in behaviour between a person who is drunk and one who is not
drunk.
Drunk
(i) ______________________
______________________
(ii) ______________________
______________________
Not Drunk
______________________________
______________________________
______________________________
______________________________
(2 marks)
b. Give two reasons why it is important to avoid smoking indian hemp (chamba).
(i) _____________________________________________
(ii) _____________________________________________ (2 marks)
149
30. a. State two ways in which a person can get infected by rabies.
(i) _____________________________________________
(ii) _____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. Give two ways in which dogs can be protected from diseases.
(i) _____________________________________________
(ii) _____________________________________________ (2 marks)
31. a. Name any one organisation which deals with Public Health in Malawi.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Mention two parts of the human body where bilharzia parasites feed and lay their eggs.
(i) _____________________________________________
(ii) _____________________________________________ (2 marks)
END OF QUESTION PAPER
3.4.5. 1994 Primary School Leaving Certificate Examinations/Agriculture Incorporated
Paper
THE MALAWI NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS BOARD
1994 PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION
AGRICULTURE
Subject Number: P012
Tuesday, 12 July
(100 marks)
Time Allowed: 2 hours
1.30 - 3.30 pm
Instructions:
1. This paper contains 15 pages. Please check.
2. Write your District Name, Centre Number, and Examination Number In the spaces at
the top of every page.
3. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
4. The marks for each question are indicated in the brackets.
5. If you find any question too difficult, leave it and return to it later.
6. If time allows, check your answers.
7. If you have any questions about these instructions, ask them now. You may not ask
questions once the examination has begun.
150
Answer all questions
(Each question carries 4 marks)
1. The diagram below shows a fruit crop.
a. Name the fruit crop.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Name the planting material for the crop shown in the diagram.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. Give any two varieties of the fruit crop.
(i) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
2. a. How do cattle get infected by liverfluke?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. What effect does liverfluke have on cattle?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c State any two methods of controlling liverfluke.
(i) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
151
The map below shows the national parks and game reserves of Malawi.
a. Name the National Parks labelled A and B.
A _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
B _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Name any one animal which is commonly found in B.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. State any one method of conserving wild life in a National Park.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
152
4. The diagram below shows a farm implement.
a. Name the farm implement.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Identify the parts labelled A and B.
A _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
B _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. What is the function of the part labelled C?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
5. a. Name any two varieties of oranges grown in Malawi.
(i) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Name the most serious disease of oranges.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. How can the named disease be controlled?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
7. The diagram below shows a method of harvesting maize.
153
a. Name the method.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. State two advantages of this method of harvesting maize,
(i) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. State one disadvantage of this method of harvesting maize.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
a. Name one tool that is recommended for transplanting vegetable seedlings.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. What is the recommended spacing for large headed cabbage varieties?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. State two ways of controlling aphids in cabbage.
(i) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
8. a. State any two reasons why farmers keep farm records.
(i) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Explain the two main types of farm records.
(i) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
9. The diagram below shows a crop pest.
a. Identify the pest.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Name the crop attacked by the pest.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
154
c. State the damage caused by the pest.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
d. How can the pest be controlled?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
10. a. What are natural resources?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. How can the following natural resources be conserved?
(i) Soil _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) Vegetable _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(iii) Water _____________________________________ (1 mark)
11. The diagram below shows a vegetable crop.
a. Name the crop.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. To which group of vegetables does it belong?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. Give a reason why the crop does not require Nitrogen fertilizer.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
d. How would you control aphid attack in the named crop?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
155
12. The table below shows characteristics of soil.
Soil
Characteristics
Texture
Aeration
Water holding
Nutrient holding capacity
Soil
A
Very fine
Poor
Very high
Very high
Soil
B
Course
Good
Low
Low
Soil
C
Fine to course
Moderately good
Medium
Medium
a. Identify soils A and B.
(i) A _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) B _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Which of the three soils A, B and C is most suitable for the growing of maize?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. How would you improve the water holding capacity of soil B?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
13. The diagram below shows parts of a cotton plant.
a. Name the parts labelled A and B.
A _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
B _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. What is the function of the part labelled C?
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. Identify the type of root system labelled D.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
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14. The diagram below shows a type of cattle khola.
a. Name the type of khola.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Give any two disadvantages of such type of khola.
(i) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. State one way of improving this type of khola.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
15. a. Define the term experiment.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Give one reason why field experiments are important in agriculture.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. What is fertilizer trial?
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 mark)
6. Explain how the following environmental factors influence agriculture production:
a. Rainfall
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. Temperature
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
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17. The diagram below illustrates groups of class of land.
a. Name the groups of classes labelled A and C.
A _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
C _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. State the most suitable use for each of the groups of classes of land labelled B and D.
(i) B _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) D_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
18. Name one tool or implement used in each of the following centres of civilization:
a. China
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Egypt
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
c. India
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
d. Mesopotamia
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
19. a. Mention tw o types of fish suitable for pond breeding.
(i) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Give one reason why manure is applied to fish ponds.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
158
c. Give one reason why farmers are encouraged to grow fish in ponds.
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
20. a. Name any two types of goats based on function.
(i) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Explain any one principle of goat management.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
21. The diagrams below show some common tools on farms in Malawi.
a. Name the tools labelled A and B.
A _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
B _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. Give one use of each tool.
A _____________________________________________ (1 mark)
B _____________________________________________ (1 nark)
22. State two advantages and two disadvantages of deep litter system of keeping poultry.
a. advantages:
(i) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
b. disadvantages:
(i) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
159
23. A farmer sows Malimba groundnuts at one seed per hole, 10 cm apart in a single row on
ridges which are 90 cm apart.
a. Calculate the plant population per hectare. Show your working.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. State two ways in which high plant population reduces yield.
(i) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
(ii) _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
24. State any four reasons for the rapid agricultural development in Malawi after
independence.
a. _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
b. _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
c. _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
d. _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (4 marks)
25. A farmer has 1.5 hectares of land on which to plant hybrid maize. The recommended
seed rate is 25 kg per hectare.
a. How much seed should he buy? Show your working.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
b. How much fertilizer should he buy if the recommended rate is 100 kg of urea per hectare?
Show your working.
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________ (2 marks)
END OF QUESTION PAPER
Note: This paper contains 15 papers
160
3.5. Namibia
3.5.1. Overview
End of School Examination
1. Title of examination:
Junior Secondary Certificate (JSC)
2. Amount of fees charged:
≈ US$6
3. Examination after years in school (6, 7, 8
years):
10 yrs
4. Children's entry age in primary school:
6 yrs
5. Number of pupils sitting examination in
1994:
15,000 - 20,000
6. Examination subjects offered:
9
7. Language of examination:
English
8. Institution
questions:
setting
the
examination
9. Have there been any reforms in the
examination questions?
Examinations Directorate
Yes
When? (year)
1992
What kind?
Increase the number of multiple-choice
items. Change from only recall to other
domains as well. Make more use of
diagrams.
Include
more
continued
assessment and start making use of
projects.
10. Stages of development of examination
questions(please describe):
• Make sure all people know the syllabus.
• Invite people to the item-writing workshop
(to be nominated by the regional offices).
• Put up a specification grid.
• Divide in groups. Groups work on various
topics. Every member of the group writes
items (15-20 each) according to the
specification grid.
• Workshop co-ordinated by curriculum
expert or examination expert.
• Groups exchange items, moderate,
improve or reject.
• Items stored in bank.
• Examination expert/curriculum expert
finalizing examination paper.
11. Type of examination questions and
distribution of different kind of questions
30% multiple-choice
5% closed type
5% matching
60% structured
161
12. Is continuous assessment incorporated
in the final examination?
Yes [x]
No [ ]
It varies from 33%-50%.
If yes, to what extent?
13. Are examination items pretested?
Yes [ ]
No [x] 4 pilot schools will write a full Junior
Secondary Certificate examination used for
pre-testing purposes.
14. Which professional groups are involved
in setting the examination questions?
• Secondary school teachers
• School inspectors (subject advisors)
• Examination and curriculum experts
15. Are the same professionals who set the
examination questions involved in marking
papers?
Yes [x]
No [ ]
They are involved in item-writing and
marking, however, not responsible for final
examination papers' design.
16. How are examination results used for
improving teaching?
Every year an examinators' report and
moderators' report is sent to schools after
examinations,
giving
hints
and
recommendations on how to improve
answering items and teaching.
17. To what other uses are the examination
results put?
• Junior Secondary Certificate
• Entering into IGCSE (International
General
Certificate
of
Secondary
Education) (selection)
•
Monitoring
education,
teachers'
performance, curriculum.
18. Main problem with School Leaving
Examinations?
• Lack of experts in multiple-choice itemwriting.
• Lack of experts in continued assessment.
• Lack of resources.
Note: The introduction of an end of primary school examination is planned for 1999. The
following statements concern the existing Junior Secondary Certificate only.
3.5.2. Curriculum Development and Examinations in Namibia
by Jacobus A. Myburgh, Directorate of Curriculum Research and Development, and Cavin M.
Nyambe, Directorate of Examinations
Curriculum Development since Independence
Namibia gained its independence in March 1990 after 105 years under foreign rule, thereby
becoming the last country in Africa to be de-colonialized. Namibia is a vast, sparsely
populated country on the South Atlantic coast. It is bordered by Botswana and Zimbabwe in
the East, South Africa in the South and Angola and Zambia in the North. The capital is
Windhoek. Namibia occupies an area of 82,4296 sqkm and is mainly arid or semi-arid, with
the Namib Desert, the oldest in the world, extending along the entire coastline. In the North
Eastern Caprivi Region the annual rainfall is, however, approximately 600 mm per annum.
We have a population of 1.5 million with a population density of 1.5 persons per square
kilometre. There are eleven ethnic groups. A variety of 18 different languages and dialects are
spoken. The official language is English.
162
450,000 pupils enrolled in Namibia's schools for 1992. The distribution in the different school
phases are as follows.
Grade
1 - 3 (junior primary)
4 - 7 (senior primary)
8 - 10 (junior secondary)
11 - 12 (senior secondary)
204,350
156,825
75,013
13,269
Following independence it was decided by the Ministry of Education and Culture to embark
upon a major reform process. Reform was initiated in junior secondary education. Local and
international experts were given the task of redrafting the curricula for grades 8-10. The
change-over to the new curriculum coincided with the change-over to English as the medium
of instruction.
Learners in the Junior Secondary School (grades 8, 9 and 10) are now following the Namibian
Junior Secondary Curriculum. The first national, external examination for grade 10 took place
in 1993. There are, however, a number of project schools testing the new curriculum and
allowing us to gain experience so as to enable us to make the necessary changes, if any, to
the curriculum.
The Senior Secondary School introduced the internationally recognized IGCSE curriculum in
1994. The reform of primary school education has also been initiated and the new Broad
Curriculum has been finalized. Curriculum panels have developed new syllabi for all the
subjects.
Changes in Examinations
Examinations can be looked at in two ways as they can be internal which is school-based and
external which is done at national level. The examinations are controlled by the Directorate of
Examinations in Namibia.
(1) Primary School Leaving Examination (Grade 1-7)
Before independence, Namibia was divided into eleven ethnic groups, thus each group or
region had full control over its internal examination. Question setting, marking and writing of
progress reports was school-based. Promotion schedules which show all marks recorded for
the year were approved by the regional inspectors. In some regions semi-external papers
were set by different examiners in the region for grade 7.
Namibia does not offer any external examination after the primary phase. The mode of
examination undertaken is school-based assessment, which is mainly under the control of the
Regional Directors, Head-teachers and Subject Teachers. The examination is used for
promotion and selection to the next grade or class. It is the responsibility of each school to
draw up its own examination question papers and all other related materials. It is difficult to
establish a national standard as the examination is not done at national level. The Ministry is
preparing to introduce a school leaving certificate after Grade 7 in the near future. Experts
from the Curriculum division and Examination division are engaged in the drafting of syllabi
for Grade 5, 6 and 7.
(2) Junior Secondary School Leaving Examination
There is more emphasis put in this section. After the first two years (Grades 8 and 9) an
internal examination is done by the school. At the end of the last part of the year (Grade 10)
an external examination at national level is written by all schools registered. The Directorate
of National Examinations and Assessment is responsible for control and administration. The
New Broad Curriculum was implemented in 1991 on which a new national examination was
written in November 1993. Examiners and markers are appointed at national level. Marking is
centrally done, therefore it is easier to work out all the statistical information needed. It is a
subject examination where a learner is graded on positive achievement. A certificate is
awarded for every subject graded. The grade symbols are as follows: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and
UN (ungraded).
163
Learners are to do the following six compulsory subjects:
• English
• Mathematics
• Physical Science
• Life Science
• Geography
• History
There are options from the following subjects:
• Accounting
• Business Management
• Agricultural Production & Farming Technology
• Technical Subjects
• Music
• School Art, and many others.
A points system is used for the best six subjects as an entrance to IGCSE or HIGCSE.
Learners are expected to complete the Junior Secondary School between the age of 15-16
years.
NIED = National Institute for Educational Development
164
3.5.3. Agricultural Production and Farming Technology: Scheme of Assessment.
Terminal Examination 1992
Paper 1
Section A: (45 minutes) 20 Multiple questions. (1 mark each); 5 close type (fill in the missing
word, 1 mark each); matching type (5 marks)
Total: 30 marks
Section B: (1 hour 30 minutes) compulsory short-answer and structured question with
subdivisions weighted as follows:
1.
2.
3.
4.
General Agriculture (section 1)
Crop Husbandry (section 2)
Animal Husbandry (section 3)
Farming Technology (section 4)
Total
15 marks
25 marks
20 marks
10 marks
70 marks
This will carry 50% while the continuous Assessment will also carry 50%. The final mark will
be 100%.
Sample question from the Grade 10 Specimen paper for 1992 exams. (From the Draft)
Section A. Choose
1. What process involves loosening the soil before planting in order to obtain a deep, loose
soil?
*
a. harrowing
b. levelling
c. ploughing
d. ridging
2. What is the function of the epididymis?
*
a. To make sperm
b. To produce sperm
c. To store sperm
d. To transport sperm
Fill in the missing words
3. (a) The water which is available to plants is known as.........?
(b)................is the production of crops and the rearing of livestock.
4. Choose from column B the correct word or phrase which suits the word in column A. Write
the correct letter in the box provided.
Column A
Column B
1. mealie meal
A. Enzyme
165
2. Groundnut cake
B. Ovary
3. hand-hoe
C. Testes
4. Spermatogenesis
D. Carbohydrate-rich
5. Amylase
E. Farm tool
F. Protein rich Concentrate
G. Roughage
Section B
1. State the function of the following parts of the ruminants digestive system.
a. Teeth...............
b. Rumen...............
c. Small intestine......
The diagram shows the reproductive system of a ruminant. Label the parts labelled A, B, C, D
and F.
166
3.6. South Africa
3.6.1. Independent Examinations Board.1 Report on Standard 7 Pilot Programme. 1993
Examinations Programme
by D.R. Pitt
1
Note: In South Africa the Independent Examinations Board, a NON-Governmental
Organization, offers an end of primary school examination. Preparations and trials were
conducted in 1992/93. Since 1994 Std. VII leavers of primary school can sit this
examination. The draft syllabus and examination papers (General Science) from 1993 and
1995 are included.
Examining Panels
In 1993 the IEB Standard 7 Pilot Examinations Programme was expanded to include I
examinations in Combined Science, History and Geography, and examinations in English
First and Second Language and Mathematics. In English and Mathematics continuity was
maintained, members of the panel in most cases being previous examiners. The new
examinations were set by examining panels, the members being nominated by the user
groups and the final selection made by the IEB. Apart from three members of the
Mathematics panel of four, all examiners were drawn from teachers in IEB schools.
Participants
Approximately 5,000 candidates from 77 schools were entered for the 1993 examinations.
The subject breakdown was as follows:
English First Language:
English Second Language:
Mathematics:
Combined Science:
History:
Geography:
3,500
1,550
4,500
3,893
3,219
3,026
The participating schools were affiliated to different education authorities, and came from
these areas:
Eastern and Western Cape
Transkei
Natal and Kwa-Zulu
Leboa, Gazankulu and Venda
Northern Transvaal
Bophuthatswana
The Vaal Triangle
Orange Free State
The school entries varied in number from 6 to 199, and were diverse in composition, some
being single sex and others co-educational.
Comment
1993 marks the end of the Pilot Project begun in May 1990. Most of the objectives then set
out have been achieved. They were:
a. to gain expertise in the organization of a national examination and to build a cumulative
record in English of the first IEB matriculation group of 1993;
167
b. to involve schools in all parts of South Africa affiliated to varying education autorities;
c. to involve teachers in every stage of the examining process;
d. to explore the viability of testing a wide range of pupils in one examination.
One of the most significant developments of the project has been the establishment and
expansion of the user groups, and the teachers involved have found the contacts across the
academic and geographical spectrum immensely exciting and valuable.
3.6.2. Independent Examinations Board. Standard 7 Examinations 1993 - Combined
Science
by Rose Smuts
The enormous differences in syllabus content which exist from school to school severely
limited the points of reference of the 1993 Combined Science examination.
The skills which were considered by the initial examinations committee as relevant to 14 year
olds are not adequately learnt in many schools, viz. construction of graphs, experimental
method etc. Therefore a description of content and skills to be examined was circulated to all
participating schools in July for their information.
Examination Format of the final 1993 Combined Science Examination
This was successful in the following respects:
a. most candidates appeared to have sufficient time to complete the examination;
b. most candidates were able to answer some questions on the paper;
c. many teachers commented favourable on a new approach - »a breath of fresh air«; this
was on the skills orientation of questions and the examination presentation;
e. the marks achieved by all candidates were realistic, taking into account the limitations.
This examination was unsuccessful in the following respects:
• the »academically advantaged« candidates from well established schools who wrote the
examination in their home language found the paper too easy - some silly errors were still
made by these candidates, but some of their marks were unrealistically high;
• the factual content was limited and candidates were able to score well without having to
put in a realistic effort.
Comments on the Examination
Section A
1. Many candidates do not know how to answer a series of multiple-choice questions.
2. The diagrams, graphs and some tables of data, needed clearer presentation.
3. Many people have unrealistic expectations of 14 year old Std 7 pupils; pages must not
be too crowded as this leads to confusion; the language used must be simple and clear;
giving of instructions and provision of data or text, must be at a level which is accessible to
all.
168
4. Terms (such as hypothesis) need clarification; perhaps the syllabus should specify the
use of some special terms (in this example »Aim« is preferable).
5. Certain skills considered by some teachers to be fundamental are lacking in many
candidates. The IEB needs to set up communications and assistance in these areas:
• understanding text which includes some terminology
• graphs - their construction and interpretation
• science methodology - simple experimental procedure
• understanding and application of units of measurement
• models and their application for teaching the »abstract«
• biological sectional views
6. The »New Syllabus for 1994«, available early in 1994, will identify skills which can be
used in order effectively to »teach« certain areas of the syllabus; the Exemplar Booklet,
available in February 1994 will have further examples of lesson plans, ideas for teaching,
notes on how to get into graphs - their construction, application and interpretation, some
examination questions, flow charts etc.
Section B
1. The open ended, creative-type questions were poorly answered; they were either
misinterpreted or the answers given were too non-specific. Their wording needs
clarification.
2. The graphs were disastrous; they were either left out altogether, or incorrectly drawn the application of bar graphs as opposed to line graphs, needs further elaboration.
Identification of the dependent and independent variable was confused.
3. Experimental design was poorly executed; clear concise descriptions of method need
encouragement; identification of variables also needs elaboration.
4. Calculations of a simple nature (% calculation) were poorly handled. There is no
realization of cross-curriculum application of knowledge in some candidates.
5. The examination questions need to be relevant to everyday examples or situations.
6. Difficulties with language/text appear to be the root cause of many problems.
7. Pupils are unfamiliar with some »basic« materials e.g. cottonwool etc.
3.6.3. Draft Syllabus for General (Combined) Science1 1994
Independent Examinations Board
1
Implementation date: 1994. This document is of an interim nature, subject to revision. It
will form part of a larger syllabus covering the whole of the junior secondary phase.
1. Introduction
The Independent Examination Board syllabus for General (or Combined) Science for the
General Education Certificate is, at this stage, an interim syllabus designed for the
examination of students (age 14 - plus: Standard Seven level) from the end of 1994.
Both the syllabus itself and the use of the name »General Science« are based on the current
core syllabus. However, the IEB believes that a very different approach to the teaching of the
subject will be encouraged by the setting of examination questions which focus on the aims
and objectives outlined below.
169
The content of this syllabus has thus been reorganised in what is believed to be a more
integrated and more meaningful way. The order of presenting the syllabus content is in no
way finite and can be re-arranged by any inventive teacher, in order to suit his/her particular
vision. An integrated approach is however strongly recommended as integrated questions will
be used in the IEB examination.
The main sections of this syllabus are as follows:
• Aims
• General Objectives
• Specific Curriculum Objectives
• Assessment Specifications
2. Aims/Educational Purpose of the Course
The aims are the same for ALL students independent of background and/or future career
prospects in the sciences. They are not listed in any order of priority. The course is based on
the assumption that the examination will take place at the end of the compulsory phase of
schooling, and that successful candidates will have demonstrated a good basic education in
science serving as a foundation both for further learning and for life in general.
The aims are to enable students to acquire:
2.1 Some basic SCIENTIFIC KNOWLEDGE which will enable them to understand their
world better, communicate better and/or pursue studies in science or science dependent
courses, beyond the Std. 7 level.
2.2 Certain manual and thinking skills which are useful in solving scientific and/or everyday
problems.
2.3 An awareness of what science is all about and of its importance in everyday life.
2.4 Certain useful attitudes about themselves, their safety, the processes of science and
their environment.
3. General Objectives
These relate to the four main aims listed above.
3.1 Knowledge
At the end of the course students should be able to demonstrate KNOWLEDGE AND
UNDERSTANDING of:
• some basic scientific concepts and their application to familiar and new situations;
• some facts and concepts concerning the environment;
• the use of appropriate (although basic) instruments for scientific experiments;
• simple scientific vocabulary and its usage.
Note: The Curriculum Objectives define the factual material that students need to recall and
explain. Questions testing these objectives will often begin with one of the following words:
define, state, describe, explain or outline.
3.2 Manual and Thinking Skills
A. HANDLING INFORMATION AND SOLVING PROBLEMS
170
Students should be able, in words or using other written forms of presentation (ie. symbolic,
graphical & numerical) to:
1. locate, select, organise and present information from a variety of sources;
2. transpose information from one form to another;
3. manipulate simple numerical and other data;
4. use information to identify patterns, report trends and draw simple conclusions;
5. present reasoned explanations of phenomena, patterns and relationships;
6. make simple predictions and propose hypotheses, giving supporting evidence;
7. solve problems, including some of a quantitative nature.
B. EXPERIMENTAL SKILLS AND INVESTIGATIONS
Students should be able to:
1. use techniques, apparatus and materials (including the following of a sequence of
instructions where appropriate);
2. make and record observations and measurements;
3. interpret and evaluate experimental observations and data;
4. plan and carry out simple investigations, evaluate methods and suggest possible
improvements (including the selection of techniques, apparatus and materials).
3.3 Attitudes
Students should have acquired attitudes of:
• self confidence and independence;
• responsibility for their own learning;
• perseverance and tenacity;
• tolerance for the views of others;
• co-operation when working in a group;
• open-mindedness towards alternative perspectives;
• a healthy scientific scepticism requiring justification;
• an enthusiasm for science.
3.4 Awareness
Students should demonstrate an awareness of:
• the inter-relationship of different disciplines of science;
• the relationship of science to other aspects of the school curriculum;
• the dangerous nature of certain substances and phenomena;
• the fun and enjoyment to be found in the science curriculum;
• the importance of objectivity in observation.
Note: Although the objectives 3.3 and 3.4 are difficult to measure in an external examination,
they are considered as very important. Teachers should devise their own methods of
assessing these summatively.
171
Summary of Inter-Relationships
4. Curriculum Objectives
It is important that the Physical Science and Biology content of this Standard 7 Syllabus
should be presented in an integrated manner. To help accomplish this and to make it more
meaningful, the syllabus has been re-ordered. Guidance has also been offered as to which
thinking, process and manual skills can be used to enhance learning in each area of the
syllabus.
The subject content is set out as a combination of the traditional Physics, Chemistry and
Biology topics in an attempt to encourage teachers to use a more integrated approach in their
teaching of these sciences. This does not mean that parallel teaching by a team of specialist
teachers should not occur. Consultation, co-operation and cross-referencing are however
recommended.
An explanatory booklet containing exemplars of course content will be made available to all
participating schools early in 1994. This document should be read together with the syllabus.
172
Guidelines to the Examiner & all Teachers
1. The Curriculum Objectives outlined below are designed to provide guidance to as to what
will be assessed; they are not meant to limit, in any way, the teaching programme of any
particular school.
2. Only the subject material contained within the first two Columns entitled »Topic Core
and Core Extensions« are examinable as regards factual content, in detail.
3. The »Supplement« section is optional; each teacher may decide whether or not to use
material contained within this section. It is included in an attempt to provide guidance to the
less experienced teacher. This section is printed in italics.
4. The »Skills & Teaching Suggestions« section in the exemplar booklet is likewise an aid to
teachers. This section will, however, play a role in shaping the types of questions the IEB
Combined Science Examination will contain. (Refer to the 1993 IEB Combined Science
Examination in the IEB Combined Science Exemplar Booklet: available March 1994).
5. This Syllabus will form the basis of the IEB General [Combined] Science Examination. A list
of topics to be examined externally by the IEB will be circularised each year.
6. The above-mentioned IEB Combined Science Exemplar Booklet contains:
• The 1993 IEB Combined Science Examination paper & marking memorandum;
• Hints on teaching aspects of the syllabus;
• A list of the thinking, process and manual skills students should be introduced to and
ways of devising exercises which incorporate or illustrate these skills;
• Some sample lessons;
• Some sample tests or practical lesson suggestions, sample answers from students and
their evaluation.
• This Exemplar Booklet will be upgraded and developed constantly; any teacher who has
suitable material which could be included in this booklet, should be encouraged to submit it
to:
The Deputy Director - Curriculum Development
Independent Examinations Board
PO Box 875
HIGHLANDS NORTH 2037
173
3.6.4. Independent Examinations Board. General Science Examination Paper 1995
(General Education Certificate)
EXAMINATION NUMBER _________________
INDEPENDENT EXAMINATIONS BOARD
GENERAL EDUCATION CERTIFICATE
OCTOBER 1995
GENERAL SCIENCE EXAMINATION
Time: 1 ½ hours
100 marks
PLEASE READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. Write your examination number in the space provided at the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of 22 pages. Please check that your paper is
complete.
3. Use the reading time to go through the examination paper carefully.
4. Write clearly and neatly.
5. Answer Questions 1-9 on the answer grid for multiple choice questions on
Page 3.
6. Answer Questions 10-20 in the space provided on the question paper.
1-9
10
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
TOTAL
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS BELOW BEFORE YOU ANSWER QUESTIONS 1-9.
Questions 1-9 are MULTIPLE CHOICE questions.
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Read each question through carefully.
For each question, there are FOUR possible answers (A, B, C and D). Three of these
answers are WRONG. Only one of these answers is CORRECT.
2. Choose which ONE of the four possible answers is correct.
3. Look at the letter (A, B, C or D) next to the CORRECT answer.
4. On the page called ANSWER GRID FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (Page 3), find
the number of the question. Use a PENCIL to draw a LARGE cross through the LETTER of
the answer which you think is correct.
5. You may draw only ONE cross on each line.
174
Example:
QUESTION 64
Pure water
A
B
C
D
is a green solid
is a liquid
has a very strong smell
conducts electricity very well.
The answer to Question 64 is B. Show this on the Answer Sheet as below:
ANSWER GRID FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
QUESTION 1
'AIDS is caused by a virus which can only live in blood, semen, and vaginal fluid.' People can
catch AIDS by...
A using the same fork and knife as a person who has AIDS.
B having sex with a person who has AIDS.
C holding hands with a person who has AIDS.
D swimming with a person who has AIDS.
QUESTION 2
Iron sulphide is
A a MIXTURE which has properties of iron and properties of sulphur
B a MIXTURE of iron and sulphur with properties which are NOT the same as the
properties of iron and sulphur
C a COMPOUND with the same properties as iron and sulphur
D a COMPOUND with properties very different to the properties of iron and sulphur
(2)
175
QUESTION 3
Which activity below uses the most glucose?
The amount of energy a 65 kg man needs in a minute
(2)
QUESTION 4
The diagram below represents the particles of which a metal teaspoon is made. The diagram
shows how the particles are arranged on a very cold day.
Which of the diagrams below represents the same particles after the teaspoon has been in
boiling water for twenty minutes?
(2)
176
QUESTION 5
The following diagrams show different systems in the human body. Each system performs a
life process. Choose the system that is involved in the transport of oxygen and nutrients
throughout the body.
nerve system
A
blood system
B
excretory system
C
breathing system
D
(2)
QUESTION 6
We inhale and exhale air all the time.
Choose the correct answer from the choices below.
A Exhaled air contains less oxygen and less carbon-dioxide than inhaled air.
B Exhaled air contains less oxygen and more carbon-dioxide than inhaled air.
C Inhaled air contains less oxygen and more carbon-dioxide than exhaled air.
D Exhaled air contains more oxygen and more carbon-dioxide than inhaled air.
(2)
QUESTIONS 7 AND 8 BOTH REFER TO THE DRAWING PIN IN DIAGRAM 7.
QUESTION 7
The area of the head of a drawing pin is 100 times bigger than the area of the point of the
drawing pin.
A boy presses the drawing pin onto a piece of wood with a force of 15 N as shown below:
177
DIAGRAM 7
What force does the point of the drawing pin exert on the wood?
A 15 N
B 100 x 15 N
15 N
C
100
D The point exerts no force on the wood.
(2)
QUESTION 8
The statements below are about the pressure acting on the head of the drawing pin and the
pressure acting at the point of the pin.
Which statement is correct?
A The pressure acting on the head of the pin is the same as the pressure acting at
point of the pin.
B The pressure acting at the point of the pin is greater than the pressure acting on
head of the pin.
C The pressure acting at the point of the pin is smaller than the pressure acting on
head of the pin.
D It is impossible to compare these pressures because the question does not give
area of the head or the area of the point of the pin.
the
the
the
the
(2)
QUESTION 9
The picture below represents a closed container in which there are particles of the gas
oxygen at room temperature.
178
Which of the diagrams below shows the arrangement of the same oxygen particles when we
make the gas very cold? (The oxygen does NOT turn into a liquid when we cool it.)
(2)
18 marks
PLEASE ANSWER QUESTIONS 10-20 IN THE SPACES PROVIDED ON THE QUESTION
PAPER.
QUESTION 10
Nitrogen reacts with hydrogen to form ammonia. Nitrogen, hydrogen and ammonia are gases
at room temperature.
Diagram 10 below represents the particles of these three gases - nitrogen, hydrogen and
ammonia.
DIAGRAM 10
Use Diagram 10 to help you answer the questions below:
10.1
10.2
10.3
10.4
10.5
10.6
Is nitrogen an element or a compound?
___________________________________________
Is ammonia an element or a compound?
___________________________________________
Are the particles of nitrogen gas in Diagram 10 atoms or molecules?
___________________________________________
Write the chemical formula for ammonia gas.
___________________________________________
How many atoms of hydrogen are there in 6 molecules of ammonia?
___________________________________________
Write the formula for 4 molecules of hydrogen gas.
___________________________________________
179
(1)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(2)
9 marks
QUESTION 11
Look at Diagram 11 below.
DIAGRAM 11
11.1
11.2
11.3
Give a label for each of the following structures:
A ___________________________________________
B ___________________________________________
(2)
Which letter points to a muscle? _________________________
(1)
Cross out the WRONG word or words in the following statements.
11.3.1 When C moves downwards, the volume of the chest cavity (1)
increases/decreases/stays the same.
11.3.2 When C moves downwards, the air pressure inside the lungs (1)
increases/decreases/stays the same.
5 marks
QUESTION 12
Diagram 12 below shows a long piece of wood (AB) with its one end (B). on the back of a
truck.
DIAGRAM 12
Allan uses a rope to pull a concrete block (of mass 80 kg) up the piece of wood onto the back
of the truck. Allan pulls on the rope with a constant force of 2 000 N. The plank is 4m long.
The back of the truck is 1,5m high.
12.1 How much work does Allan do to pull the block along the plank onto the truck? Use the
formula
work = force x distance.
(6)
________________________________________________
________________________________________________
________________________________________________
180
12.2 Work out the weight of the concrete block.
(2)
________________________________________________
________________________________________________
8 marks
QUESTION 13
Diagram 13 below represents the human female reproductive system
DIAGRAM 13
13.1 Match each statement in Column B to the correct word in Column A. Write the number
of the correct statement in the space provided in Column A.
COLUMN A
______CERVIX
______VAGINA
______OVIDUCT
______OVARY
1
2
3
4
COLUMN B
The birth canal.
The muscle which controls the opening of the womb.
The organ in which eggs are made.
The place where fertilisation occurs.
(4)
13.2 Where should the contraceptive devices listed below be placed to prevent pregnancy?
Use letters from Diagram 13 to answer.
IUD
DIAPHRAGM
______________
______________
(2)
6 marks
181
QUESTION 14
An engineer puts a long steel beam (XY) on top of two concrete pillars as in Diagram 14.1
below.
DIAGRAM 14.1
The engineer wants to find out how much the beam (XY) will bend (sag) when he hangs loads
of different weight on the beam.
He hangs a load of known weight on the beam. He measures the sag (h) of the beam as
shown in DIAGRAM 14.2 below.
DIAGRAM 14.2
He measures the sag (h) for six different loads. He uses his results to plot a graph of Sag (in
cm) on the y-axis against the Load (in N) on the x-axis. His graph is shown in Diagram 14.3.
DIAGRAM 14.3
182
USE INFORMATION FROM THE GRAPH DIAGRAM 14.3 TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS
BELOW:
14.1 What is the weight (in N) of the load which will make the beam (XY) sag
(a) 4 cm? ___________________________________________ (1)
(b) 7 cm? ___________________________________________ (2)
14.2 How much (in cm) will the beam XY sag when a load of 4400 N hangs from its centre?
___________________________________________ (2)
14.3 The engineer made a mistake when he measured how much beam (XY) sags with a
load of 5200 N.
How much should beam XY sag when a load of 5200 N hangs from its centre?
___________________________________________ (2)
14.4 The engineer tests another steel beam PQ. He puts the ends of PQ on top of two
concrete pillars. PQ IS MUCH LONGER THAN XY, but it is the SAME thickness as XY. Will
PQ sag more or less than XY under the same load?
___________________________________________ (1)
8 marks
QUESTION 15
Use Diagram 15 to answer the questions below.
DIAGRAM 15
15.1 State two places where mechanical digestion takes place. (Use letters only)
___________________
___________________ (2)
183
15.2
15.2.1 Is digestive juice in D acid or alkaline?
___________________________________________ (1)
15.2.2 What indicator could you use to check your answer to 15.2.1?
___________________________________________ (1)
4 marks
QUESTION 16
In the space below draw and label a diagram of a cell from the human body eg. a cheek cell.
5 marks
QUESTION 17
When we push an object, we MAY do work on the object.
Table 17, on page 18 shows some things which may happen. In the table these things are
called ACTIONS.
Read through Table 17 very carefully. For each ACTION (A, B, C and D), decide if work is
done or if work is NOT being done. Fill in either YES or NO in the second column in TABLE
17.
17.1
ACTION
A
B
C
D
Fred pushes the wall as hard as he can.
The wall does NOT move.
Mary carries 6 very heavy books from the
ground floor of a building up to the tenth
floor of the building.
Four very strong poles hold up the roof of a
house. The roof does NOT fall down.
A ball falls towards the ground from a
height of 1m.
IS WORK BEING DONE? Fill in YES or
NO.
Does Fred do work on the wall?
____________________
Does Mary do work on the books?
____________________
Do the poles do work on the roof?
____________________
Is work being done on the ball as it falls?
____________________
TABLE 17
(4)
17.2 Explain your answer to C in TABLE 17. Use words, 'distance', 'force' and 'work' in your
explanation.
(3)
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
17.3 What kind of energy does the ball in D in Table 17 gain as it falls?
(1)
_____________________________________________________
184
17.4 What kind of energy does the ball in D in Table 17 lose as it falls?
(1)
_____________________________________________________
9 marks
QUESTION 18
Diagram 18.1 below shows some of the parts inside Mary's torch.
DIAGRAM 18.1
18.1 What will happen to the bulb in Mary's torch when she pushes A (in Diagram 18.1) up?
_____________________________________________________ (1)
18.2 Draw an electrical circuit diagram to show EXACTLY how the parts in MARY'S TORCH
in Diagram 18.1 are joined to each other. You MUST use the correct electrical symbols and
you must put the following labels on your circuit diagram: Battery P, battery Q and part A.
Label the + and - terminals on the Duracell batteries. The bulb in your circuit diagram must be
turned off.
(6)
18.3 Marietjie has a new torch bulb and a new Duracell battery. She presses the bottom of
the bulb hard against the bottom of the Duracell battery and holds it as shown in Diagram
18.3 below.
DIAGRAM 18.3
185
Marietjie's bulb does NOT light.
Draw a piece of copper wire in Diagram 18.3 which will make the bulb light. (2)
18.4 Tom has two light bulbs Bulb X and Bulb Y. Bulb X, has a thin filament. Bulb Y has a
thick filament. The thick filament and the thin filament are the same length. See Diagram 18.4.
DIAGRAM 18.4
(a) Which bulb will carry more current if we put it into Mary's torch in Diagram 18.1?
Answer by writing Bulb X or Bulb Y.
_____________________________________________________ (1).
(b) Explain your answer to 18.4 (a).
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________ (2)
12 marks
QUESTION 19
Diagram 19 below shows the relative amounts of different nutrients in some common foods.
The numbers alongside each bar are the percentages of each nutrient.
Diagram 19
186
19.1 Which food contains the highest percentage of carbohydrate?
_____________________________________________________ (1)
19.2 Why does the body need carbohydrates?
_____________________________________________________ (1)
19.3 Which food contains the lowest percentage of water?
_____________________________________________________ (1)
19.4 Which food would you recommend for a child suffering from Kwashiorkor?
_____________________________________________________ (1)
19.5
19.5.1 Which one of the above foods has the best balance of nutrients?
_____________________________________________________ (1)
19.5.2 Explain how you made your choice in 19.5.1.
_____________________________________________________ (2)
7 marks
QUESTION 20
Below is a diagram to show a leaf that has been cut in cross-section and is being looked at
under a microscope.
DIAGRAM 20
20.1 The leaf is an organ of a plant. It is made up of many different tissues. Choose TWO
letters from the diagram that show two different kinds of tissues.
______ ______ (2)
187
20.2
20.2.1 Write down the letter of the tissue whose main function is photosynthesis.
______ (1)
20.2.2 Use information from Diagram 20 to explain how you made your choice in 20.2.1.
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________ (3)
20.3 State the function of H._______________________________
_____________________________________________________ (2)
20.4 What is the substance made in C, which turns iodine solution blue-black. (1)
_____________________________________________________
9 marks
3.6.5. Independent Examinations Board. Combined Science Examination Paper 1993
(Standard 7 Examination)
INDEPENDENT EXAMINATIONS BOARD
STANDARD 7 EXAMINATION
SEPTEMBER 1993
COMBINED SCIENCE EXAMINATION
Time: 1¼ Hours
75 marks
PLEASE READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. Number your answers exactly as the questions are numbered.
2. It is in your interests to write legibly and to present your work neatly.
3. This examination consists of 2 sections:
Section A:
Section B:
'Lucky Dip' (40 marks)
'The Air Around Us' (35 marks)
4. Answer ALL questions in both sections in the BLUE BOOKLET.
5. This paper has been planned so that about one minute should be spent on each mark
earned e.g. about 5 minutes should be spent on a question worth 5 marks.
6. This paper consists of 24 pages: a white booklet (pages 1-11); and a blue booklet (pages
12-24). Please check that both booklets are complete.
SECTION A: "LUCKY-DIP" (40 marks)
Answer all questions in this section on the special answer sheet in the blue booklet.
Questions 1 to 11 are all Multiple Choice Questions; just mark the appropriate letter (A, B, C
or D) on the Answer Sheet, with a clear cross.
188
1. The diagram below represents water coming from 2 holes in a water pipe on a day with NO
wind blowing.
Now the wind blows in the direction that the arrows show. Choose the diagram which best
shows how the water will move:
2. Four (4) children were playing on a see-saw and wanted to see who was the heaviest.
The diagrams below show what happened when they were sitting still:
189
Which child was the heaviest?
A - Rita
B - Melissa
C - Lindiwe
D - Ferdza
(2)
3. A group of animals was feeding together on the farm; they were then disturbed and this is a
sketch of the tracks in the sand they left:
Which were the animals which produced the tracks above?
A - Hen, Cow, Elephant and Human
B - Human, Hen, Dog and Cow
C - Dog, Cow, Lion and Pigeon
D - Horse, Cow, Dog and Hen.
(2)
4. The reading on ammeter X is 1,8 A. What is the reading on ammeter Y?
A - 6,75 A
B - 7,6 A
C - 0,72 A
D - 0,76 A
(2)
190
5. You put the stone in the jug of water. This makes the water rise to the 500ml mark. What is
the volume of the stone? Choose A, B, C or D.
A - 160 g
B - 340 ml
C- 160 ml
D - 500 g
(2)
6. What is the length of the leaf?
A - 23 cm
B - 17,7 cm
C - 16,4 cm
D - 21,5 cm
(2)
7. What is the temperature of the water?
A - 49° C
B - 41° C
C - 40° C
D - 39° C
(2)
191
8. The table below gives the nutrients present in 100g of various foods:
FOOD:
Wholemeal Bread:
Boiled Potatoes:
Potato Chips:
White Bread:
NUMBER OF GRAMS OF NUTRIENTS IN 100g OF THAT FOOD
CARBOHYDRATES
PROTEIN
FAT
46
10
3
20
2
0
40
4
9
55
9
2
The following graph shows the differing amounts of the nutrients found in one of the foods;
w hich food does the graph represent?
A - Wholemeal Bread
B - Boiled Potatoes
C - Potato Chips
D - White Bread
(2)
9. The table below shows some South African indigenous (natural) plants and it shows the
months in which these plants produce flowers:
192
NOW ANSWER THESE QUESTIONS:
9. Which plant has flowers the longest?
A - Kareeboom
B - Suikerbossie
C - Dandelion
D - Kraaibos
(2)
10. Look at the plant you chose in your answer to (9) above. For how long does it produce
flowers?
A - 7 months
B - 6 months
C - 8 months
D - 5 months
(2)
11. Which season has the most plants producing flowers?
A - Spring
B - Summer
C - Autumn
D - Winter
(2)
22 Marks
Questions 12 and 13 are to be answered in the blue booklet; use the lines and graph
provided.
12. Study the following diagram and pictures, and answer the questions which follow:
193
12.1 Name the phase change (evaporation, melting, condensation or freezing) for each of the
4 diagrams.
(4)
12.2 Give 2 more examples of substances changing phase.
(2)
13. Study the picture of Mount Kenya and the table of information below. Then answer
Question 13.1 to 13.5.
This picture shows Mount Kenya. Altitudes have been drawn on the picture. (Altitude means
the height above sea level)
Mount Kenya
Height above Sea Level:
6000 m
4000 m
2000 m
Sea Level
Boiling Temperature of Water:
80° C
88° C
93° C
100° C
Atmospheric Pressure:
47 kPa
60 kPa
77 kPa
100 kPa
13.1 To boil an egg very hard, the temperature of the boiling water must be higher than 88° C;
if mountain climbers find that they cannot boil eggs hard, at what height would they be?
(1)
13.2 How high is the mountain? Look at the picture and give the most accurate answer you
can.
(1)
194
13.3 Why would a mountain climber have difficulty breathing when he gets to the top of Mount
Kenya?
(3)
(Support your answer by mentioning one observation from the picture of Mount Kenya).
13.4 Use the data from the table above to draw a graph (on the graph paper in the blue
booklet) comparing Altitude and Boiling temperature of water.
(5)
Decide on a heading for this graph and write it on the line provided.
(1)
13.5 Use your graph to work out what the boiling temperature of water would be at 3000
metres (height above sea level). (Write your answer in the space provided in the blue
booklet).
(1)
TOTAL MARKS FOR SECTION A: 40 Marks
Examination No. ___________________
STANDARD 7 COMBINED SCIENCE EXAMINATION
SEPTEMBER 1993
ANSWER SHEET FOR SECTION A
Mark the appropriate letter with a cross
Question 1
Question 2
Question 3
Question 4
Question 5
Question 6
Question 7
Question 8
Question 9
Question 10
Question 11
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
(11 X 2 = 22 marks)
QUESTION 12
12.1
a. Water dries up:_________________________________________________
b. Ice cream melts:________________________________________________
c. Bus windows mist up:___________________________________________
d. Clouds form:___________________________________________________
(4)
195
12.2 _________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
QUESTION 13
13.1 _____________________________________________________
(1)
13.2 _____________________________________________________
(1)
13.3 _____________________________________________________
(3)
13.4
Heading for graph:____________________________________________ (1)
(5)
13.5 Boiling temperature of water at 3000m is about ____________________
(1)
SECTION B: "THE AIR AROUND US" (35 marks)
Answer this section on the lines (and in the spaces) provided on this Question Paper.
READ THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION CAREFULLY AND THEN ANSWER THE
QUESTIONS WHICH FOLLOW:
The following pie chart show the gases which make up "clean air" in our Earth's Atmosphere:
196
Sadly, much of the air we breathe in is not clean; it contains poisonous substances which we
call POLLUTANTS.
Where do the pollutants come from? They come from factories, power stations and cars. In
the past 100 years, all countries have become more industrialised. There are more factories
and power stations which burn coal and oil. There are more and more cars on the roads; cars
burn petrol and blow out waste gases into the air. The countries of the world burn almost a
billion tonnes of coal, oil and gas each year.
NOW ANSWER THESE QUESTIONS:
1. Scientists believe that gases are made up of tiny particles which we cannot see with our
eyes; try to imagine what gases look like if you could see these tiny particles - they would
look something like this:
197
1.1 Which of the pictures above would best represent a small quantity of CLEAN AIR. (A, B
OR C)?
_____________________________________________________
(1)
1.2 Explain fully why you chose the above picture to represent clean air.
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
(3)
1.3 What does the word "POLLUTANT" mean?
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
(1)
1.4 Explain why atmospheric pollution has increased over the years
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
(2)
7 Marks
2. Study the following diagram. The diagram summarises the effects of acid rain:
198
Acid Rain
In nature, volcanoes and lightning form sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide gases. Factories
produce 9 times more sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide gases than nature produces.
Nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide gases rise into the air. When they meet the moist air, the
gases dissolve to produce sulphuric and nitric acids. The clouds become strongly acidified
and these clouds produce acid rain.
QUESTIONS:
2.1 State two problems caused by acid rain which are shown on the diagram on page 16.
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
(2)
2.2 Where does the acid rain come from? What are its major sources?
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
(2)
2.3 Name two oxides that cause acid rain:
_____________________________________________________
(2)
6 Marks
3. Some people think acid rain stops seeds germinating, but other people disagree. An
experiment is a fair way to test an idea. You have been asked by your teacher to design a
good experiment to investigate the effects of acid rain on the germination/growth of seeds.
You can only use the apparatus and materials given below:
2 saucers/small dishes
cotton wool
tap water
an acid solution
a measuring cylinder
a packet of carrot seeds
3.1 Describe step by step the method you would use in doing this experiment:
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
(5)
3.2 Some students did a similar experiment with carrot seeds. They found that fewer seeds
germinated in the acid solution than in the water. The following are some of the conclusions
199
different students reached:
A. Acid rain affects the germination of all plant seeds.
B. Acid rain affects the germination of carrot seeds only.
C. The acid used in this experiment affected the germination of carrot seeds. Similarly, acid
rain would affect the germination of carrot seeds.
3.2.1 Which one of these conclusions do you think is the best one?
_____________________________________________________
(1)
3.2.2 Explain why you chose the above conclusion.
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
(3)
9 Marks
4. "AIR POLLUTION IS A BIG CHILD-KILLER"
Air pollution is a big factor in the deaths of many South African children under the age of five,
claims the Medical Research Council.
Dr Von Schirnding, one of their researchers, said that:
"Outdoor pollution levels in Soweto, when last monitored in 1986, were found to be higher
than the internationally acceptable standard and it is likely that the problem had worsened
since."
She added that the domestic consumption of coal in Soweto remains high and that children in
homes where coal stoves are used are inhaling sulphur dioxide and coal dust particles which
could be damaging their health.
(Extract from an article printed in the Star, 22/8/1990)
Having read the above article, a group of students at the Lilian Ngoyi Secondary School
decided to carry out a survey about the effects of air pollution on children in their own area.
The school is in Tembisa, a large township on the East Rand, close to an industrial area with
many chemical factories.
The table below shows the results of their study:
POLLUTION FACTOR: This tells you how serious the air pollution is (e.g. Factor 1 - not too
dirty; Factor 10 - very dirty)
Month:
Pollution
Factor
Number of
children
with lung
sickness
Jan
Feb
Mar
Nov
Dec
3
3
3
Apr
4
May
7
June
9
9
10
8
5
4
2
4000
4000
9000
10000
20000
25000
25000
30000
25000
12000
7000
3000
200
July
Aug
Sept
Oct
QUESTIONS
4.1 A hypothesis is an idea or test question which we can check scientifically. Suggest an
hypothesis which could have been made by the students at the start of their research.
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
(2)
4.2 Using data from the table on the previous page complete the following ar graph (3)
[Note: This is 2 graphs; the Bar Graph shows how serious the pollution factor is. The line
graph has been drawn on top of the Bar Graph - this shows how many children had lung
sickness].
ATMOSPHERIC POLLUTION FACTOR IN TEMBISA IN 1991 (bar graph) associated with
CHILDREN WITH LUNG SICKNESS (line graph)
4.3 Which month has the highest pollution factor?
_____________________________________________________
(1)
4.4 Can you suggest a reason for the increased pollution factor during those months you
named above?
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
(1)
201
4.5 If 50 000 children live in Tembisa, using data from the table of results, calculate the % of
children with lung sickness when the pollution factor was 10.
ANSWER:__________________________________________________
(2)
CALCULATION: _____________________________________________
5. The following are diagrams of air tubes found in children's lungs:
This is how air tubes look when they have been cut open (dissected) - they are much smaller
than shown in these pictures!
5.1 Complete the following table by writing in the main differences between the two tubes.
(2)
Air Tubes
Difference 1
Difference 2
Tube A
Tube B
5.2 Which of the above tubes (A or B) belongs to the sick child?
_____________________________________________________
(1)
6. Suggest a way in which the pollution problems affecting the health of the children of
Tembisa can be solved or improved.
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
(1)
TOTAL MARKS FOR SECTION B: 35 Marks
202
3.7. Swaziland
3.7.1. Overview
End of Primary School Examination
1.
Title of examination:
Swaziland Primary Certificate (SPC)
2.
Amount
charged:
≈ US$ 10
3.
Examination
after
years in primary
school (6, 7, 8
years):
7 yrs
4.
Children's entry age
in primary school:
6 yrs
5.
Number of pupils
sitting examination
in 1994:
17,888
6.
Examination
subjects offered:
5 compulsory subjects in 9 papers:
• Science (2 papers)
• Mathematics (2 papers)
• English (2 papers)
• Siswati (2 papers)
• Social Studies (1 paper) (incl. History, Geography, Civics)
of
fees
In addition 2 optional subjects are offered with one paper each:
• Agriculture
• Home Economics
Language
examination:
8.
Institution
setting
the
examination
questions:
Swaziland Examinations Council
9.
Have there been any
reforms
in
the
examination
questions?
Yes
10.
of
English (except for Swazi language paper)
7.
When? (year)
1970
What kind?
Science paper removed from a General Paper.
Stages
of
development
of
examination
questions
(please
describe):
• Setters' workshop is organized and they are trained through
presentation.
• Setters write items which are shredded at the workshop.
• Shredded items are moderated and then compiled for pretesting.
• Pre-tested items are then analysed and some items may be
removed.
• Items are banked for use when required.
203
11.
Type of examination
questions
and
distribution
of
different kind of
questions.
Partly multiple-choice, partly structured questions.
12.
Is
continuous
assessment
incorporated in the
final examination?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
13.
Are
examination
items pretested?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
14.
Which professional
groups are involved
in
setting
the
examination
questions?
• Primary school teachers
• School inspectors
• Tutors of TTCs
• University lecturers
• Curriculum designers
15.
Are
the
same
professionals who
set the examination
questions involved
in marking papers?
Yes [x]
No [ ]
16.
How
are
examination results
&
used
for
improving teaching
in
Reports written at the end of the marking exercise:
• help in-service specialists to organize regional workshops for
the teachers on the major problematic areas;
• help curriculum designers to review their teaching materials;
• for administration purposes inspectors visit weak schools.
17.
To what other uses
are the examination
results put?
• Selection purposes.
• Certification.
• For administration to look into school situations.
18.
Main problem with
Primary
School
Leaving
Examinations?
• Distribution of examination papers.
• Invigilation problems.
• Security problems.
3.7.2. Examination and Continuous Assessment in Swaziland
by Jabulisile Fakudze/Valencia S. Simelane/Evart V. Dlamini
Classroom level examinations in primary schools in Swaziland are not administered on a
consistent or systematic basis. Although teachers are expected to assess their students
regularly this is determined by the individual teacher. The only tests provided to teachers are
two or three questions inserted at the end of each unit of curriculum materials. Since a
student's score in the teacher's record book is not based on a common measure, it is
impossible to ascertain comparisons across classrooms or schools. The current system of
classroom testing cannot be relied upon to provide meaningful hints for either instructional or
management purposes.
External examinations are a key feature of the educational system in Swaziland. There are
three such examinations:
• The Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination taken at the end of primary schooling
(Grade 7)
204
• The Junior Certificate Examination taken at the end of Junior Secondary Education
(Form 3) and
• The Cambridge Overseas Certificate Examination taken two years later (Form 5) at the
end of Senior Secondary School.
All the examinations are subject examinations. Examinations are set on a series of curricular
areas.
The Swaziland Examination Council is responsible for all aspects of the Primary and Junior
Certificate Examination: registration of students, preparation of examination papers, printing
and distribution of papers, appointment of supervisors (teachers in their own school, but not in
their own subjects), appointment of markers, organization of meetings during the marking
process, preparation and publication of the results.
The day-to-day running of the examinations is the responsibility of the Swaziland
Examinations Council. It consists of eleven members made up of the Principal Secretary of
the Ministry of Education, the Director of Education and representatives of headmasters,
teachers, inspectors, and the University. It appoints moderators and examiners who set
examination papers.
Science examiners and moderators are recommended by the science panel made up of the
senior science inspector, Swaziland Science Teachers' Association members, training college
lecturers, national curriculum designer, experienced teachers, University staff and science
coordinators' representatives.
The chosen examiner and moderator sign a contract of two-three years with the Examination
Council. The examiner then sets two papers. The first paper is a multiple-choice type,
consisting of 40 questions which are answered in 1 1/2 hours. When setting, the examiner
refers to the science syllabus, pupil's books, teachers' guides and other relevant materials. A
table of specification is essential when setting the multiple-choice items. It is drawn up by
writing unit topics covered from grade 4 to 7 in columns and essential skills in rows, e.g. facts,
classification, observation, measurement, calculation etc. For each question set, a tick is put
in the appropriate space. The ticks are added in rows and columns to ensure that the
questions consist of evenly distributed unit topics and skills.
The second paper consists of six questions carrying 10 marks each. Again, to ensure that the
questions cover the syllabus adequately, the questions are structured and mixed. That is,
Question 1 a) could carry 6 marks on plant-related questions and part b) could carry 4 marks
on animal-related questions. The candidates answer both question papers.
The examiner then hands over the question papers to the moderator. The moderator writes
his general remarks about the papers. The moderator's report and papers (questions) are
taken to the examiner. The examiner then makes any necessary changes and the papers are
finally taken to the Examination Council for printing. Once printed the Exams Council takes
the draft papers to the examiner. The examiner reads through all the pages signing each and
every page. The draft is then taken to the Exams Council to be sent for printing again. If there
were a number of mistakes in the first draft, the second draft is given to the examiner again
for approval. The final draft is kept by the Exams Council for distribution to schools via the
District Education Office.
Final examinations are supervised by appointed teachers in their own subject (but not in their
own schools), retired teachers and in some cases church leaders.
The Examination Council appoints markers with the help of inspectors, about six from each of
the four districts. The marking exercise is carried out in December two weeks before schools
close. The examiner, together with the moderator, supervises the marking exercise. The
markers, examiner and moderator, after this exercise, are paid by the Examination Council
through funds generated by pupils' examination fees.
205
General analyses of performance in examinations are carried out and reports prepared on the
basis of these analyses. In the past, more detailed item-analysis information was prepared for
some subject areas on the machine scoring of answers. This, however, involved too many
errors and had to be discontinued.
Overview of 1993 Results
About 16,789 students sat for the 1993 Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination, out of
which 14,224 passed and 2,565 failed the examination. The pass rate was 84.72% which
shows an increase of 0.4% from the 1992 pass rate.
Subject
English
Math
Siswati
Science
Soc. Science
Agric.
Home Ec.
Average
A
288
520
453
440
511
243
259
B
1714
1473
1363
1443
1518
594
683
C
3225
2790
3934
3145
2842
1232
1360
D
3657
3400
3682
3808
3639
1622
1549
E
5340
6123
5796
5602
5625
2520
2927
F
2565
2484
2269
2251
2654
1189
1082
PASS
14224
14306
14328
14438
14135
6211
6778
%
84.72
85.21
86.33
86.51
84.19
83.93
86.23
85.30
FAIL
2565
2484
2269
2251
2654
1189
1082
%
15.28
14.79
13.67
13.49
15.81
16.07
13.77
14.70
The main purpose of the Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination is to select pupils for
Secondary Education. An examination is said to be good if it discriminates between lower and
upper achievers. The marks are put in a normal curve, the mean is 50 and the standard
deviation is 10. The marks are then run in a computer to produce standard scores (z-scores).
The lower cut-off point is where z = 40. An »A« mark is obtained by a student who scores at
least two standard deviations above the mean. Ideally one expects plus or minus 84%
students to pass the examination.
This should give a picture of how students should pass. The overall performance is
categorised into three.
• An aggregate of »C« or better is a first class,
• an aggregate of »D« is a second class pass,
• an aggregate of »E« (40-49%) is a third class pass.
A similar situation prevails at Secondary. At the Junior Certificate Examinations there is
selection for O Level. The examinations are used as a screening instrument. The standard
deviation at Junior Certificate is 15 and the mean is still 50, but the lowest cutoff point is still
40%.
The Science Results for 1992 and 1993
In 1992, 15,916 students registered for the science examination, 13,666 of these students
passed, 2,250 failed. The passes can be classified as follows:
A
424
B
1307
C
2925
D
3760
E
5249
The numbers of failures also include pupils who did not sit for the examination due to various
reasons, some died, others dropped because of pregnancy, others due to financial
constraints. The pass rate was 85.86%.
In the 1993 examination there were 16,689 pupils who registered for Science and 14,438
passed. The passes can be classified as follows:
A
440
B
1443
C
3145
D
3808
E
5602
206
The passes indicate a pass rate of 86.51% which means that the passing percentage has
increased by 0.65% when compared to the 1992 pass rate.
Continuous Assessment
The introduction of continuous assessment which is still at project stage was a logical
development because it is related to curricula with clearly stated instructional objectives.
Actually the introduction of continuous assessment is an important milestone in the
development of the education system of the country. Not only will the assessment of the
child's work be scientific and comprehensive but provision for remediation is also an integral
aspect of the programme.
Continuous assessment is a component of a larger education project providing the technical
assistance and resources needed to design and establish a comprehensive system for
student's assessment at the primary level. This system ensures detailed feedback to
teachers, headteachers, parents and the Ministry of Education (MOE) regarding student
achievement in presently two subjects areas, English and Mathematics. Tests are developed
at three levels:
1. Lesson level
2. Unit level
3. End of term level
- by teacher
- by teachers
- by the National Curriculum Centre.
It is hoped that this programme will proceed through the first nine years of a Swazi student's
education with greater efficiency and leading to reduced repetition and dropout rates and
improving quality as evidenced by level of mastery of basic skills to practical real life
situations.
Continuous Assessment as piloted in Swaziland is a comprehensive system for measuring
students' achievement of the goals and objectives delineated in an educational system's
curriculum. It is based on a testing technology called criterion-referenced testing (CRT) which
is specifically designed to assess whether or not an individual has learned the skills or
knowledge that were taught.
A critical feature of the CRT is the use of item specifications. Item specifications are detailed
descriptions of the skills and knowledge to be measured, including allowable content, level of
difficulty and test item format. Specifications are developed so that they are consistent with
the curriculum.
Criterion-referenced tests are particularly useful for those concerned with monitoring,
evaluating, and improving an educational system. They provide information at several levels,
each of which has important decision-making implications. For example a test of
mathematical skills can tell a teacher whether her instruction has been effective and can
pinpoint those students who have not mastered particular skills. Using this information the
teacher can decide whether to reteach the lesson or move to the next competency area and
provide additional instruction only to those who did not learn the skill to a sufficient level of
mastery.
Swaziland has only recently started continuous assessment implementation. However, this
innovative approach is not without problems. The large numbers of primary school students
and teachers' lack of understanding of the main features of assessment theory are the major
constraints to implement continuous assessment successfully.
207
3.7.3 Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination 1994 - Science/Paper I & II
SWAZILAND MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
SWAZILAND PRIMARY CERTIFICATE
EXAMINATION, 1994
SCIENCE - PAPER I
THURSDAY, NOVEMBER 17th - 08:30 a.m. - 10:00 a.m.
TIME:
1½ HOURS
TOTAL MARKS:
40
CENTRE NUMBER:
CANDIDATE'S NUMBER
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Answer all questions.
2. Each question has four (4) answers to choose from but only one of them is correct. Circle
(0) the letter of the correct answers as shown in the example below.
3. Do not circle more than one answer. If you make a mistake cross (X) your first choice and
then circle the answer you have finally chosen.
4. Use ink or ball pen.
Example
How many eyes does a frog have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
1. Plants with tap roots live better in dry regions because their roots
A. store a lot of water.
B. reach water in great depths.
C. store a lot of food.
D. support the stems better.
2. Dzambile's area is rainy, without toilets and has unprotected drinking water supply. People
in her place are likely to suffer from
A. T.B.
B. diarrhoea.
C. measles.
D. polio.
3. The clouds that usually bring rain are known as
A. cumulus.
B. stratus.
C. cirrus.
D. nimbus.
208
4. The diagram shows parts of a flower. The part marked X is
A. an ovary.
B. an ovule.
C. a pistil.
D. a stamen.
5. Below are examples of matter except
A. sand.
B. light.
C. water.
D. trees.
6. The presence of chlorophyll in plants is important for _______________ to take place.
A. respiration.
B. photosynthesis.
C. pollination.
D. transpiration.
7. Which of these is a sexually transmitted disease?
A. Tuberculosis.
B. Bilharzia.
C. Cholera.
D. AIDS.
8. According to the pie chart, which gas takes up more space in the atmosphere?
A. Oxygen.
B. Nitrogen.
C. Water vapour.
D. Carbon dioxide.
209
9. An object with no definite shape and volume is classified under
A. solids.
B. gases.
C. liquids.
D. none of the above.
10. Grade 7 pupils of Vulamehlo Primary School studied and counted ants on a 4 square
metre piece of land. They kept the following record for 9 days.
Number of Ants on Different Days
On which days did they find less than 50 ants.
A. Days 1, 3 and 6.
B. Days 3, 5 and 6.
C. Days 1, 3 and 7.
D. Days 2, 4 and 5.
11. The eclipse seen during a cloudless day is known as
A. sunny eclipse.
B. lunar eclipse.
C. solar eclipse.
D. clear eclipse.
12. A large herd of cattle is kept in a small fenced grassy area for six months. Which of the
following is NOT likely to happen?
A. Most vegetation will be eaten up.
B. Most cattle will be fat.
C. There will be signs of soil erosion.
D. There will be very few grasshoppers.
13. Three processes used in treating water in towns are
A. boiling, washing and irrigation.
B. settling, filtering and using chlorine.
C. mixing, dissolving and evaporating.
D. cleaning, sanding and building canals.
210
14. A broiler becomes an adult when it is
A. 6 weeks old.
B. 7 weeks old.
C. 8 weeks old.
D. 10 weeks old.
15. Twenty girls slept in a small air-tight room. The following morning, some of them felt very
weak and tired. The reason for this condition was
A. the enjoyment of a good night's sleep.
B. tiredness caused by hard work the previous day.
C. the lack of oxygen due to overcrowding.
D. their laziness because they knew work must be done.
16. Many animals feed on grass and parts of trees. Therefore the plants are called
A. consumers.
B. producers.
C. good food.
D. tasty food.
17. Which method of seed dispersal is demonstrated in the diagram. It is seed dispersal by
A. man.
B. animals.
C. wind.
D. water.
18. The main groups of rocks are
A. sedimentary, asbestos and coal.
B. sedimentary, metamorphic and asbestos.
C. sedimentary, coal and igneous.
D. sedimentary, igneous and metamorphic.
19. Look at the molars of animals shown in the diagram. Which molar belongs to a flesh
eater?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
211
20. Wind speed is measured by a
A. thermometer.
B. barometer.
C. cup anemometer.
D. wind vane.
21. To make a sugar salt solution, dissolve (1) bottle cap of salt and (8) bottle caps of sugar in
1 litre of water. This measurement is
A. sometimes correct.
B. correct.
C. not correct.
D. correct for children only.
22. The (4)cm feather is
A. P.
B. Q.
C. R.
D. S.
23. It was full moon on a cloudless night when Thozo saw this shape of the moon. We call it
A. lunar eclipse.
B. new moon.
C. solar eclipse.
D. surprise moon.
212
24. Tentele could be suffering from
A. whooping cough.
B. headache.
C. cholera.
D. diarrhoea.
25. Some animals like man are omnivores. Which group of food is good for these animals.
A. Beef, chicken and rice.
B. Beef, porridge and lettuce.
C. Beef, pork and chicken.
D. Beef, cabbage and spinach.
26. Candles of the same length are covered with glass jars as shown in the diagram. Which
candle will go out first?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
27. A stone weighs 9 grams. Which weights will balance this stone on the scale?
A. 3g 4g 3g.
B. 5g 3g 3g.
C. 4g 4g 3g.
D. 3g 3g 3g.
213
28. Which is the most important part of this food chain?
A. Soil and plant.
B. Worms.
C. Chicken.
D. You.
29. To kill bacteria and germs in water we need to add
A. salt.
B. chlorine.
C. ashes.
D. vinegar.
30. Which of the above drawings shows a new moon?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
31. Breaking down of food into small pieces within the body is known as
A. respiration.
B. excretion.
C. digestion.
D. grinding.
32. Which statement explains the picture best?
A. The boy is enjoying a good sleep.
B. The man is looking at a pencil.
C. The boy is sick.
D. The doctor is reading the sick boy's temperature.
214
33. Look at these clouds. Clouds which show clear and fine weather are
A. stratus.
B. cirrus.
C. cumulus.
D. none of these.
34. The same amount of water fills each of these containers. The container that holds more
water is
A. P.
B. Q.
C. R.
D. None of these.
35. Study the feeding habit of a chamelion shown on the diagram, This chamelion is.
A. a herbivore.
B. a carnivore.
C. an omnivore.
D. a scavenger.
215
36. Study the bar graph below which shows the number of people who died from various
diseases in country X and answer the question that follows.
Deaths by Type of Disease
Which of the following is true according to the graph?
A. Cholera and Tuberculosis (TB) killed 120 people.
B. Cholera and Malaria killed 140 people.
C. Malaria and AIDS killed 135 people.
D. Bilharzia and Typhoid killed 120 people.
37. In the water cycle water changes
A. just once.
B. usually two times.
C. over and over.
D. four times.
38. Which piece of earth is likely to develop soil erosion faster?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
39. Which of the following can transmit AIDS?
A. Playing together of boys and girls.
B. Swimming in the same pool with sick people.
C. Having sex with someone who has AIDS.
D. Eating with someone who has AIDS.
216
40. The best description of water is
A. that it is colourless.
B. that it has no definite shape.
C. that it has no smell.
D. all of the above.
SWAZILAND MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
SWAZILAND PRIMARY CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION FOR PRIMARY SCHOOLS, 1994
SCIENCE - PAPER II
FRIDAY, NOVEMBER 18th - 08:30 a.m. - 10:30 a.m.
TIME:
2 HOURS
TOTAL MARKS:
60
CENTRE NUMBER:
CANDIDATE'S NUMBER
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Answer all questions.
2. Write your examination number in the box above.
QUESTION 1
1. Jaha and Thoko read the volume of water in a measuring cylinder as shown below:
a) Who is likely to read the correct volume? ________________________ (1)
b) Give one reason for your answer in (a) ________________________ (1)
2. Write the following names of animals where they belong in the table, (lion, rabbit, mouse,
man, grasshopper)
HERBIVORE
CARNIVORE
OMNIVORE
(5)
3. What are the three main food groups that make a balanced diet?
a) ___________________________________________________________ (1)
b) ___________________________________________________________ (1)
c) ___________________________________________________________ (1)
(10)
217
QUESTION 2
1. The torch above uses electrical energy.
a) Give two kinds of energy given by a torch.
(i) ___________________________________________________________
(ii) ___________________________________________________________ (2)
b) Tona switched on the torch but there was no light. Write three possible reasons for this
failure.
i) ___________________________________________________________
ii) ___________________________________________________________
iii) ___________________________________________________________ (3)
iv) What produces electrical energy in a torch?
___________________________________________________________ (1)
2. Raw water for the Matsapha Water Treatment Plant comes from Lusushwana river.
a) What are the two substances used to purify this water?
i) ___________________________________________________________
ii) ___________________________________________________________ (2)
b) Name two kinds of leaves.
i) ___________________________________________________________
ii) ___________________________________________________________ (2)
(10)
QUESTION 3
Look at the following picture very carefully and answer the questions on it.
218
a) The animal shown spreads disease-germs. What is it?
___________________________________________________________ (1)
b) Write two good health habits to be used in this picture?
i) ___________________________________________________________
ii) ___________________________________________________________ (2)
c) Which two diseases could be spread by this animal?
i) ___________________________________________________________
ii) ___________________________________________________________ (2)
Complete the paragraph below using the following words. Each word is used only once,
(loudly, AIDS, live, get, sex and five)
Dzikila was a bad school girl. She had ______________ boy friends and had
______________ with all of them. When the teacher explained about ______________, a
disease that a person can ______________ by having sex with many people, she cried
________________
(5)
(10)
QUESTION 4
1. This diagram has many food chains. One of them is:
Land plant → snails → Birds → Snakes
Make three other food chains from this diagram?
a) ___________________________________________________________ (2)
b) ___________________________________________________________ (2)
c) ___________________________________________________________ (2)
d) The producer in these food chains is ________________________ (1)
2. The drawing below shows a hatching chick.
219
a) Fertilization in chickens takes place __________________________ (1)
b)
The
time
when
the
hen
sits
on
its
eggs
is
_____________________________ period (1)
called
the
3. Name one waste substance excreted through the skin ________________ (1)
(10)
QUESTION 5
1. Study the diagram below and answer the following questions.
a) What has happened in this diagram?
___________________________________________________________ (1)
b) Write two good health habits that have not been kept.
i) ___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________ (2)
ii) ___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________ (2)
2.
a) What part of air does the fire need to keep burning?
___________________________________________________________
b) Which part of the air that can be used to put the fire out?
___________________________________________________________ (2)
3. Write three functions of roots.
i) ___________________________________________________________
ii) ___________________________________________________________
iii) ___________________________________________________________ (3)
(10)
220
QUESTION 6
1. Grade 6 pupils drew this bar graph after their field trip. Use it to answer questions (a) to (e)
below.
a) What were the two kinds of living things observed?
___________________________________________________________ (2)
b) Which animals were seen by few pupils?
___________________________________________________________ (1)
c) Which animals were most common in this area?
___________________________________________________________ (1)
d) How many pupils saw animals? Show how you got the answer.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________ (3)
e) Give two examples how living things depend on each other in this area
i) ___________________________________________________________
ii) ___________________________________________________________ (2)
The study of living things in their natural homes is called
___________________________________________________________ (1)
(10)
221
3.7.4 Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination 1993 - Science/Paper I & II
SWAZILAND MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
SWAZILAND PRIMARY CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION, 1993
SCIENCE - PAPER I
TUESDAY, NOVEMBER 23rd - 08:30 a.m. - 10:00 a.m.
TIME:
1½ HOURS
TOTAL MARKS:
60
CENTRE NUMBER:
CANDIDATE'S NUMBER
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Answer all questions.
2. Each question has four (4) answers to choose from but only one of them is correct. Circle
(0) the letter of the correct answers as shown in the example below.
3. Do not circle more than one answer. If you make a mistake cross (X) your first choice and
then circle the answer you have finally chosen.
4. Use ink or ball pen.
Example
How many eyes does a frog have?
A. 4
(B.) 2
C. 3
D. None
1. Which of these is not a characteristic of living things?
A. Movement
B. Excretion
C. Photosynthesis
D. Respiration
2. Study these two types of leaves below.
222
The difference between these leaves is that one
A. is edible and the other is not edible
B. has parallel veins and the other is net veined.
C. has been picked from a mango tree and the other has been picked from an orange tree.
D. one respires and the other does not.
3. Look at these parts of a flower and answer the question below.
Which of these parts represents the male part of a flower?
4. Animals get more energy when they
A. sleep
B. breathe
C. eat
D. walk
5. Study this diagram and answer the question below.
Describe the process that is taking place in this diagram.
A. Self Pollination
B. Cross Pollination
C. Seed dispersal
D. Fertilisation
6. The time taken by a simple pendulum to complete one swing depends on the
A. length of the pendulum
B. mass of its weight
C. shape of its weight
D. size of its weight
223
7. The volume of the solid below is
A. 10cm3
B. 30cm3
C. 40cm3
D. 55cm3
8. Look at the diagram below and answer questions 8 and 9.
The above diagram shows the process of
A. filtration
B. evaporation
C. condensation
D. distillation
9. Which number in the diagram shows a filtrate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
10. Which of the following is true about magnets?
1. Like poles repel
2. Like poles attract
3. Unlike poles attract
4. Unlike poles repel
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
224
11. An iron nail is not a magnet because it
A. will rust
B. does not attract another iron nail
C. can be attracted by a magnet
D. cannot be attracted by a magnet.
12. A piece of paper stays firmly under an overturned glass full of water that is held up without
spilling any drop of water.
This is because
A. it is wet
B. the paper is smooth
C. it is sticky
D. of air pressure.
13. The graph below shows the heights of the pupils in a class.
How many pupils are taller than 154cms?
A. 3 pupils
B. 4 pupils
C. 6 pupils
D. 14 pupils
225
14. What type of food are the following; bread, rice, potatoes, sugar and wheat?
A. Vitamins
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Fats
15. Which of the following stages represents the correct order of the life cycle of an insect?
A. Pupa - adult - larva - egg
B. Egg - pupa - larva - adult
C. Pupa - larva - egg - adult
D. Egg - larva - pupa - adult
16. The smallest part of matter is
A. a compound
B. an atom
C. a mixture
D. an element
17. Pick out a non metal
A. Carbon
B. Iron
C. Copper
D. Gold
18. A siphon is used to suck out water from one container to another.
It works by
A. using the force of gravity
B. water pressure
C. air pressure
D. expansion of solids.
19. For photosynthesis to take place plants require certain conditions. Pick out one that is not
necessary.
A. Sunlight
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Chlorophyll
226
20. All living things are made up of
A. meat
B. chlorophyll
C. organs
D. cells
21 Heat travels from one end of an iron rod to the other by
A. convection
B. absorption
C. conduction
D. radiation
22. Sabelo's cow died immediately after giving birth. What must he feed the calf with?
A. Growing mash
B. salt licks
C. milk
D. sugar solution
23 An example of a substance which is alkaline is
A. vinegar
B. lemon juice
C. soap solution
D. sugar solution
24. Water is commonly used as a
A. solute
B. solvent
C. solution
D. mixture
25. Mbokodvo is stung by a bee. Its sting is alkaline. Therefore he has to treat the wound with
A. water
B. soap solution
C. saliva
D. vinegar
26. Sometimes we feel uncomfortable after eating. This may be due to too much
A. water in the body
B. salt in the body
C. acid in the stomach
D. food in the stomach
27. This kind of tooth is a
A. molar
B. incisor
C. canine
D. temporal tooth
227
28. The animal that feeds on both plants and animals is
A. a carnivore
B. a vulture
C. an omnivore
D. a herbivore
For questions 29 to 32 refer to the diagram below
29. This is an example of a
A. food cycle
B. food chain
C. food web
D. food way
30. The producer is a
A. mouse
B. plant
C. snake
D. eagle
31. The primary consumer is the
A. plant
B. snake
C. mouse
D. eagle
32 The secondary consumer is the
A. plant
B. mouse
C. snake
D. eagle
33. Which type of soil is best for growing plants?
A. Gravel
B. Clay
C. Sandy
D. Loam
228
34. Pick the instrument that is used to measure temperature.
35. Lunga has a running nose, feels hot, and keeps coughing and sneezing. Probably she
has
A. dysentery
B. AIDS
C. a common cold
D. diarrhoea
36. A chameleon survives better on land. What adaptations does it have to survive? It
A. can be easily seen
B. changes its colour to that similar to the place where it is.
C. can move very fast to run away from its enemies.
D. feeds on fruits.
37. This is an example of a simple machine. Find its fulcrum.
38. To keep fit one has to
A. read a lot
B. do some exercises
C. eat and sleep
D. consult a witch doctor.
229
39. Which one of the following factors is most needed by germinating seeds?
A. Water
B. Warmth
C. Soil
D. Light
40. If Nomsa has AIDS we should
A. not play with her
B. be afraid of her
C. treat her like one of us
D. not shake hands with her
SWAZILAND MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
SWAZILAND PRIMARY CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION FOR PRIMARY SCHOOLS, 1993
SCIENCE - PAPER II
WEDNESDAY, NOVEMBER 24th - 08:30 a.m. - 10:30 a.m.
TIME:
2 HOURS
TOTAL MARKS:
60
CENTRE NUMBER:
CANDIDATE'S NUMBER
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Answer all questions.
2. Write answers in the spaces provided
3. Use ink or ball point pen
QUESTION 2
(a) Name three types of rocks.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________ (3)
(b) Which type of rock is common in Swaziland?
___________________________________________________________ (1)
(c) Give two uses of water
___________________________________________________________ (2)
(d) i In the boxes provided draw the particles that show water in a liquid and gaseous state.
The solid state has been done for you.
(2)
230
ii Give two conditions necessary for evaporation to take place.
_____________________________________________________________ (2)
(10)
C. Fill in the right word that describes the type of cloud from this list: cumulus, nimbus and
cirrus.
DESCRIPTION OF CLOUDS
i Featherly, fibre-like
ii Dark layers may contain rain
iii Heaps separated by blue sky
TYPE OF CLOUD
(3)
D. What do you call plants and animals that have decayed and added to the soil to make it
fertile?________________________________________(1)
(10)
QUESTION 4
(a) Study this diagram of the urinary system and label parts A, B, C and D.
(4)
(b) What is excretion?
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________ (3)
(c) Name any two natural resources.
___________________________________________________________ (2)
(d) What is excreted by the lungs?
___________________________________________________________ (1)
(10)
231
QUESTION 6
a) Name two types of roots.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________ (2)
(b) State two main functions of roots.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________ (2)
(c) A fully developed ovary is called a ____________________________ (1)
(d) Name two processes that take place in a leaf.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________ (2)
(e) Label these parts of a pendulum.
(3)
(10)
232
3.7.5. Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination 1994 - Agriculture Paper
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
SWAZILAND PRIMARY CERTIFICATE
FINAL EXAMINATION 1994
AGRICULTURE
FRIDAY, NOVEMBER 18th - 11:00 a.m. - 12:30 p.m.
TIME:
1 HOUR 30 MINUTES
TOTAL MARKS:
100
CANDIDATE'S NUMBER:
SCORE:
SECTION I
Marks (30)
TEST INSTRUCTIONS FOR STUDENTS:
1. Read all questions carefully before you answer.
2. Five possible answers are given for each question, ONLY ONE is correct.
3. Choose the best answer and put a cross (x) over the letter on the SEPARATE answer
sheet provided.
EXAMPLE:
How many legs does a chicken have?
A. Four
B. Two
C. Thirty Two
D. Ten
E. Eight
SECTION I
1. Look carefully at the flower below. Then answer the question that follow.
Where do seeds develop?
A. Ovary
B. Petal
C. Anther
D. Sepal
E. Stigma
233
2. Where do cutworms damage a seedling?
A. At leaf level
B. At shoot level
C. At root level
D. Below the soil surface
E. At the soil surface
3. Which soil particles make the best soil structure?
A. Silt - Clay - Sand
B. Loam - Sand - Water
C. Sand - Air - Water
D. Air - Clay - Silt
4. What kind of soil is a "heavy soil"?
A. One with too much air
B. One with a 10kg weight
C. One with too much clay
D. One with a 100kg weight
E. One with too much water
5. Why do plants need water?
A. to spread their roots wide
B. to make their food
C. to die peacefully
D. to spread their leaves
E. to produce strong stems
6. A soil pH of 5.8 is good for which type of crops?
A. all legumes
B. all vegetables
C. all fruittrees
D. all trees
E. all grasses
7. Which is the most common problem of soil erosion in Swaziland?
A. muddy erosion
B. wind erosion
C. surface erosion
D. silt erosion
E. water erosion
8. What is the best way of controlling soil erosion?
A. Planting up and down the slope like they do in Malkerns
B. Overstocking
C. Grass burning
D. Cattle tracks
E. Keep the soil covered completely.
9. Which company below produces sugar?
A. Mpaka Coal Mine
B. Shiselweni Forest Company
C. Ubombo Ranches
D. Usuthu Pulp Company
E. Swaziland Fruit Canners
234
10. During a sugar-processing process, why is lime mixed with the juice?
A. to speed up the process
B. to stop the process
C. to remove unwanted materials
D. to make it less acidic
E. to make it taste better
11. Which climate do citrus trees grow best in?
A. a very cold climate
B. a semi-desert climate
C. a cold climate
D. a warm climate
E. a dry climate
12. Look carefully at the picture below. Then answer the questions below it.
Why does the pineapple worker cover her hands, feet and legs?
A. to protect herself from injury by the spines
B. to protect herself from injury by the sun
C. to protect herself from injury by the stem
D. to protect herself from injury by the pineapple fruit
E. to protect herself from broken bottles.
13. Spot a produce from cotton seed below.
A. jelly
B. grease
C. tar
D. oil
E. paraffin
14. Why are trees planted mostly in the Highveld?
A. Because it is hot
B. Because they need a lot of rain
C. Because it is cold
D. Because it is usually bright and sunny
E. Because it is dry
235
15. Which forest company in Swaziland produces gum mainly for mining?
A. Tonkwane Estates
B. Swaziland Plantations
C. Usuthu Forest
D. Bhunya
E. Shiselweni Forest
16. A ripe maize seed has a _________ patch
A. round
B. blue
C. square
D. red
E. black
17. When are potatoes harvested?
A. One to two months after planting
B. When the tops are dry
C. When the flowers develop
D. 6 Months after planting
E. 3 months after planting
18. Drying crops before storing helps to reduce losses caused by __________
A. rats and mice
B. cattle and donkeys
C. parasites
D. pests and diseases
E. man
19. How can you protect your maize crib from
from damaging your maize cobs?
A. Kill them all
B. Guard the crops
C. Use DDT
D. Use jeyes fluid
E. Use rat baffles
236
20. Which, is a disadvantage of keeping chickens in an extensive system?
A. Low produce
B. Tasty meat
C. Healthy chickens
D. Good looking chickens
E. Fast growth
21. Look carefully at the illustration on the right.
Then answer the question.
Which is the parent stock in the illustration?
A. pullet and cockerel
B. Cock, cockerel and hen
C. White Plymouth hen and Cornish Game Cock
D. Both hen and cockerel
E. White Plymouth Rock
22. How can you recognize a chicken with Newcastle disease?
A. Feathers are rough
B. Wings become paralysed
C. The bird starts shivering
D. Diarrhoea with blood
E. Legs become paralysed
23. Why is ventilation important in a broiler house?
A. it helps to keep the birds cool
B. it provides heat to the chickens
C. it provides enough water to broilers
D. it prevents birds from getting water
E. it stops birds from getting air
24. Which of the following cattle breeds has an African origin?
A. Brahman
B. Jersey
C. Simmentaler
D. Afrikander
E. Friesian
25. Which of the following is a milk product?
A. Orange Marmalade
B. Quava juice
C. Margarine
D. Holsum
E. Yoghurt
26. Hay is made just _________ the grass flowers.
A. when
B. after
C. on
D. before
E. in
237
27. A large grazing area where cattle put on weight is a __________
A. paddock
B. breeding station
C. kraal
D. fattening ranch
E. Bull Exchange Scheme
28. Which of the following diseases can be passed on from cattle to humans?
A. Mereks
B. Blackleg
C. Contagious abortion
D. Newcastle
E. Anthrax
29. A tick is a __________
A. harmful parasite
B. germ
C. helpful insect
D. virus
E. internal parasite
30. Cattle are being dipped by this method.
Why are they dipped?
A. to kill ticks
B. to make them as fat as possible
C. to remove their fur (hair)
D. to make them look nice
E. to feed ticks
SECTION II
Read all the questions carefully before you begin. Answer all questions on the spaces
provided.
238
QUESTION 1
Use the following words to complete the food chain below. Use arrows where necessary.
Chicken,
Man,
Grass,
Grashopper,
(7)
QUESTION 2
Match the word / statements to the ones in the blocks on the right. Then write only the letter
of the correct one on the space provided on the far right.
i) Burnt before harvesting
ii) Sunflower
iii) Stocklick
iv) Keeps the chicks warm
v) Attacks flowers, and fruits fail to
set
A. Pumpkinfly
B. Rumevite
C. Sugarcane
D. Backs of flower turn yellow and
hard
E. Brooder
____________
____________
____________
____________
____________
(5)
QUESTION 3
The chart below shows how a spinach plant grew from the 1st week of emergence to 12
weeks. The plant was measured once every week. Study it carefully, and then answer the
questions below.
Week
Height of plant (cm)
1
5
2
8
3
9
4
10
5
10
6
10
7
15
8
18
9
22
10
30
11
38
12
47
a) By how many centimetres did the spinach grow between week 1 and week 10.
___________________________________________________________
b) By how much did it grow between week 4 and week 6?
___________________________________________________________
c) What could be the reason for it maintaining the same height between week 4 and 6?
___________________________________________________________ (6)
QUESTION 4
Fill in the missing words in the passage below. The words are provided for you above the
passage.
Kill; Lime; Prepare; Air; Fork;
Compost; Spade; Roots; Dig
To cultivate the land means to ___________________ it for planting.
We ___________________ the soil to ___________________ weeds; to mix
___________________, and ___________________ with it, to put ___________________
back into the soil, and make it easier for plant ___________________ to spread. Tools used
to cultivate the soil are ___________________, hoe, ___________________ and rake.
(9)
239
QUESTION 5
What is another name for the grass "Eragrostis Curvula"?
____________________________________________________________ (2)
QUESTION 6
Complete the crop rotation for year 4 below.
Plot
A
B
C
D
Year 1
Grass
Potatoes
Maize
Beans
Year 2
Beans
Grass
Potatoes
Maize
Year 3
Maize
Beans
Grass
Potatoes
Year 4
(4)
QUESTION 7: CROSS WORD PUZZLE
Use the statement that is meant by the phrase to solve the puzzle. Fill in the correct letter in
the blank to complete the word.
ACROSS
1. A good fertilizer for tomatoes.
2. Potassium is an example of a major
________.
3. Hen sitting on eggs to warm them.
4. Export brings in the most money into
Swaziland.
DOWN
1. Treating skins for leather.
2. Increases leaf growth.
3. _________ is decayed plant and animal
materials.
4. Oranges and Naartjies.
(9)
QUESTION 8
Look carefully at the illustration of a pineapple processing. Write in the missing stages 1 to 7.
240
(7)
QUESTION 9
This Prevocational Agriculture student from St. Phillips High School sold produce from his
crop project at home
4 bales cotton sold for E202,00 per bale
3 bags sorghum for E40,00 per bag
2 Magogogo beans for E60,00 each
Item
E
c
TOTAL
If he spend E528,00 buying all his inputs
i) How much money did he make?
ii) Which crop was sold for the lowest price per unit?
iii) How much profit / loss did he make?
(10)
QUESTION 10
On the picture of a chicken below label the parts marked 1 to 7
(7)
241
QUESTION 11
What did you do to keep the litter dry in your broiler house?
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________ (2)
QUESTION 12
Why are Swaziland's cattle not very good for meat?
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________ (2)
SECTION I
ANSWER SHEET (AGRICULTURE)
INSTRUCTIONS: DETACH ANSWER SHEET BEFORE ANSWERING
CANDIDATE'S NUMBER:
EXAMPLE BELOW:
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242
3.7.6. Swaziland Primary Certificate Examination 1993 - Agriculture Paper
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
SWAZILAND PRIMARY CERTIFICATE
FINAL EXAMINATION 1993
AGRICULTURE
WEDNESDAY, NOVEMBER 24th - 11:00 a.m. - 12:30 p.m.
TIME:
1 HOUR 30 MINUTES
TOTAL MARKS:
100
CANDIDATE'S NUMBER:
SCORE:
SECTION I
TEST INSTRUCTIONS FOR STUDENTS:
1. Read all questions carefully before you answer.
2. Five possible answers are given for each question, ONLY ONE is correct.
3. Choose the best answer, then make a "cross X" on the correct letter on the answer sheet.
The cross must fill the whole square.
EXAMPLE:
How many legs does a chicken have?
A. Four
B. Two
C. Thirty Two
D. Ten
E. Eight - (See answer sheet for your answer)
SECTION I
1. When you eat an onion bulb, what part of a plant do you eat?
A. fruit
B. stem
C. leaf
D. root
E. flower
2. Witchweed is an example of a ____________
A. pest
B. poisonous plant
C. parasite
D. poison
E. helpful plant
243
3. Look carefully at the picture. What is the right food chain for it?
A. Black eagle ⇒ plant ⇒ worm ⇒ lizard ⇒ hyena
B. Plant ⇒ lizard ⇒ worm ⇒ hyena ⇒ black eagle
C. Hyena ⇒ black eagle ⇒ worm ⇒ lizard ⇒ plant
D. Lizard ⇒ hyena ⇒ black eagle ⇒ plant ⇒ worm
E. Plant ⇒ worm ⇒ lizard ⇒ black eagle ⇒ hyena
4. A wet soil is damaged when you
A. stand on it
B. dig it
C. clean the area
D. prepare planting lines
E. make a seedbed
5. Breaking the soil clods down to the small pieces is the same as preparing ___________
A. a fine tilth
B. raking
C. digging it
D. topdressing
E. capping
6. If you grew beetroot at home, what was the space between the plants in a row?
A. 30cm
B. 10cm
C. 15cm
D. 5cm
E. 20cm
244
7. How deep should spinach seeds be planted?
A. 3.5cm
B. 1.2cm
C. 1.5cm
D. 2.5cm
E. 0.5cm
8. Which one is a function of a handfork?
A. harrowing
B. removing weeds
C. thinning
D. marking straight lines
E. digging
9. To prevent this disease in tomatoes, we used a dithane- copper oxychloride mixture. Which
one is it?
A. rust
B. late blight
C. downey mildew
D. black rot
E. streak
10. How much dipterex 95% WP do you use to spray cabbages with 5 litres of water? (MB =
matchbox)
A. 4MB
B. 3MB
C. 5MB
D. 2½MB
E. 3½MB
11. In clay soil, pore space is ____________
A. thin
B. flat
C. large
D. good
E. small
12. What does humus add to a soil?
A. water
B. air
C. soil pests
D. nutrients
E. poisons
13. Which of the following damages plant cover if it is done wrong?
A. mulching
B. grass burning
C. rotation of crops
D. cattle tracks
E. soil erosion
245
14. Look carefully at the picture of a tool. What is the use of the tool?
A. breaking down soil lumps
B. ploughing
C. marking straight rows
D. planting
E. weeding
15. From which part of a plant do new potato tubers grow?
A. root
B. leaves
C. stem
D. flower
E. fruit
16. How long should sweetpotato cuttings be at planting?
A. 25cm
B. 40cm
C. 30cm
D. 20cm
E. 65cm
17. Look carefully at the diagram and answer the question. How much losses of crops due to
poor storage in Swaziland?
A. 33%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 20%
E. 10%
18. When beans inside a pod are hard. What should be done to avoid damage to them?
A. thin them
B. stake them
C. water them
D. harvest them
E. dry them
246
19. If the nuts inside a pod rattle then they ____________
A. are still very wet
B. are just wet
C. are dry
D. are broken
E. are rotten
20. Which of the following is not a sign of harvesting sunflower?
A. when the tops have died
B. when the plant is dry
C. when seeds begin to fall down
D. when the back of the flower turns yellow
E. when the flower is yellow and hard
21. A sixth grade student at Nokwane Primary School obtained profit from the following crops
last year.
E620,00 from 2 ha of pumpkin
E260,00 from 2 ha of groundnuts
E480,00 from 4 ha of dry beans
E1 500,00 from 2 ha of sugarcane
Which of the crops gave her the least profit per hectare?
A. sugarcane
B. groundnuts
C. pumpkins
D. dry beans
E. groundnuts and sugarcane
22. The picture below shows one way of keeping chickens. Name it.
A. deep litter
B. extensive
C. battery cages
D. semi - intensive
E. Intensive
23. Which of the following should not be used to prevent birds from pecking each other?
A. sump oil
B. tar
C. Jeyes fluid
D. Malathion
E. ash in oil
247
24. Broiler finishers is recommended for birds from:
A. One day to 4 weeks
B. 15 to 21 weeks
C. 6 to 4 weeks
D. 9 to 12 weeks
E. 4 to 10 weeks
25. How much feed per week would a chicken of 650gm (weight) need?
A. 490gm
B. 330gm
C. 560gm
D. 770gm
E. 210gm
26. What do we mean by "cattle industry"?
A. feast on meat
B. hooves
C. a cattle business
D. dairy animals
E. Brahman cattle
27. Overstocking of cattle causes
A. underweight animals
B. good milkers
C. long horns
D. fat animals
E. good draughters
28. During silage making, a plastic sheeting is placed over it. What is the main reason for
this?
A. to avoid heat build up
B. to avoid rain and air
C. to avoid cold temperatures
D. to avoid oxygen build-up
E. to avoid carbon build-up
29. Where are cattle fattened?
A. abattoir
B. dipping tank
C. paddock
D. kraal
E. fattening ranch
30. Which is a symptom of black leg disease in cattle?
A. short shoulders
B. black shoulders
C. black legs
D. swollen shoulders
E. fat legs
248
SECTION II
70 MARKS
Read all the questions carefully before you begin Answer all questions on the spaces
provided
QUESTION 1
Look carefully at the picture. What is happening at the parts marked (a), (b) and (c)?
(2 marks each)
(6)
QUESTION 2
a) What is a food chain? _________________________________________
______________________________________________________________ (2)
b) Look at the mixed pictures carefully. Then complete the food chain below. Use names
and arrows. The first one has been done for you.
249
(10)
QUESTION 3
You used a set of tools for your practicals in the garden at school. Tell us, what did you use
these tools for?
i) Trowel ______________________________________________________ (2)
ii) garden fork ________________________________________________ (1)
iii) wheelbarrow ________________________________________________ (1)
iv) slasher ______________________________________________________ (1)
v) handfork ____________________________________________________ (2)
vi) bushknife__________________________________________________ (1)
(8)
QUESTION 4
Match the statement or word to the correct word or statement on the right. Then write only
the letter of the correct answer on the space provided on the far right.
1. Diarrhoea with blood
2. Friesian
3. Bags on raised floor
4. Orchard
5. Clay loam
A. special house
B. Oranges & Grapefruit
C. Stick can be bent more than halfway
D. Not resistant to ticks
E. Coccidiosis
________________
________________
________________
________________
________________
(5)
QUESTION 5
"A school girl dies after drinking pesticide"
a). Why did the girl die here? ____________________________________
____________________________________________________________ (2)
b) Name 3 ways by which pesticides enter a human body.
i) ____________________________________________________________
ii) ____________________________________________________________
iii) ____________________________________________________________ (3)
250
c) If you sprayed against the wind, and the chemical went straight into your eyes. What
would happen to you? _________________________
____________________________________________________________ (2)
d) What 2 things should one use to clean a chemical that came into contact with the body?
i) ____________________________________________________________
ii) ____________________________________________________________ (2)
(9)
QUESTION 6
Look at the maize leaf picture carefully. Then answer the questions.
a) What caused those holes? _____________________
____________________________________________________________ (1)
b) Was it a sucking or biting animal? ______________
____________________________________________________________ (1)
c) What chemical did you use to kill the pest?
____________________________________________________________ (1)
(3)
QUESTION 7
On the chart provided write:
a) The number of days each crop takes from planting to harvest.
b) The month for harvesting each crop. Planting dates have been provided for you. Then
answer the questions below the chart.
Name of crop
Maize
Sweetpotato
Groundnuts
Cotton
Date on which
crop was planted
1st September
5th October
15th October
20th October
Number of Days to
harvest
i) _____________
ii) _____________
iii) _____________
iv) _____________
Harvesting month
v) _____________ (1)
vi) _____________ (1)
vii) _____________ (1)
viii) _____________ (1)
c) Which one is quickest to mature? _______________________________ (1)
d) Which crop takes the longest to mature? _________________________ (1)
(10)
251
QUESTION 8
Give 3 ways of protecting crops in storage
i ____________________________________________________________
ii ____________________________________________________________
iii ____________________________________________________________
(3)
QUESTION 9
On the space provided, write down the:
a) advantages and disadvantages of keeping day old chicks
a) Day old chicks
Disadvantages (3)
Advantages
i
ii)
iii
b) Write down advantages and disadvantages of keeping 4 weeks old chicks
b) 4 Weeks old chicks
Advantages
i)
ii)
iii)
Disadvantages (3)
(6)
QUESTION 10
Study carefully the chart for chickens where a wrong method of feeding was used.
Results of feeding broilers using the wrong method of feeding:
Age in weeks: From 4 weeks of age
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Average weight of each bird in kg
0.5kg
0.6kg
0.5kg
0.6kg
1.0kg
1.8kg
2.2kg
a) Plot neatly these figures on the axis provided showing the growth rate.
The first two have been done for you.
252
BROILER FEEDING CHART:
b) Give one essential or important element not properly given to the birds at the beginning of
week 6 _____________________________________ (9)
QUESTION 11
Mrs Sifundza (near Shemula Primary School) sold 320 broilers at 10 weeks, for E12,00 each.
E
a) How much money did she get for them? Show how you get your
answer.
b) If she spent El 500,00 on raising the birds. Did she make a profit
or loss?
c) How much is it?
c
Returns
Costs
Profit / Loss
(6)
253
QUESTION 12
Complete the life cycle of a tick by writing out a full sentence for stages 1 and 3 below.
Stage 1: ____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________ (2)
Stage 3: ____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________ (2)
(4)
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SECTION I
ANSWER SHEET (AGRICULTURE)
INSTRUCTIONS: DETACH ANSWER SHEET BEFORE ANSWERING
CANDIDATE'S NUMBER:
EXAMPLE BELOW:
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3.8. Tanzania
3.8.1. Overview
End of Primary School Examination
1.
Title of examination:
Primary School Leaving Examination (PSLE)
2.
Amount of fees charged:
Nil
3.
Examination after years in
primary school (6, 7, 8 years):
7 yrs
4.
Children's entry age in primary
school:
7 yrs
5.
Number of pupils
examination in 1994:
384,762
6.
Examination subjects offered:
sitting
9 subjects are offered in 3 papers:
• Language (Kiswahili, English)
• Mathematics
• General Knowledge (Civics, History, Geography,
Science, Agriculture, Health and Home Science)
Kiswahili
7.
Language of examination:
8.
Institution
setting
examination questions:
9.
Have there been any reforms in
the examination questions?
the
The National Examinations Council of Tanzania
(NECTA)
Yes
When? (year)
1974-1980, 1981-1982, 1983-1994
What kind?
1974-1980: PSLE consisted of a set of four
question papers. These were:
• English Language
• Kiswahili
• Mathematics
• General Knowledge (Political Education, History,
Science, Geography, Agriculture, Health and
Home Science)
1981-1982: Number of
increased from four to five:
Examination
papers
• English Language
• Kiswahili
• Mathematics
• Science (Natural Science, Agriculture, Health and
Home Science)
256
• General Knowledge (Political Education, History,
Geography)
During this period (1981-1982) true-false,
matching, short-answer (e.g. filling in the blanks)
questions were omitted. Excepting Mathematics all
papers had multiple-choice type of questions.
1983-1994: PSLE papers reduced to three only:
Languages, Mathematics and General Knowledge.
With the introduction of a multiparty system in the
country's political arena, Political Education has
been discarded in favour of Civics. Again,
excepting Mathematics, the other papers consist of
multiple-choice questions only.
10.
Stages of development of
examination questions (please
describe):
• Setting: Individually done by subject specialists.
• Moderation: Done by a panel of subject
specialists. During this stage items are discussed,
amended and compiled into several whole
equivalent papers.
• Editing: Done by a panel of subject specialists
other than those who moderated the papers. Here
the Head of the Examination Design and
Development
Department
becomes
the
Chairperson of the editing panel.
Note: All these stages are carried out within
NECTA and by NECTA staff/examination officers.
11.
Type of examination questions
and distribution of different
kind of questions.
• Language: All multiple-choice type of questions.
50 items distributed as follows: Kiswahili 25 items,
English 25 items.
• General Knowledge: All multiple-choice type of
questions. 50 items distributed as follows: Civics
10, History 10, Science 15 and Geography 15.
Considering Science only:
30% recall
20% comprehension
30% application
20% higher order
• Mathematics:
50 questions. Candidates were expected to work
out the solutions and write the answers on
separate sheets of paper. Marks are awarded only
to final correct responses. No multiple-choice
questions.
12.
Is
continuous
assessment
incorporated
in
the
final
examination?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
13.
Are
examination
pretested?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
14.
Which professional groups are
involved
in
setting
the
examination questions?
items
Examination officers within NECTA
257
Are the same professionals
who set the examination
questions involved in marking
papers?
Yes [x]
No [ ]
16.
How are examination results
used for improving teaching in
primary schools?
• The Regional Education Officers (REOs) carry
out evaluation after the selection. The findings are
disseminated to school inspectors and teachers
who use the information to improve teaching.
• NECTA carries out item analysis and the results
are again disseminated to the relevant educational
experts including teachers.
• Past examination papers are re-edited and
printed in booklets by NECTA and sold to
teachers, parents, pupils and other interested
parties.
17.
To w hat other uses are the
examination results put?
The examination results are mainly used for
selection into secondary schools. It may be called
Form I Entry Examination.
15.
Tutors and students of TTCs form the backbone of
markers while the setters/ moderators/editors play
the supervisory role at the marking centre.
Note: The Four-Year Teacher Grade B Course
whose selection depended on the PSLE results
has been scrapped off by the Government.
18.
Main problem with Primary
School Leaving Examinations?
• Administrative, handling/security problems: since
the examination results are mainly used for
selection and the number of places available in the
Government secondary schools are so few and far
apart there is a cut-throat competition leading to
increasing number of dishonesty cases.
• Transportation problems: Tanzania is an
expansive country in terms of area. Most of her
roads are not in good shape thus leading to
haulage problems. Lorry break-downs during
dissemination of question papers and collection of
answer scripts are not uncommon. In addition to
transportation problem, printing and marking costs
are becoming increasingly overwhelming.
3.8.2. An Overview of the 1993 Primary School Leaving Examination
by Janet P. Kitosi, National Examinations Council of Tanzania, and Ibamba P. Isengwa,
Tanzania Institute of Education
The Primary School Leaving Examination in Tanzania is normally taken once a year, on a
single day assigned for the purpose. The 1993 examination was taken on the 5th of October,
1993. It tested a total of 9 subjects namely English, Kiswahili, Mathematics, Political
Education, History, Science, Agriculture, Home Science and Geography. However, the
number of papers offered were only three because most of these subjects were combined to
form one paper (Mathematics, General Knowledge, English and Kiswahili). Each of these
papers contained 50 items each of which carried one Mark. Hence for the three papers a
candidate could score 150 Marks.
All the 50 items of the Language and General Knowledge papers were of multiple-choice type
and candidates were required to attempt all the questions in each of these papers in one and
a half hours. The Mathematics paper was allocated 2 hours instead of 1 1/2 hours as with the
258
other two papers. This is because none of the questions in this paper was a multiple-choice
type. Hence candidates needed more time to do their calculations in order to get the answers
to the items posed.
Except for the English section of the Language paper, all the three papers were set in
Kiswahili. There is no separate paper for the science subjects. Questions testing these
subjects form a section in the General Knowledge paper. This paper is divided into four
sections as follows:
Section I:
Section II:
Section III:
Section IV:
Political Education
History
Science
Geography
-
7 items
8 items
20 items
15 items
For the 1993 examination out of the 20 science items, 15 tested Science (including Home
Science) and 5 items tested Agricultural Science. For each of the three papers comprising the
1993 PSLE, two equivalent papers were set.1 These were equivalent in the sense that they
were testing the same objectives and content as can be seen in the examples given below:
1
In 1990 the country was divided into 5 »examination zones« with 5 papers testing e.g.
Science. The number of different zones was reduced over the years to two, and since
1994 to only one paper per exam subject for the whole country.
General Knowledge 1
Q23.
Which of the following sets of
characteristics could be used to
classify an animal as a reptile?
22.
The lung is one of the excretory
organs. Other such organs are:
32.
How many °C are equivalent to
158°F ?
General Knowledge 2
Q22.
Which of the following sets of
characteristics could be used to
classify an animal as a mammal?
21.
Sweating is one of the ways by
which waste products are removed
from the body. Other ways are:
31.
How many °F are equivalent to
40°C?
Each of these two papers was sent to half the country, i.e. 10 administrative regions because
Tanzania Mainland has 20 of such regions. So the country was divided into two
»Examinations Zones«.
The distribution of papers was such that adjacent regions could not get the same paper so
that in case of leakage it could be localized rather than have it spread all over the country.
The National Examinations Council (NECTA) was entrusted with the role of setting,
moderating, printing, distributing and marking of the 1993 PSLE papers. The Regional
Education Officers (REOs) were given the tasks of selecting pupils for further education in
secondary schools and also that of carrying out the quantitative and qualitative analysis of
candidates' performance in the PSLE for their respective regions.
Latest Developments in Examinations in Tanzania
1. The number of equivalent papers set was reduced from three in 1992 to two in 1993,
and finally in 1994 to only one exam for the whole country. This development has a direct
bearing to the tremendous decrease in cases of leakages. All along NECTA has been
taking deliberate efforts to educate those handling exam papers on the meaning and
importance of observing a high degree of confidentiality in all issues pertaining to
examinations. Furthermore NECTA is nowadays working very closely with the national
security forces and the police right from the time the papers are set until when the exam is
taken and marked.
2. For the first time NECTA required candidates' photographs in the 1993 examination for
identification purposes. In the past there were cases where relatives or elder brothers and
sisters of candidates could sit for the examination on behalf of the actual candidates. This
259
practice was possible because the person supervising a centre normally comes from a
different school and he could not tell whether the candidates appearing for the examination
were actually the right ones or not.
3. Again for the first time NECTA instructed the Regional Education Officers (REOs) to
establish examination centres in their regions whereby neighbouring schools could take
the examination at one centre. This exercise was aimed at reducing the number of centres
so that the time spent in distributing and collecting the papers could be reduced.
Problems
• Due to lack of funds and facilities, such as adequate transport, there are no pretests of
the examination items.
• The number of dropouts, i.e. candidates who do not show up for the examinations, has
been increasing year after year particularly in areas indulged in pastoralism and also due
to girls getting pregnant and being sacked from the school before the examination time.
• Repeaters: By law Std. 5-7 pupils are not supposed to repeat classes. But through some
tricky means a lot of students repeat Std. 7. However, whenever this is discovered the
results in the exam are nullified.
3.8.3. Primary School Leaving Examination (PSLE) in Tanzania Mainland
by Christopher H. Mbiku, National Examinations Council of Tanzania, and Deogratias L.S.
Mgema, Tanzania Institute of Education
Historical Background
Primary School Leaving Examinations (PSLE) have been in existence in Tanzania Mainland
since 1967. Before 1967 there used to be the General Entrance Examination (GEE) which
marked the completion of primary school education and also served as an entrance or
selection examination into secondary schools. The GEE was set and administered centrally
by the Examination Section in the then Directorate of Curriculum Development and
Examinations at the Ministry of National Education Headquarters.
In 1971 the National Examinations Council of Tanzania (NECTA) was established. In 1974
the National Examinations Council started setting and administering the PSLE.
In 1976 the administration of the PSLE changed. It was decided that the preparation of the
PSLE questions or items should remain under the central management and control of the
National Examinations Council of Tanzania, and that the reproduction (or printing),
distribution/administration, marking and other related activities be done by each region under
the direction and control of the Regional Education Officers.
Nature and Purpose of the PSLE
From 1974 until 1980, the PSLE consisted of a set of four papers which required an average
total of 5 1/2 hours. The examination was normally taken once a year on a single day
assigned for the purpose. Beginning in 1981, the number of papers increased from four to five
with each paper lasting one hour. These papers were Kiswahili, English, Maarifa (General
Knowledge), Hisabati (Mathematics) and Sayansi (Science).
From 1971 until 1980, the type of questions (e.g. multiple-choice, true-false, essay,
matching), the number of questions as well as the timing allowed for each paper varied. The
fifth paper (Sayansi), introduced in the 1981 PSLE, used to be Section IV of the General
Knowledge papers administered between 1971 and 1980. Beginning in 1981 the variations in
the type of questions were limited. Except for the Mathematics papers, all the other papers
contained mostly objective questions of multiple-choice type.
260
The PSLE is an achievement examination administered to serve a variety of purposes as
defined for basic primary education in Tanzania Mainland.
Assumptions on the Development of PSLE
The setting of the draft papers was done by tutors in the teachers' colleges. Before the final
drafts of the Primary Leaving Examination papers were submitted to the Regional Education
Officers for further processing, they had to be moderated by subject specialists. The
moderators took all necessary measures to ensure that the papers were well-balanced in
terms of content coverage, objective and equally fair to candidates at Standard Seven (Std.
VII) level for all parts of Tanzania Mainland. It is at this stage where the National
Examinations Council experts ascertain the acceptability of the standard required and
usability of the PSLE to test pupils with varying differences in academic competence. This
aspect, however, is done without regard to geographical location of the schools. The type of
PSLE items in current use consist largely of multiple-choice questions.
Test and measurement specialists recommend that trial testing (pretesting) be accorded a
special phase in test construction. The merits of pretesting rest entirely upon the likelihood
that it will help assemble a test with good quality questions in terms of their psychometric
properties. Usually, this process of pretesting allows the difficulty of each question to be
determined. It also helps to reveal the ability of each question to discriminate between strong
and weak pupils. Apart from these virtues, pretesting also helps to cast light on the strengths
and weaknesses of items and thereby suggests needed improvements in the development
and administration of the entire examination.
Although about 70% of the PSLE questions are of the objective type, the National
Examinations Council of Tanzania does not undertake pretesting activities owing to economic
constraints. Suffice it to say here that NECTA is very much aware of the fact that pretesting, if
well conducted, can increase the validity and reliability of an examination.
In order to determine the need for pretesting, at the PSLE level of operations, the Department
of Research and Evaluation of NECTA developed a project aiming at carrying out item
analysis on the 1981 PSLE papers. This project was developed on the assumption that the
findings of these studies would provide a valuable picture of the kind and extent of reliance
NECTA could put on the use of objective tests in national testing programmes. Specifically
stated, the objectives of the project were:
• to identify items suitable for item banking;
• to carry out training programmes on test construction and other related techniques;
• to lay a firm basis for objective testing at the Primary School level.
The results of the research are contained in a book published by the Department of Research
and Evaluation in March, 1983.
PSLE for the Period 1983 - 1992
In 1983, the National Examinations Council of Tanzania was once again entrusted with the
roles of setting and moderating PSLE papers, reproduction (printing), distribution of the
question papers up to regional headquarters and marking. The Regional Education Officers
were given the following tasks in respect of PSLE:
• to distribute the question papers (already in envelopes sealed by NECTA) to examination
centres/schools;
• to collect the answer-scripts from the centres and forward them to the marking centre;
• to collect the original consolidated mark sheets and the scripts after the marking
exercise;
261
• to supervise the selection exercise;
• to carry out a quantitative and qualitative evaluation of PSLE performance of candidates.
Due to the large number of pupils (about 300,000) taking the PSLE, the examination papers
have been restructured. Several major changes have been effected in the construction and
administration of the PSLE.
First, the number of examination papers has been reduced from five to three: namely Lugha
(Languages), Hisabati (Mathematics) and Maarifa (General Knowledge). In Lugha, Kiswahili
and English are examined. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice questions. Candidates
are required to attempt all the questions in one hour and thirty minutes. In Hisabati,
candidates are examined in elementary arithmetic, cartesian geometry, algebra, commercial
arithmetic, statistics and coordinate geometry. This paper consists of fifty questions and
candidates are required to attempt all the questions in one hour and forty-five minutes.
Although the method used to arrive at answers is not required, candidates are given a
working space in the question paper and answers are written on a separate sheet of paper
designed for this purpose. In Maarifa, four subjects are examined.1 These are: Political
Education - 10 items, History - 10 items, Science -15 items and Geography - 15 items. All the
items in this paper are multiple-choice type.
1
Since 1993 the General Knowledge Paper consists of questions from six subjects. See
also »3.8.2. An Overview of the 1993 Primary School Leaving Examination«.
For the purpose of selection of pupils to join the Government Secondary Schools, each
question or item carries an equal weight so that a maximum of 150 points may be scored for
all the three papers.
The second aspect of the PSLE lies in the preparation of the questions themselves. In the
past, questions were set by various tutors teaching in the teacher training colleges and then
moderated by the subject specialists in the National Examinations Council of Tanzania.
Nowadays, the questions are set by subject specialists within NECTA and moderated by a
panel of subject specialists again within NECTA. This means that the quality of the
examination questions on the one hand and the security of PSLE papers on the other hand
have been enhanced.
In the past, as stated above, NECTA used to set and moderate five papers for each region.
These papers were different in the sense that they had different answers but were equivalent
in weight and content. At present, the situation is different. NECTA has divided Tanzania
Mainland into »examination zones«. These zones are not permanent. They vary in place and
time. If, for example, Kilimanjaro Region belongs to zone one this year, next year it may be in
zone three. In the period 1983 - 1990 there were five examination zones. Tanzania Mainland
has 20 regions which means that each examination zone consisted of four scattered regions.
The advantages of administering PSLE in zones lie in the security of the examination papers,
in that the temptation to steal the papers or cram some of the contents therein is discouraged
by the wide choice one has to make. The disadvantage of this system lies in the cost: for five
zones alone one needs to set and moderate fifteen different but equivalent papers. An
equivalent number of films and plates are used during printing. It is for this reason that the
number of examination zones has been reduced to four and three in the years 1991 and
1992, and finally to one nationwide zone since 1994.
In order to strengthen the security of the Primary School Leaving Examination further, the
National Examination Council of Tanzania has decided to work jointly with the other state
organs, i.e. the National Security Force and the police. These are fully involved during the
printing stage, transportation from NECTA headquarters to the regions and the marking
exercise.
Finally, there comes the aspect of motivation. Apart from educating those who handle the
examination papers on the meaning and importance of security, an incentive package is
necessary if one is to achieve the desired goals. NECTA realized the immense value of
262
motivation and started to implement this in 1983. It is for this reason, in conjunction with those
stated above, that PSLE leakage is now history. But this does not imply that PSLE is devoid
of irregularities. However, a stage has been reached where one may sigh with relief.
Marking of PSLE Scripts
One of the most important stages in the administration of examinations is the marking of
candidates' scripts. The reduction of the number of PSLE question papers means that
emphasis in the examination has shifted from summation to selection. To ensure fair
selection, correct data must be obtained and processed accurately. The processing speed
must be high enough to warrant timely delivery of the information to the decision makers (e.g.
selectors). Both the data and information generated need to be stored in a form appropriate
for easy retrieval.
It was in view of these demands that the National Examinations Council of Tanzania, with the
aid of an IDA loan, bought a computer complex in 1985. But to acquire a computer unit is one
thing and to be able to use it effectively is another. It was planned that PSLE scripts would be
marked by a computer using optical mark readers and that thereafter all the data would be
processed by the computer. To achieve this one requires trained personnel to handle the
computer software and hardware. To date NECTA has not started marking PSLE scripts by
computer for lack of sufficient manpower resources both in the schools and at NECTA
headquarters. However, the Department of Research and Evaluation on its own initiative has
embarked on keying the massive data for the purpose of storing and obtaining valuable
statistical parameters.
At present, the marking and processing is done manually. However, precautionary measures
are taken during marking to ensure that maximum reliability of the data obtained is achieved.
This is accomplished mainly by using checkers at every stage of the entire marking process
which includes marking, counting of marks, entering of marks in consolidated mark sheets,
addition of marks and filing of consolidated mark sheets. The main consumers of PSLE data
are the Regional Education Officers (REOs) and the Ministry of Education and Culture. To
avoid irregularities during selection, NECTA keeps the carbon copy of all the PSLE raw marks
recorded in the consolidated mark sheets (CMS). The original CMS and the scripts are
returned to REOs who, after completing the selection exercise (based on the quarter system),
carry out an evaluative analysis of performance of their candidates in their respective regions.
These evaluative reports are used to guide or counsel the teachers in the field so that they
may improve their teaching and thereby candidates' performance.
Concluding Remarks
Hundreds of thousands of pupils complete primary education annually. It is disturbing to note
that only six percent (6%) are selected to join public or government secondary schools. No
doubt, an examiner always faces difficult choices. Should the examiner set questions to cater
for the upper group only? Should he/she consider the majority only? Or should he/she strike a
balance by including items for both groups?
3.8.4 Primary School Leaving Examination 1994 - General Knowledge Paper (Section
IV: Science), (English Translation)
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL
PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING EXAMINATION 1994
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Section IV: SCIENCE (Choose the letter of the correct answer)
263
31. Blood flowing out of the heart to other parts of the body normally has
A. a lot of humidity
B. a lot of oxygen
C. no carbon dioxide
D. little oxygen
E. a lot of carbon dioxide
32. The earth's rotation around its own axis brings about
A. seasons of the year
B. eclipse of the sun
C. day and night
D. eclipse of the moon
E. high and low sea tides
33. An animal has lungs just like a fish has
A. gills
B. fins
C. scales
D. skin
E. mouth
34. Excretion is one of the characteristics of living things. Other characteristics are:
A. Hearing and seeing
B. Hearing and responding to stimuli
C. Respiring and growing
D. Eating and speaking
E. seeing and responding to stimuli
35. The type of food that is synthesized in the green parts of plants is
A. protein
B. carbohydrates
C. vitamins
D. fats
E. salts
36. One of the properties of loam soil is
A. inability to allow water to pass through
B. allowing water to pass faster than in sand
C. allowing water to flow through it as fast as it does in sand
D. allowing water, when in excess, to flow through it
E. allowing less water to pass through than in sand
37. The source of humus that is present in the soil is
A. broken down rocks
B. insects living in the soil
C. remains of dead animals
D. remains of dead plants
E. remains of dead leaving things
38. The group of foods which provide energy to the body are
A. rice and potatoes
B. fruits and beans
C. spinach and cowpeas
D. cowpeas and fats
E. meat and fish
264
39. Examine the following diagram carefully and then answer the question below:
If the beam lever is in balance, the value of P in Kg is
A. 6
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30
E. 12
40. The film in a camera is like which part in the human eye?
A. Retina
B. Pupil
C. Choroid
D. Lens
E. Iris
41. For a physical object to be seen it must
A. reflect light
B. emit light
C. block light
D. transmit light
E. absorb light
42. Magnetic force is always accompanied by the following:
A. light
B. heat
C. electricity
D. wave
E. wind
43. A person standing in stagnant water without wearing shoes is most likely to be infected
with
A. tape worms
B. bilharzia
C. diarrhoea
D. malaria
E. cholera
265
44. Which of the following is a physical change?
A. Dissolving sugar in water
B. Burning of kerosene
C. Souring of milk
D. Burning of candles
E. Rusting of iron
45. Which stage in the life cycle of a mosquito is most vulnerable by use of kerosene?
A. Egg
B. Tad-pole
C. Lava
D. Pupa
E. Adult
46. Examine the following food chain in a certain conservation area:
LIONS → ANTELOPES → GRASSES
If all lions migrate to other areas,
A. grasses will increase
B. grasses will decrease
C. grasses will remain the same
D. all antelopes will die
E. antelopes will decrease
47. Which of the following characteristics distinguishes amphibia from other animals?
A. Laying eggs, poikilothermic, does not suckle the young ones
B. Laying eggs, homoithermic, does not suckle young ones
C. Laying eggs, leads both aquatic and terrestrial life
D. Suckles young ones, homoithermic, hairy body
E. Laying eggs, breathing through spiracles, body composed of three main parts
48. Sun hemp (marijuana) is among the plants which improve the fertility of the soil. Other
plants are:
A. cocoyam, potatoes
B. beans, cassava
C. potatoes, cassava
D. beans, cowpeas
E. cowpeas, potatoes
49. Which of the following sequences causes rainfall?
A. Rain → ocean → water vapour → clouds
B. Ocean → water vapour → clouds → rain
C. Water vapour → clouds → ocean → rain
D. Ocean → rainfall → water vapour → clouds
E. Water vapour → ocean → clouds → rain
50. One of the functions of blood in the human body is to
A. increase heat
B. decrease heat
C. excrete wastes
D. transport oxygen
E. digest food substances
266
3.8.5 Primary School Leaving Examinations 1993 - General Paper 1 (Section III:
Science), (English Translation) and - General Paper 2 (Section III: Science), (English
Translation)
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL
PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING EXAMINATIONS 1993
GENERAL PAPER 1
SECTION III: SCIENCE
Choose the most correct answer and write down the letter corresponding to that answer in
front of the question number.
16. Which one of the following refers to movement in plants?
A. Dispersal of seeds by wind
B. Growing away from light
C. Absorption of water from the soil
D. Spreading of branches in the air
E. Growing of shoots away from the stem
17. Which one of the following refers to features of insect pollinated flowers?
A. Production of abundant pollen
B. Production of odourless pollen
C. Brightly coloured
D. Faintly coloured
E. Faint odour
18. Branches are among the main parts of a plant. Other parts are:
A. Stem and fruits
B. Fruits and flowers
C. Roots and leaves
D. Roots and stem
E. Flowers and stem
19. Which type of blood cells are responsible for the transfer of oxygen in the animal body?
A. White blood cells
B. Blood platelets
C. Plasma
D. All blood cells
E. Red blood cells
20. The hawk is a vertebrate animal. Others are:
A. Snake, lizard, rat
B. Rat, snail, snake
C. Rat, bat, tortoise
D. Small fish, millipede, chameleon
267
21. Villi are part of the digestive system/Other structures are:
A. Heart, pancreas
B. Lungs, kidneys
C. Pancreas, kidneys
D. Tongue, large intestine
E. Small intestine, pancreas
22. The lung is one of the organs of the excretory system. Other organs are:
A. Ribs and kidneys
B. Skin and kidneys
C. Ribs and heart
D. Heart and kidneys
E. Ribs and chest
23. Which of the following sets of characteristics can be used to classify animals as reptiles?
A. They lay eggs, respire by spiracles, have three main body parts
B. They suckle their young, are warm blooded
C. They lay eggs, are cold blooded, do not suckle their young
D. They lay eggs, suckle their young, have hairy bodies
E. They lay eggs, live in water and on land
24. After Juma had analysed the soil of his farm, he found out that it was acidic. What
corrective measures should be taken?
A. Leave the farm fallow
B. Add a neutralizing chemical
C. Loosen up the soil
D. Practice flat cultivation
E. Select a particular crop for planting
25. The vulture is dependent on plants in that:
A. It uses leaves to build its nest
B. It lays its eggs in tall trees
C. It eats the carcasses of herbivores
D. It hides in dense forests
E. It spends the nights in tall trees
26. Calcium is one of the nutrient elements contained in CAN Fertilizer. What are the other
elements?
A. Ammonia, Nitrogen
B. Ammonia, Nickel
C. Acid, Nitrogen
D. Aluminium, Nitrogen
E. Ammonia, Neon
27. Consider the following practices:
(i) Boiling meat until it is well cooked
(ii) Covering the mouth with a handkerchief when coughing
If you observe these practices, you will be taking measures to control one of the following sets
of diseases:
A. Measles, roundworms
B. Cholera, pneumonia
C. Dysentery, cholera
D. Measles, pneumonia
E. Roundworms, T.B.
268
28. In the human body, Vitamin B3 and D prevent the following diseases:
A. Night blindness, pellagra
B. Night blindness, beriberi
C. Night blindness, scurvy
D. Beriberi, scurvy
29. When two substances are mixed, a chemical change takes place if there occurs a change
in:
A. Composition
B. Light
C. Sound
D. Matter
E. Heat
30. If the upward force of water is less than the weight of a canoe, the canoe will:
A. Sway
B. Capsize
C. Sink
D. Be pushed up
E. Float
31. The force that enables us to walk without falling is:
A. Magnetical
B. Electrical
C. Gravitational
D. Frictional
E. Adhesional
32. How many degrees centigrade (°C) are equivalent to 158°F?
A. 58
B. 98
C. 70
D. 126
E. 190
33. In order to load sacks of maize into a lorry, which of the following machines would you
use?
A. Pulley and wrench
B. Piece of timber and ladder
C. Ladder and a pole
D. Roller and ladder
E. Pulley and a pole
34. Soap is made by boiling a base with:
A. An acid
B. An alcohol
C. Spirit
D. Fat
E. Salt
269
35.
In the above diagrams A and B are bars of magnets. If side N of Bar A is brought close to
side N of bar B, the bars will:
A. Repel
B. Attract each other
C. Join up
D. Move toward one side
E. Break
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL
PRIMARY SCHOOL LEAVING EXAMINATION 1993
GENERAL PAPER 2
SECTION III: SCIENCE
Choose the most correct answer and write down the letter corresponding to that answer in
front of the question number on the answer sheet.
16. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of living things?
A. Reproduction
B. Feeding
C. Decomposition
D. Growth
E. Response
17. Which of the following is a condition for seeds to germinate?
A. Soil
B. Organic manure
C. Fertilizer
D. Heat
E. Light
18. The seeds of "Mchunga" plant are dispersed by wind. Which of the following plants have
seeds that are also dispersed in this way?
A. Kapok and cotton
B. Finger millet spinach
C. Spinach and tomatoes
D. Tomatoes and spinach
E. Tomatoes and castor
19. Which of the following are the three major parts of an insect?
A. Abdomen, head, wings
B. Head, abdomen, legs
C. Spiracles, thorax, abdomen
D. Wings, thorax, abdomen
E. Head, thorax, abdomen
270
20. Which of the following are developmental stages in the life cycle of a mosquito?
A. Egg, pupa, larva, adult
B. Pupa, egg, larva, adult
C. Egg, larva, pupa, adult
D. Larva, egg, pupa, adult
E. Pupa, larva, egg, adult
21. Sweating is one way through which waste products are excreted from the body. Other
excretory means are:
A. Sneezing, breathing
B. Breathing, urinating
C. Spitting, urinating
D. Blowing the nose, breathing
E. Sneezing, crying
22. Which of the following sets of characteristics can be used to classify animals as
MAMMALS?
A. They lay eggs, are cold blooded, do not suckle their young
B. They lay eggs, breathe through spiracles, have bodies divided into three main parts
C. They lay eggs, are warm blooded, do not suckle their young
D. They suckle their young, are warm blooded, have hairy bodies
E. They live in water and on land, they lay eggs
23. After Pazi had conducted an experiment he found out that the soil in his farm could not
drain out water easily. What corrective measures should be taken?
A. Select a crop for planting
B. Loosen up the soil
C. Add a neutralizing chemical
D. Practice flat cultivation
E. Follow recommended number of times of weeding
24. Study the following diagram and then answer the question that follow.
Which of the following practices would you undertake to arrest persistent occurrance of the
situation?
A. Constructing ridges
B. Planting trees
C. Filling up gullies with soil
D. Leaving the field fallow
E. Practice flat cultivation
25. Apart from cow peas, what other plants enrich the nutrient status of the soil?
A. Crotalaria, potatoes
B. Potatoes, pigeon peas
C. Crotalaria, beans
D. Beans, cassava
E. Grams, cocoyams
271
26. Consider the following practices:
(i) Killing of snails by chemicals
(ii) Constructing and using latrines properly
If you observe these practices, you will be taking measures to control one of the following sets
of diseases:
A. Measles, roundworms
B. Pneumonia, bilharzia
C. Round worms, dysentery
D. Pneumonia, measles
E. Bilharzia, dysentery
27. In the human body vitamins C and B1 prevent the following two diseases:
A. Beriberi, night blindness
B. Night blindness, scurvy
C. Rickets, pellagra
D. Scurvy, beriberi
E. Pellagra, scurvy
28. Which one of the following properties of light is manifested by the eclipse of the sun?
A. Light travels in a straight line
B. Light is reflected by an object
C. Light is absorbed by an object
D. Light bends when passing through an object
E. Light passes through an object
29. Which type of lenses should a short sighted person wear to correct the defect?
A. Convex
B. Semi-convex
C. Round
D. Concave
E. Semi-concave
30. The functions of mabbles ("goroli") in a machine are to:
A. Lubricate the machine
B. Reduce speed of the machine
C. Stop movement of the machine
D. Reduce friction in the machine
E. Raise temperature of the machine
31. How many degrees Fahrenheit (°F) are equivalent to 40°?
A. 72
B. 112
C. 80
D. 136
E. 104
32. How will you rescue a person affected by an electric shock?
A. Pushing him using hands
B. Pushing him using legs
C. Pushing him with a dry wooden pole
D. Pushing him with an iron rod
E. Pushing him with a wet wooden pole
272
33. When lighting a torch, which of the following forms of energy is changed?
A. Electrical
B. Chemical
C. Static
D. Kinetic
E. Magnetic
34. One of the ways of obtaining salt from a salt solution is by:
A. Freezing
B. Filtering
C. Decanting
D. Dissolving
E. Heating
35. Which of the following refers to a change in state?
A. Decaying of fruits
B. Formation of steam
C. Burning of paper
D. Rusting of iron
E. Souring of milk
3.9. Uganda
3.9.1. Overview
End of Primary School Examination
1.
Title of examination:
2.
3.
Amount of fees charged:
Examination after years in primary
school (6, 7, 8 years):
Children's entry age in primary
school:
Number of pupils sitting examination
in 1994:
Examination subjects offered:
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Language of examination:
Institution setting the examination
questions:
Have there been any reforms in the
examination questions?
When? (year)
What kind?
Stages of development of examination
questions (please describe):
273
Uganda Primary
Examination
≈ US$2
7 yrs
Leaving
Certificate
6-7 yrs
162,695
6 subjects in 4 papers:
• English
• Mathematics
• Social Studies/Religious Education
• Basic Science & Health Education (incl.
Agriculture)
English
Uganda National Examinations Board
(UNEB)
Yes
1983
Replacement of multiple-choice questions
by structured questions.
• Setters' workshop is organized and
invited setters receive basic training
through presentations.
11.
12.
13.
Type of examination questions and
distribution of different kind of
questions.
Is
continuous
assessment
incorporated in the final examination?
Are examination items pretested?
14.
Which
professional
groups
are
involved in setting the examination
questions?
15.
Are the same professionals who set
the examination questions involved in
marking papers?
How are examination results used for
improving
teaching
in
primary
schools?
16.
17.
18.
To what other uses are the
examination results put?
Main problem with Primary School
Leaving Examinations?
• Setters write items which are shredded at
the workshop.
• Shredded items are later moderated.
• Items accepted after moderation are
compiled into papers for pre-testing.
• Analysis of pre-tested items is done and
some items may be remoderated.
• Items are banked for use when required.
Only structured questions made up of 50%
recall and comprehension and 50% higherorder questions.
Yes [ ]
No [x]
Yes [x]
No [ ]
• Primary school teachers
• School inspectors
• Tutors of TTCs
• Uganda National Examinations Board
(UNEB) staff
Yes [x]
No [ ]
A report on the work of candidates is sent
out to schools, pointing out weaknesses in
teaching, pupil misconceptions as seen in
the scripts and areas that need more
indepth approach.
• Selection into post primary institutions. •
Certification.
• Large entry which influences costeffectiveness.
• Cost of presenting items.
• Tendencies to cheat by pupils and
teachers.
3.9.2. Item Writing for Primary Leaving Examinations in Uganda
by Dan Nokrach Odongo, Uganda National Examinations Board
Primary education in Uganda at present ends after 7 years of formal schooling. At the end of
this period, pupils sit for the Uganda Primary Leaving Certificate Examinations administered
by the Uganda National Examinations Board (UNEB).
The examinations consist of 4 written papers viz. English Language, Mathematics, Social
Studies and Religious Education and Basic Science and Health Education. The results of the
examination are used by the Ministry of Education and Sports for placement/selection of
candidates for post-primary institutions. The results also show attainment of a level of
education expected after 7 years. Schools also get a feedback through reports on the work of
candidates (see chapter 4: Examples of Follow-up Communications after the Examinations).
Background History of Science Syllabus
Before 1981, the Primary Leaving Certificate Examinations were administered by the Ministry
responsible for Education. Science was examined as part of a General Paper of which it
comprised 25%. The Chief Examinations Secretary received whole paper drafts from setters,
who were usually teachers in primary schools and tutors and lecturers in teacher training
colleges. The draft questions were then moderated by the Chief Examinations Secretary, the
Inspector of Schools (Primary) and the Education Officer (Primary) at Ministry Headquarters.
274
The items generated were all of the multiple-choice type.
The break-up of the East African Examinations Council occasioned the formation of UNEB
which then took over the primary examinations from 1981. The section moved to UNEB from
the Ministry of Education. In 1982 changes were made in the method of generating items. An
item writers workshop was organized and participants set items. The Research Department of
UNEB shredded the items. A pretest of the shredded items was organized. These measures
were introduced to improve the validity, reliability and security of the items.
There was also a change in the format of the Science section of the General Paper.
Subsection I was made up of 15 questions of the multiple-choice type and subsection II had 6
simple structured questions.
In 1981 the Ministry of Education decided that, in order to promote Science, the Curriculum
was to be expanded. The General Paper was already too loaded and a decision was taken to
split it. Two papers were born out of this; Social Studies and Religious Education, and
Science. The National Curriculum Development Centre (NCDC) was asked to develop a
syllabus for the Science paper. The examination paper then consisted of 40 multiple-choice
questions and 15 structured questions. The new Science paper was presented for the first
time in 1983, allowing for a two year period for schools to note the change.
In 1984 the use of multiple-choice questions was abolished. It was felt that multiple-choice
items did not encourage originality and expression on the part of candidates. The method of
testing also lent itself to easy cheating by candidates. External assistance from teachers to
candidates was also easy. Another problem was the lack of trained item writers - items
tended to test factual knowledge only. Instead, 40 simple structured questions formed the first
part and 15 more difficult ones formed the second part. By 1988 the method of item
generation whereby writers submitted complete drafts was beginning to be discarded in order
to improve the security of the items. The method was finally abolished in 1990.
In 1990 the Science paper underwent another major change. The syllabus was expanded to
include Health Education. It was felt that pupils leaving school after the primary cycle needed
to be equipped with knowledge and ability to take care of their own health and that of the
community in which they live. With the assistance of UNICEF, the Science syllabus was
expanded and has become Basic Science and Health Education with Health Education
weighted at about 50% of the paper. The format remained the same - 40 simple structured
questions (40 marks) in Section A and 15 more difficult ones (60 marks) in Section B. This
paper was presented for the first time in 1991.
The Current Situation
Since 1991, items have been generated at item writers workshops. The workshop is
residential, lasts 10 working days, and is organized annually.
Participants invited are classroom teachers, lecturers and tutors in teacher-training colleges,
inspectors of schools in charge of primary education, curriculum experts from NCDC and
health education experts from the UNICEF Uganda country office. People who are not
involved in teaching other than those above are not invited. The identified participants are
then vetted and cleared by the Examinations Security Committee of UNEB. Just before the
1991 workshop, UNEB organised a major item writers course conducted by senior officers of
the Board to improve on the writers' abilities and, consequently, the quality of the items.
At the workshops, participants write items rather than whole papers. The items are written
according to a not too rigid table of specification (see Table of Specification). This is followed
by shredding of items at the workshop and later moderation of the items in UNEB offices by a
team of moderators under the guidance of the subject secretary, Test Development. The
items are brought together in several parallel papers for the purpose of pretesting. Schools to
be used for the pretest are randomly chosen from three categories: urban, semi-urban and
rural. The result of the pretesting exercise is analysed to check the behaviour of the questions
- their reliability and validity indices.
275
The abilities tested are knowledge, comprehension and application. The higher abilities analysis etc. - are not expected at this level.
Accepted questions are banked using the banking form (see Item Banking Form). Banked
questions are ready to be used the following year.
Proposals for Improvement of the Science Paper
The NCDC and the Ministry responsible for Education have recommended that a Practical
Basic Science and Health Education paper be set. A sample paper has been submitted to
UNEB. The constraints here are the volume of equipment needed at this level - about
180,000 candidates. Most schools do not have laboratories or workshops, or science
equipment. The financial aspect is the other big constraint. Whereas the idea has, at the
moment, been shelved, committees in both UNEB and NCDC are working towards the goal of
having a practical paper included alongside the theory one. Further training of item writers
and the development of tests is planned.
Uganda National Examinations Board
Primary Leaving Examination/Table of Specification
Section A
K
C
1
2
1
1
2
1
1
1
2
1
1
2
1
1
1
1
1
3
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
1
20
15
Unit
1. Our Environment
2. Changes in our Environment
3. Crop Husbandry
4. Animal Husbandry
5. Systems of Mammals
6. Our Health
7. Common Diseases
8. Air/Water and Weather
9. Food and Nutrition
10. Classification and Study of Living Things
11. The Flowering Plants
12. Measurement
13. Forms of Energy
14. Simple Machines
15. Accidents and First Aid
16. Family and Social Problems
17. Sanitation
18. Immunisation
19. Primary Health Care
Total
A
1
1
1
1
1
5
Section B
K
C
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
8
4
A
1
1
1
3
Note: Section A = simple structured questions; Section B = more difficult questions; K =
Knowledge; C = Comprehension; A = Application
IBF/1
ITEM ID
LEVEL ____________
Uganda National Examinations Board
Item Banking Form
Subject
Topic
Sub-Topic
Objective
Ability Level
Author/Source
________________________________________________
________________________________________________
________________________________________________
________________________________________________
________________________________________________
_____________________________ Year ______________
276
Usage Data
Year
P-value
D-value
V-index
R-index
Remarks
1
2
3
4
5
Question:
3.9.3. The Uganda Primary Leaving Certificate Examination in Basic Science and Health
Education
by Zacky W. Eriko, Uganda National Examinations Board
1. Introduction
Several forces have greatly contributed to our current practices as regards the Uganda
Primary Leaving Certificate Examination (PLE), the main features will be described later. The
main forces include:
(1) Criticisms of the PLE
The commonest criticisms levelled against the PLE include:
• that it has made teaching be geared towards passing the examination only - i.e. the
»examination tail« wagging the »curriculum dog« in that whatever is not examined at
PLE remains either untaught or taught poorly;
• that most of the questions were of the »recall« type, testing lowest cognitive levels,
hence encouraging rote learning rather than understanding or other higher cognitive
abilities and skills;
• that the examination tended to favour urban school children and discriminated against
rural schools;
• that too much was being demanded from the candidates such that teaching has
turned into coaching; that this is done seven days a week, from January to November,
hence learning becomes a torture rather than a pleasant experience for children,
exerting severe physical and psychological strains on children and financial strains on
parents;
• Some people even believe that a very limited area of the primary school curricula is
being tested; such people tended to argue that the PLE should be expanded to cover
subjects like Music, Physical Education, Art and Crafts, etc.
(2) Examination Malpractices
Over the past few years, the Board had noticed that malpractices in the examination at
primary level were becoming an issue of great concern. The public on their part have not
minced words in accusing the staff of the Board (in most cases erroneously) for the
malpractices. They have always shouted »leakage« at every case of examination
malpractices. The malpractices in the PLE fall in three broad categories: Irregularities,
Misconduct and Dishonesty or Cheating. The last category, the most serious of the three,
is composed of: leakage, collusion, copying, external assistance, impersonation,
smuggling and substitution - of all these, the public is not aware of. They persistently think
277
that every case is due to leakage of exams.
(3) Psychometric Considerations
As more and more of the Board's staff became acquainted with the modern techniques of
measurement and evaluation, but educational assessments in particular, shortcomings
were identified and changes introduced.
2. Generating Test Items and Preparation of PLE Basic Science and Health Education
Paper
It is a matter of fact that setting good test items cannot be done by accident. It requires
special skills that can only be acquired through training and experience. In this regard,
therefore, all those experienced and dedicated teachers used by the Board as setters in the
PLE have had to be carefully identified, vetted, trained and tested before being commissioned
to do the job.
Due to some of the reasons given already above, the Board employs two methods of
generating items that go into the PLE Basic Science and Health Education Paper:
(1) Through different people being asked to set parallel papers based on a specification
grid. This has the advantage of proper balance of the various aspects of the syllabus and
coherence.
(2) Through item-writers workshops in which active classroom teachers at that level,
inspectors, subject specialists at the National Curriculum Development Centre and tutors
in Primary Teachers' Colleges participate.
The emphasis in both cases is on having been subjected to training on test construction
techniques by the Board first.
The items so generated, whether through parallel papers or workshops, or later in schools are
shredded/moderated compiled into fresh papers pre-tested and analysed for level of difficulty
as well as discrimination ability before being banked as items (not as papers).
At a later stage, the banked items are used to compile at least three parallel papers which are
looked at by a moderation panel and later vetted and re-adjusted by a small group of the top
secretariate. In this way loop-holes which could result in possible leakage of the exam are
totally sealed.
3. Format of the Examination and its Administration to Candidates
(1) Format of the paper: The instructions to the candidate on the front page of the exam
paper clearly state that the paper has two sections: A (made of 40 short answer questions
- 40 marks); and B (15 questions - 60 marks).
The questions in section A cover a much wider area and they all carry equal marks. Those
in section B cover fewer areas but in depth. The whole paper is for 2 hours 15 min. It
covers Physical and Biological Sciences, Agriculture and Health Education.
(2) Administration of the PLE: Schools within a reasonable radius are grouped together at
one centre and each of the examination rooms used must have representatives from each
of the schools sitting there. Supervisors at each centre are appointed by the Board and
these are usually qualified and experienced secondary school teachers and tutors of
PTCs. The invigilators, on the other hand, are primary school teachers, appointed by the
District Inspector of Schools but not from the schools sitting at a particular centre.
Candidates' passport size photographs are used to identify the candidates. Through these
and other measures not discussed here, the Board has been able to drastically minimize
examination malpractices in the PLE.
278
4. Grading/Award of Certificates
The Board does not have a pre-determined boundary for a pass mark. The decision of cut-off
points at grades 2, 6 and 8 are arrived at during an awards meeting in which the Chief
Examiner of the paper assesses the level of difficulty of the paper (item by item) and
performance by the candidates. The remaining intermediary scales on a modified 9-point
scale are then worked out statistically, such that the best score is a One and the worst a Nine.
The certificate awarded is determined by the total aggregate score in the four papers and
range from division 1 to 4. Those below that are ungraded.
5. Proposed Reforms
Uganda is about to embark on a massive reform of its education system at both primary
school and Primary Teachers' Training levels. The National Examining body is seen to be
playing a central role in this proposed World Bank financed reform. Some of the specific roles
that the Board will be expected to play include:
• Introducing and incorporating continuous assessment into the examination system;
• Conducting national assessment of educational progress;
• Increasing the level of test items in the PLE to those testing higher cognitive abilities as
well as relating questions to live situations; and
• Improving on feedback systems to schools and parents.
3.9.4 Uganda Primary Leaving Certificate Examination 1994 - Basic Science and Health
Education
UGANDA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS BOARD
UGANDA PRIMARY LEAVING CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION
BASIC SCIENCE AND HEALTH EDUCATION
Time Allowed: 2 hours 15 minutes
Name...............................................................
Index No
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
Read the following instructions carefully:
1. The paper is made up of two Sections: A and B.
2. Section A has 40 short-answer questions (40 marks).
3. Section B has 15 questions (60 marks).
4. Attempt ALL questions. All answers to both Sections A and B must be written in the spaces
provided.
5. All answers must be written in blue or black ball-pen or ink. Only diagrams and graph work
may be done in pencil.
6. Unnecessary alteration of work will lead to loss of marks.
279
7. Any handwriting that cannot easily be read may lead to loss of marks.
SECTION
A
B
TOTAL
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
EXRS MARKS
T/L MARKS
OFFICE
© 133022 Uganda National Examinations Board
1994
Turn over
SECTION A
1. How does uncontrolled burning affect our environment?
.................................................................................................................
2. State one method by which breast milk protects newly born babies.
.................................................................................................................
3. In the space provided below, draw a simple diagram of a molar tooth.
4. State one way in which earthworms are important to a farmer.
.................................................................................................................
5. How does the sun-ray help in the formation of rain?
.................................................................................................................
6. What takes place in the lungs when one breathes in and out?
.................................................................................................................
7. John is suffering from a headache. The nurse wishes to measure John's body temperature.
Why does she put the thermometer under John's arm-pit and not on his head?
.................................................................................................................
8. How does government control the spread of a cattle disease when it breaks out in an area?
.................................................................................................................
9. How does the skin of a person maintain his body temperature on a hot day?
.................................................................................................................
10. Why is it not necessary for a VIP latrine to have a lid for the hole?
.................................................................................................................
11. Why is it not good to pour paraffin into a pit latrine?
.................................................................................................................
12. A 14 year-old child who is usually well behaved suddenly becomes rude to the parents.
State one possible change in the child responsible for such a behaviour.
280
.................................................................................................................
13. What is the advantage of family planning to a mother?
.................................................................................................................
14. Why would the control of AIDS be easier than that of malaria?
.................................................................................................................
15. Why does milk left in the open become sour after some time?
.................................................................................................................
16. A child is found to be dehydrated. What is a possible cause of this dehydration?
.................................................................................................................
17. What causes anaemia?
.................................................................................................................
18. How does smoke from a fire in a room reach other areas in the same room?
.................................................................................................................
19. A block of wood of volume 24 cm weighs 36 grams. What is its density?
.................................................................................................................
20. A female fish lays eggs in the water. How are these eggs fertilized?
.................................................................................................................
21. What type of change takes place when a candle melts?
.................................................................................................................
22. Pregnant women are advised to receive immunization against Tetanus. What is the
importance of this immunization to the unborn child?
.................................................................................................................
23. State any one first aid you would give to a patient who is bleeding from a deep cut on the
leg.
.................................................................................................................
24. Bob and Agnes are sitting, balanced, on a sea-saw as shown in the diagram below.
281
How does the diagram show that Bob is heavier ?
.................................................................................................................
25. Why does the heart of a person who is running beat faster than normal?
.................................................................................................................
26. State one advantage of crop-rotation.
.................................................................................................................
27. What is the difference in movement between a ball and socket joint and a hinge joint?
.................................................................................................................
28. Why should materials made of iron be covered with paint?
.................................................................................................................
29 Fish, reptiles and birds are vertebrates that lay eggs. State one other characteristic which
is common to them.
.................................................................................................................
The diagram below shows an experiment used to find the volume of a regular solid block. Use
it to answer questions 30, 31 and 32.
30. What is the volume of the block?
31. If the solid block is lowered into the overflow can, what volume of water will be displaced?
32. How would you confirm your answer to question 31 above?
.................................................................................................................
The diagram below shows two boys, Musa and Juma, pulling pieces of wood of equal weights
up a wall. Use it to answer questions 33 and 34.
282
33. Which boy will use less force to pull the wood?
.................................................................................................................
34. Explain your answer to question 33 above.
.................................................................................................................
35. Why is resting important for the health of a person?
.................................................................................................................
36. Muhima is sitting on a chair inside a room. Both his feet are bare. His left foot is resting on
a bare cemented floor. The right foot is resting on a mat. Why would Muhima's left foot feel
colder than the right foot?
.................................................................................................................
37. Why is smoking of tobacco harmful to the body?
.................................................................................................................
38. What is the main purpose of marriage?
.................................................................................................................
A student was finding out the conditions needed for germination of beans to lake place. She
set up the experiment as shown in the diagram below. Use it to answer questions 39 and 40.
39. Why did the seed in A not germinate?
.................................................................................................................
40. What is the purpose of the wet cotton wool in B?
.................................................................................................................
SECTION B
41. Use the diagram below to answer the following questions.
283
(a) In what ways do these animals have similar structures for:
(i) feeding?
.................................................................................................................
(ii) pollination?
.................................................................................................................
(iii) movement?
.................................................................................................................
(b) How does one of the animals differ from the other two in its life history?
.................................................................................................................
42. In the circuit below, when the switch was closed, the bulb lit.
(a) How would you increase the brightness of the light in the bulb?
.................................................................................................................
(b) After a short time, when the switch was still on, the light in the bulb went off. State three
possible causes for the light going off.
(i) .................................................................................................................
(ii) .................................................................................................................
(iii) .................................................................................................................
43. (a) A farmer who practises mixed cropping has the following crops to plant: beans,
cassava, groundnuts and potatoes.
(i) Which two crops would be advisable for the farmer to plant together?
.................................................................................................................
(ii) Give a reason for your answer.
.................................................................................................................
(b) The farmer used a garden for planting maize crop only for three consecutive years
(planting seasons). During the harvest in the third year, he noticed a drop in the maize yield.
(i) Suggest a reason for the drop in the maize yield.
.................................................................................................................
(ii) How can the farmer improve his maize yield in the same garden without using
fertilizers?
.................................................................................................................
284
44. The diagram below is of a human heart. Use it to answer the questions which follow.
(a) What is the function of valves in the heart?
.................................................................................................................
(b) What is the difference between the blood which enters the heart through A and that
through B?
.................................................................................................................
(c) After leaving the heart at C and D where does the blood go?
(i) C: .................................................................................................................
(ii) D: .................................................................................................................
45. In the table below, some of the diseases are given with their symptoms and
prevention/control. Study it and fill in the missing information.
Name of Disease
Sleeping sickness
Common cold (flu)
Measles
Symptoms
loss
of
body
drowsiness, swelling
joints
Prevention/Control
weight,
in the
Isolation, Avoid infected people
rash on body, high fever,
cough, red eyes, sore in mouth
diarrhoea and vomiting.
mild redness and itching of
eyes, pus in eyes after sleep,
scarring.
washing of eyes, avoiding to share
articles with sick persons, e.g.
basin towel. Medical treatment
46. (a) Why should water not be used to put out fire from petrol which is burning?
(i) .................................................................................................................
(ii) .................................................................................................................
(b) Suggest two ways by which fires from petrol burning can be put out.
(i) .................................................................................................................
(ii) .................................................................................................................
285
47. The diagram below is of a flower. Use it to answer the questions which follow.
(a) What does the part labelled A become after fertilization?
.................................................................................................................
(b) What is the difference in the functions of the parts labelled B and C?
(i) ....................................................................................................................
(ii) ....................................................................................................................
(c) Of what value are flowers to man?
48. When a drum is hit, you hear sound.
(a) How does the ear-drum help you to hear the sound?
.................................................................................................................
(b) There is some wax in the outer ear. What is the function of the wax?
.................................................................................................................
(c) What is the effect of too much wax in one's ear?
(i) .........................................................................................................................
(ii) ........................................................................................................................
49. (a) State two factors which should be taken into account when selecting site for building a
house.
(i) .............................................................................................................................
(ii) ............................................................................................................................
(b) How does a well-built house contribute to the health of a family?
(i) .............................................................................................................................
(ii) .............................................................................................................................
286
50. The diagram below shows how seeds change into young plants. Use it to answer the
questions which follow.
(a) What is the main difference between the type of germination shown in A and that in B?
(i) ...........................................................................................................................
(ii) ...........................................................................................................................
(b) Which of these two types of germination is more common in monocotyledonous plants?
.................................................................................................................
(c) In what way does the location of the food store in A differ from that in B?
.................................................................................................................
51. Use the diagram below to answer the questions which follow.
(a) What name is given to the part marked P?
.................................................................................................................
(b) Give a function of the part marked Q.
.................................................................................................................
(c) Name two sense organs shown in the diagram above, by which someone can tell that
there is something burning.
(i) ............................................................................................................................
(ii) ..............................................................................................................................
287
52. List A below gives two types of mosquitoes. The drawings in B give the larvae and adult
stages of mosquitoes. Write the correct number of the drawing in B against the correct
mosquito in list A. Each drawing in B can be used once, more than once or not used at all.
A
Anopheles ....................................
Culex ........................................
B
53. Nakato harvested her maize crop and dried it. She put the maize in a sack and stored it
on the floor, in a corner of her bedroom. Akello also harvested and dried her maize crop.
Then she hung the maize on cobs above a fire place in the kitchen.
(a) Explain why Akello would have better maize grains to plant in the next season.
.................................................................................................................
(b) Give two ways in which Nakato can improve on her storage method.
(i) ..............................................................................................................................
(ii) .............................................................................................................................
54. (a) What shows that air is matter?
(i) ..............................................................................................................................
(ii) ..............................................................................................................................
(b) A candle is lit and placed inside a container and sealed as shown in the diagram below.
(i) Why does the candle continue burning for some time inside the sealed container?
.................................................................................................................
(ii) Give a reason why the candle light goes off after some time.
.................................................................................................................
288
55. (a) State four reasons why physical exercises are good for the body.
(i) ...........................................................................................................................
(ii) ...........................................................................................................................
(iii) ..........................................................................................................................
(iv) ..........................................................................................................................
3.9.5 Uganda Primary Leaving Certificate Examination 1993 - Basic Science and Health
Education
UGANDA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS BOARD
UGANDA PRIMARY LEAVING CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION
BASIC SCIENCE AND HEALTH EDUCATION
Time Allowed: 2 hours 15 minutes
Name...............................................................
Index No
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
Read the following instructions carefully:
1. The paper is made up of Sections A and B.
2. Section A has 40 short-answer questions (40 marks).
3. Section B has 15 questions (60 marks).
4. Attempt ALL questions. All answers to both Sections A and B must be written in the spaces
provided.
5. All answers must be written in blue or black ball-point pen or ink. Only diagrams and graph
work may be done in pencil.
6. Unnecessary alteration of work will lead to loss of marks.
7. Any handwriting that cannot easily be read may lead to loss of marks.
SECTION
A
B
TOTAL
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
EXRS MARKS
T/L MARKS
OFFICE
© 30433 Uganda National Examinations Board
1993
SECTION A
1. Jane put a bottle of soda in a bucket full of ice. Two hours later, she found that the soda
was frozen and the bottle broken. Why did the bottle break?
.................................................................................................................
2. What is the role of brightly coloured petals in pollination?
.................................................................................................................
289
3. State one reason why loam soil is better than sandy soil for crop growing.
.................................................................................................................
Use the drawing below to answer questions 4 to 8.
4. Which of these animals lay eggs?
.................................................................................................................
5. Which of these animals are cold-blooded?
.................................................................................................................
6. Which one of these animals has no back-bones?
.................................................................................................................
7. Which of these animals can fly?
.................................................................................................................
8. Which one of these animals is a mammal?
.................................................................................................................
9. Why would an egg from a layer not hatch into a chick after it has incubated for 21 days?
.................................................................................................................
10. The chameleon is a slow-moving animal. State one way by which it protects itself.
.................................................................................................................
11. Why is breast milk the best food for a baby of less than one year old?
.................................................................................................................
12. Why should left-over food be properly covered?
.................................................................................................................
13. What causes malaria?
.................................................................................................................
290
The diagram below shows a set-up of an experiment and its results. Use it to answer
questions 14 and 15.
14. Why does the balloon swell out as shown in B?
.................................................................................................................
15. Suggest what you think the experiment is intended to show.
.................................................................................................................
16. Why are people encouraged to drink boiled water?
.................................................................................................................
17. Why must fruits and green vegetables be included in our diet?
.................................................................................................................
18. Why does a pregnant mother need foods rich in proteins?
.................................................................................................................
19. Why should finger-nails be kept short?
.................................................................................................................
20. Why is the maize grain considered a fruit?
.................................................................................................................
Use the drawing below to answer questions 21 and 22.
291
21. What stage in the life cycle of a cockroach is shown in the diagram?
.................................................................................................................
22. Give a reason for your answer to question 21.
.................................................................................................................
23. How does a cassava plant obtain its food when its leaves have fallen off?
.................................................................................................................
24. Why does a piece of stone placed into water sink?
.................................................................................................................
The diagram below shows a metalic rod made of two different metals (X and Y) bound
together as shown in A. When heated, the rod bends as shown in B. Use the diagram to
answer questions 25 and 26.
25. Which of the metals expands faster, X or Y?
.................................................................................................................
26. Give a reason for your answer to question 25.
.................................................................................................................
27. What is the function of a dry cell?
.................................................................................................................
28. Why does a wet cloth spread on a line inside a house dry?
.................................................................................................................
29. What is a compound fracture?
.................................................................................................................
30. What First Aid should be given to a person who gets a compound fracture on the arm?
.................................................................................................................
292
31. Why must one avoid being near a person smoking?
.................................................................................................................
32. Of what use is a ventilator of a house?
.................................................................................................................
33. What do you understand by 'drug dependency'?
.................................................................................................................
34. What vector(animal) carries the bubonic plague germ?
.................................................................................................................
35. Why should pit-latrines be smoked from time to time?
.................................................................................................................
36. Tonto shares his hut with goats. State one disadvantage of this practice.
.................................................................................................................
37. Some charcoal is burnt in a container as shown in the diagram below. The container and
its contents were weighed before and after burning. There was no change in the weight. Why
was there no change in weight?
.................................................................................................................
38. State one cause of fainting.
.................................................................................................................
39. A ray of light meets the surface of a mirror as shown in the diagram below. Draw the
reflected ray. (N.B. Use of compass not necessary).
293
40. What is the importance of weeding in growing crops?
.................................................................................................................
SECTION B
41. The diagram below is of an Irish potato. Use it to answer questions (a) to (d).
(a) What part of the Irish potato is shown in the diagram?
.................................................................................................................
(b) Give a reason for your answer in (a).
.................................................................................................................
(c) What main food value does the Irish potato have?
.................................................................................................................
(d) How does the method of propagation of Irish potato differ from that of sweet potato?
.................................................................................................................
42. The table below gives a list of diseases against which children should be immunized and
the age in months in which the first dose of vaccine should be given.
(a) Study the table carefully and fill in the missing information.
DISEASE
(i) Tuberculosis
(ii) Tetanus
(iii) ...................................
(iv) ...................................
AGE IN MONTHS
1½ months
1½ months
9 months
(b) What is the importance of a health card?
.................................................................................................................
43. (a) Give two possible sources of worm infection.
(i) .................................................................................................................
(ii) .................................................................................................................
(b) State two signs of worm infection.
(i) .................................................................................................................
(ii) .................................................................................................................
294
44. Uganda Electricity Board generates most of its electricity at Jinja.
(a) State the source of the electrical energy.
.................................................................................................................
(b) How does the electricity generated at Jinja get to a consumer in Kampala?
.................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................
(c) Give two uses of electricity to a family.
(i) .................................................................................................................
(ii) .................................................................................................................
45. Below is a drawing of a pin-hole camera, with an image of an object formed on the
screen. The object is located along line PQ.
(a) Draw lines to show how the image of the object is formed.
(b) Draw the object.
(c) Compare the object and the image.
(i) .................................................................................................................
(ii) .................................................................................................................
46. John pulls a load of 50 kg over a set of metal rollers. Peter pulls another load of the same
weight along the ground (see diagram below).
295
(a) Explain why one of the two (people) uses less force.
.................................................................................................................
(b) What is the advantage to a driver of pouring sand on a slippery road?
.................................................................................................................
(c) Explain your answer in (b) above.
.................................................................................................................
47. The AIDS virus does not kill its victims.
(a) What leads a person infected with the AIDS virus to death?
.................................................................................................................
(b) Why should one not be afraid of sitting in the same classroom with someone infected
with the AIDS virus?
.................................................................................................................
(c) What is the commonest method through which the AIDS virus is spread?
.................................................................................................................
48. (a) How does each of the following help to maintain soil fertility:
(i) Crop rotation?..................................................................................................
(ii) Mulching?.......................................................................................................
(b) Give two other ways of maintaining soil fertility.
(i) ...............................................................................................................................
(ii) ...............................................................................................................................
49. A child suddenly removed the cover of a sauce-pan full of boiling water. One arm of the
child was thereby burnt by the steam.
(a) What kind of burn did the child get?
.................................................................................................................
(b) What First Aid would you give to the child?
.................................................................................................................
(c) Give two possible ways by which such accidents could be prevented.
(i) ...............................................................................................................................
(ii) ..............................................................................................................................
50. (a) Give two types of cattle.
(i) .............................................................................................................................
(ii) .............................................................................................................................
(b) Why are cattle-keepers encouraged to practise paddock system of grazing?
(i) .............................................................................................................................
(ii) .............................................................................................................................
296
51. Below is a diagram showing an eye defect.
(a) Name the eye defect shown in the diagram above.
.............................................................................................................................
(b) Give reasons for your answer in (a) above.
(i) .............................................................................................................................
(ii) .............................................................................................................................
(c) How can this eye defect be corrected?
52. (a) State two functions of mammalian teeth.
(i) .............................................................................................................................
(ii) .............................................................................................................................
(b) An elderly man has lost all his molar teeth. What feeding problem would he experience?
(i) ..............................................................................................................................
(ii) ..............................................................................................................................
53. (a) Give two reasons why burning and rusting are considered similar reactions.
(i) .............................................................................................................................
(ii) .............................................................................................................................
(b) A farmer notices that whenever he leaves his hoe outside the whole day, on a clear day, it
does not rust; but whenever he leaves the same hoe outside at night, it rusts. Why is this the
case?
.................................................................................................................
54. The diagram below is of a fish. Study it and use it to answer the questions that follow.
(a) Name the part labelled X.
(b) Mark with Y the position of the gills.
(c) How does a fish take in oxygen?
.................................................................................................................
297
55. (a) What is an essential drug?
.................................................................................................................
(b) Give an example of an essential drug.
.................................................................................................................
(c) Why are prescriptions important in the treatment of sicknesses?
(i) .............................................................................................................................
(ii) .............................................................................................................................
3.10. Zambia
3.10.1. Overview
End of Primary School Examination
1.
Title of examination:
Grade VII Composite Examination
2.
Amount of fees charged:
≈ US$ 1
3.
Examination after years in primary
school (6, 7, 8 years):
7 yrs
4.
Children's
school:
6-7 yrs
5.
Number of pupils sitting examination
in 1994:
179,148
6.
Examination subjects offered:
6 subjects (including Zambian Languages)
tested in 5 papers:
• English
• Zambian Languages
• Mathematics
• Environmental Science (incl. Agriculture)
• Social Studies
In addition Special Papers are set in
Mathematics & English to test the IQs of
children (aptitude tests). The paper on
Zambian Languages does not count for the
selection for secondary school.
7.
Language of examination:
English (except for Zambian Language
papers)
8.
Institution setting the examination
questions:
Examinations Council of Zambia
9.
Have there been any reforms in the
examination questions?
NOT YET
The Council is working on an examination
syllabus to improve the examinations.
10.
Stages
of
development
examination questions
• Primary school teachers and college
lecturers submit items to the Council.
entry
age
in
primary
of
298
• Items are scrutinized and moderated by
the selecting panel.
• Selected items are pre-tested in
October/November.
• Pretest papers are marked and item
analysis produced.
• Selecting panel chooses items for the final
paper.
• Final examinations take place.
• Past examination item analysis is done.
11.
Type of examination questions and
distribution of different kind of
questions.
Multiple-choice:
30% knowledge
40% comprehension
20% application
10% problem solving
12.
Is
continuous
incorporated
in
examination?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
13.
Are examination items pretested?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
14.
Which professional groups are
involved in setting the examination
questions?
• Primary school teachers
• Secondary school teachers
• School inspectors
• Tutors of TTCs
• Curriculum specialist
15.
Are the same professionals who set
the examination questions involved
in marking papers?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
If no, who marks the papers (state)?
Computer marks and processes
16.
How are examination results used for
improving teaching in primary
schools?
Not officially, but teachers use the results to
judge the effectiveness of their teaching
methods Completion of the syllabus
17.
To what other uses
examination results put?
• Selection to grade VIII
• Certification
• To generate statistical reports
18.
Main problem with Primary School
Leaving Examinations?
assessment
the
final
are
the
The quality of test items in all the subjects
(most items are of the recall type)
3.10.2. State-of-the-Art of End of Primary Education Examinations in Zambia
by Simon I. Phiri, Examinations Council of Zambia
Introduction
Primary school education lasts seven years from Grade I to Grade VII. The children enroll for
Grade I when they are six to seven years old and normally take the Grade VII examinations
when they are 13 or 14 years old. Universal primary education has almost been attained in
most regions of the country.
Every year in the first or second week of November, Grade VII Composite Examinations are
299
held throughout the country following the laid down timetable and examination regulations.
Purpose of Examination
The main purpose of the examination is twofold:
(1) Selection for Grade VIII - limited places available - selection of the best candidates
takes place.
• It is hoped that in future this examination will not be necessary once universal
education up to Grade IX is achieved.
• Selection for Grade VIII is governed by the availability of places in Grade VIII.
(2) Certification - all candidates who take the examination are awarded certificates. There
is no fail grade at this level.
Those not selected for Government, ZCCM Trust and Mission Secondary Schools and Basic
Schools are absorbed by the following schools:
• Correspondence schools known as Open-Day Secondary Schools,
• Private schools,
• Academic Production Unit Classes Schools,
• Night schools.
Selection for Grade VIII is based on the number of points in six subjects a candidate scores
(standard scores). The successful candidate will be the one who scores above a regional cutoff point. Boys and girls have different cut-off points. The cut-off points vary from region to
region and depend on the number of places available in Grade VIII in a particular region.
Girls normally have a lower cut-off point than boys because:
(1) the drop out rate is higher for girls than boys, especially when the girls reach maturity
age;
(2) there is less emphasis by parents for girls to be in school, they prefer boys to attend;
(3) due to a number of factors girls generally score lower marks than boys in all of the
regions of the country.
Due to (1) and (2) the number of girls in school is lower than that of boys, although the female
population in the country is greater than that of males by a ratio of 1.2 to 1.0. In most schools
the ratio of female to male is 1:1.5. In order to address the imbalance, the government
deliberately lowers the cut-off points for girls so as to increase the ratio of females selected
for Grade VIII.
Type of Examination
Most Grade VII candidates sit for seven subjects namely English, Social Studies,
Mathematics, Environmental Science, Special Paper One (Verbal Reasoning), Special Paper
Two (Non-Verbal Reasoning) and one of the seven official Zambian languages. Candidates in
trust and private schools do not sit for any Zambian language.
All the question papers consist of multiple-choice type of questions. The number of items is
normally 50 or 60 depending on the subject. The candidates answer the questions on the
answer cards provided by the Examinations Council of Zambia. They do this by shading what
they perceive to be the correct response to an item.
The answer cards are marked and processed by computer, mainly because of the large
number of candidates and because it makes it easier to:
300
• standardise the scores,
• produce selection listing for both sexes in order of merit for selection purposes,
• produce various statistics,
• print certificates.
Advantages and Disadvantages of Multiple-Choice Type of Examination
Advantages
• Quick processing of examination results.
• Non-human subjectivity in the marking of the cards - marking is objective.
Disadvantages
The examination does not offer the candidate the opportunity to show any originality and
encourages rote learning. Quite a number of candidates cannot even spell or write their own
names. The examination does not ask or test for such skills so the teachers and the
candidates do not bother about them. In future a short written component will be set to
reverse this anomaly.
Test Development for Examinations
Every year the Research and Test Development Unit of the Examinations Council of Zambia
pretests all the items, except Zambian languages items, that will be offered in the
examinations. Two papers are prepared in each subject. The pre-tests sample is taken from
the candidates for that year's examination. The pre-tests are conducted in October/November
when it is assumed that the candidates have completed the syllabus and are ready for
examinations.
The pre-test items are analysed by the computer to find out their suitability for use in the final
paper. The item analysis shows the facility value (percentage of candidates selecting an
option) and the discrimination index (how the question discriminates the able from the less
able candidates). For an item to be included in the final paper it should have a facility value of
40-70% and a discrimination index (or point biserial) of above 0.20. The items that are
rejected may be retested after they have been reviewed. The selected good items are put in
the item bank.
Both the pre-tests and the final papers are set according to the test specification of each
subject.
Item Writing for Examinations
(1) Subject secretaries (employees of the Examinations Council of Zambia) send
invitations for submission of items to primary school teachers and primary school teacher
training lecturers countrywide. Each item writer is expected to submit at least 25 items.
The teachers who submit items are paid regardless of the quality of the items. Each
subject must have at least 20 item writers. The teachers are free to choose the subject
area they feel they are competent in. Invitations for items are sent for all the six subjects
examined at Grade VII level except the seven Zambian languages.
(2) Upon receipt of the items the subject secretaries scrutinize them with a view to
reviewing and improving some of the items that may not be so perfect in construction. The
selected items are then presented to a setting panel committee. The committee consists of
a chairman and three to four other members including the subject secretary. The task of
this committee is to come up with two full, separate papers in their subject for use in the
current year's pre-test in October/November. Each paper must satisfy the test
specifications for the subject.
(3) The pre-test answer cards are marked and analysed by computer, and item analysis
301
printouts are produced.
(4) The subject secretary and the other setting panel members meet to select items for the
final paper. The items are chosen according to whether they satisfy the two parameter
ranges. The preferred range for facility level is 40-70% and for discrimination index the
range must be above 0.20. The final paper is also set as per test specifications. This may
vary from year to year but not much.
(5) After the final examination post-exam item analysis is done. The common feature for
1991 examinations e.g. is that items analysed as difficult in the pre-tests' analysis turned
out to be easy - i.e. facility value was higher.
(6) The previous test specification for Science was in favour of recall-type of items. They
contributed over 50% of the items in theory but in practice the paper actually in some
years was over 80% recall. Beginning in 1991 an effort was made to reduce recall-type
items from 50% to 30% and a new test specification was drawn up in consultation with the
Curriculum Development Centre. This new test specification was implemented in the 1992
Environmental Science paper.
The Examinations Council of Zambia is working on an examination syllabus which will be
different from the syllabus designed by the Curriculum Development Centre. This is
because some objectives which were being tested do not contribute to the child's
development after school.
(7) For the items to improve, workshops for item writers are essential.
Conclusion
The Grade VII Composite Examination is an examination which marks the end of Primary
School Education. The results are awaited with much anxiety by both the candidates and their
parents. This is so because of the low progression rate to Grade VIII. For most people this
examination, if one is selected, is like one has won a state lottery jackpot. The Grade VII entry
and selection for Grade VIII are shown below. Between 1980 and 1990 the progression rate
was on average 21.76%. There was an increase in 1984 from 16.58% to 21.6% due to
opening of extra Grade VIII classes in basic schools (these offer Grade I to IX). The same is
true for 1989 and 1990 when a lot of basic schools were opened in the eastern and southern
regions of the country. In 1993 a total of 993,705 pupils sat the exam. 54,345 pupils were
selected into Grade VIII (= 28.05%).
3.10.3 Environmental Science Paper 1994
EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA
PAPER 4
S/TENVSC4/G7/94
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
1. Read these instructions carefully.
302
TIME: 60 MINUTES
2. DO NOT turn this page before you are told. Your teacher will tell you when to turn this page
to begin answering the questions.
3. There are 50 questions in this SCIENCE paper. You will be given EXACTLY 60 MINUTES
to do the questions.
4. For each question four answers are given, but only one of the four is right. Work out which
is the BEST answer. Then, on your ANSWER SHEET shade the answer space of the letter of
your choice in pencil.
EXAMPLE: Malaria, Leprosy and Measles are names of ...
A. plants.
B. insects.
C. minerals.
D. diseases.
The best answer is D, you would show this answer like this:-
5. You must SHADE your answer spaces COMPLETELY and DARKLY WITH A PENCIL. If
you have to change your answer, you must rub out the shading VERY NEATLY before
shading the new one. USE A CLEAN RUBBER.
6. When you have finished one page, go straight on without waiting to be told. If you have
time left at the end of the question paper, use it to check your work carefully.
7. Look at your ANSWER SHEET. At the top it should have your name, sex, date of birth,
examination number, primary school name and name of Secondary School of your choice. It
should also say PAPER 4 ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE on the bottom left side.
8. You will NOT be able to ask questions once the examination has began.
DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD
USE ONLY A PENCIL FOR YOUR ANSWERS
© E.C.Z. 1994
1. Fish can breathe under water through their ...
A. scales.
B. gills.
C. pores.
D. noses.
2. Water is put in a basin. It is heated until no more is left. The water has ...
A. filtered.
B. dissolved.
C. evaporated.
D. melted.
3. During the hot and wet season, which diseases are likely to break out due to unhygienic
conditions especially in the villages and townships?
303
A. AIDS, T.B., cholera.
B. Cholera, typhoid, AIDS.
C. Cholera, T.B., AIDS.
D. Dysentry, cholera, typhoid.
4. What is the function of white blood cells?
A. They carry oxygen around the body.
B. They carry food around the body.
C. They help to get rid of carbon dioxide.
D. They kill micro-organisms harmful to the body.
5. Which of these is not an agent of weathering?
A. Wind.
B. Rain.
C. Moon.
D. Sun.
6. Look at the diagrams on reflection. Which shows the proper reflection of a ray of light on a
plane mirror?
7. Many plants which have weak stems climb on other stronger plants. They do this to get
more ...
A. space.
B. fresh air.
C. sunlight.
D. warmth.
8. It is important to leave spaces between the sticks when a fire is laid ready for lighting. This
is because ...
A. fewer sticks are then needed and this saves wood.
B. the smoke is made to rise easily.
C. the temperature of the flame can be controlled.
D. the air between the sticks is needed for burning.
9. Two beakers are filled with the same amount of water and put into two identical heaters.
One beaker X is covered with lid while beaker Y is left exposed. Which will boil first and why?
A. Y because less heat is lost.
B. X because heat loss is reduced.
C. All because they receive equal heat.
D. None because the heat received is little.
304
10. Study the table carefully.
PLANT
ENERGY GIVING FOOD
BODY BUILDING FOOD
little
little
little
little
plenty
plenty
little
plenty
little
little
BEAN
MANGO
GROUNDNUT
PAWPAW
IRISH POTATO
PROTECTIVE
FOOD
little
plenty
little
plenty
little
Using the Table we can say ...
A. irish potatoes and groundnuts give us plenty of protective food.
B. we get plenty of body-building food from beans and groundnuts.
C. we get plenty of protective food from beans and mangoes.
D. pawpaws and mangoes give us plenty of body-building food.
11. Which one of the following statements contains information about friction?
A. Attraction of a body to the earth.
B. Property of matter which causes it to be attracted to any piece of matter.
C. Decreases as the distance from the earth increases.
D. Offering resistance to movement between surfaces in contact.
12. When Chiko examined a lump of soil she found that it was dark in colour, was not sticky
but contained some plant matter What type of soil was it?
A. Sandy soil.
B. Clay soil.
C. Swampy soil.
D. Loam soil.
13.
Look at the diagram. Besa dropped a lump of soil into a beaker of water. What did he
probably find at X?
A. Humus.
B. Stones.
C. Sand.
D. Clay.
14. Dog belongs to the same group of animals as ...
A. lizard, fish and whale.
B. cow, camel and crocodile.
C. man, cat and bat.
D. chicken, pig and rat.
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15. Look at the diagram of the eye. Which part controls the amount of light getting into the
eye?
16. A freezer in a shop does not need a lid. The ice cream or butter inside does not melt
because ...
A. cold air does not rise,
B. the fridge absorbs radiation.
C. the fridge is a good conductor.
D. the shop is freezing.
17. People can protect themselves from mosquitoes bites by ...
A. going to nearest clinic every week.
B. staying awake the whole night.
C. spraying floors with oil.
D. spraying oil on stagnant water.
18. Muleya was asked to separate sugar from a mixture of sugar and sand. Which of the
following methods would be the best way of doing this?
A. Filtering, evaporating, dissolving.
B. Dissolving, filtering, evaporating.
C. Evaporating, filtering, dissolving.
D. Filtering, dissolving, evaporating.
19. An electro magnet can be considered to be a temporary magnet made from a coil of wire
connected to a cell and an iron piece in the centre. Which one of the electro magnets would
have the weakest magnetic field?
306
20. Zwange made an electric tester. He tested items by connecting them to X and Y. The
results are shown in the table.
Material
coin
comb
chalk
knife
hair
nail
light
on
off
off
on
off
on
The results show that electricity can pass through ...
A. the coin and nail only.
B. the comb, chalk and knife.
C. the knife, nail and coin.
D. the nail and knife only.
21. A potted plant in the house changed from green to yellowish. What would you do to make
the plant green again?
A. Expose it to more light.
B. Put it in the dark.
C. Give it more water.
D. Give it more fertilizer.
22. Plants make fruits to ...
A. attract bees.
B. feed the leaves.
C. enable people to eat them.
D. help seed dispersal.
23. Which is a pivot in the drawing?
307
24. A female frog lays many hundreds of eggs at a time which hatch into tadpoles. What
happens to all these tadpoles?
A. They all grow into frogs.
B. Many are eaten and only a few grow into frogs.
C. A few are eaten and many grow into frogs.
D. All are eaten.
25. What is the main value of compost?
A. It prevents soil erosion.
B. It puts valuable plant foods back into the soil.
C. It prevents the spread of pests and diseases.
D. It makes it possible for water to enter the soil.
26. Which of these will expand most when heated?
A. Ice.
B. Water.
C. Air.
D. Rubber.
27. One of the factors that might increase the rate of evaporation of water is ...........
A. surface area.
B. volume.
C. weight.
D. depth.
28. The diagram below shows a simple barometer prepared by the members of a Science
Club. The movement of the pointer in upward and downward directions indicates the weather
conditions.
It was observed that the pointer suddenly moved DOWN from X to Y. This indicates that the
...
A. air pressure has decreased.
B. air pressure has increased.
C. temperature of the air has increased.
D. amount of carbon dioxide in the air has increased.
308
29. In the daytime leaves make use of carbon dioxide to ...
A. make food for the plant.
B. make the atmosphere cool.
C. keep the plant cool.
D. remove wastes from the plant.
30. A mother wanted to make a balanced meal with MEAT, RICE and CABBAGE. She could
not get any cabbage. Which food would she use in the place of cabbage?
A. Fish.
B. Pumpkin leaves.
C. Carrots.
D. Maize.
31. Look at the drawing of an electric plug below.
What is the name of the part labelled X?
A. Fuse.
B. Earth.
C. Switch.
D. Insulator.
32. The rope is pulled by Tobolo. The bag of maize will move towards
33. Before hatching, a bird embryo gets food from ...
A. seeds.
B. the yolk.
C. shell.
D. chicken's blood.
309
34. Lungs are like ...
A. two large empty ballons.
B. two large ballons filled with blood.
C. spaces in the body filled with bones.
D. sponges with lots of very small air pockets.
35. What energy change takes place in the pump when a boy is pumping up a bicycle tyre?
A. Heat-kinetic.
B. Heat-potential.
C. Kinetic-potential.
D. Potential-chemical.
36. A blacksmith makes an iron tyre for a wooden wheel. The iron tyre is just too small to fit
over the wheel. To make it fit over the wheel, the blacksmith ...
A. heats the tyre.
B. cools the tyre.
C. heats the wheel.
D. cools the wheel.
37. This is a picture of a village along a river.
The three places marked are to be used for fetching drinking water, bathing and for animals to
drink. Which is the best arrangement?
A. Bathing at 1, fetching drinking water at 2, animals at 3.
B. Fetching drinking water at 1, animals at 2, bathing at 3.
C. Animals at 1, bathing at 2, fetching drinking water at 3.
D. Fetching drinking water at 1, bathing at 2, animals at 3.
38. A food chain always starts with ...
A. Man.
B. Bread.
C. Plant.
D. Insect.
39. When Manda first walked into a dark room, he could not see anything until after
sometime. This was because ...
A. his pupils were too wide.
B. he was blind.
C. his pupils were too narrow.
D. his retina was damaged.
310
40. Look at this drawing of water in a measuring jar. How much water is in the jar?
A. 3 ml.
B. 8 ml.
C. 9 ml.
D. 13 ml.
41. Study the diagram carefully.
The water drops formed are ...
A. very salty.
B. salty.
C. not salty.
D. slightly salty.
42. The teacher gave four pupils a task to do. They had to find a flower with many male parts,
2 female parts and 6 petals. Each pupil came back with a different sort of flower. Which pupil
found the right flower?
311
43. Study the diagram carefully. A block of wood is allowed to slide down the ramp. The table
shows the angle through which the ramp has to be tilted before the block will slide. Which
surface gives the least friction when fixed on the bottom of the wood?
A
B
C
D
surface
Plastic
Cork
sandpaper
polystyrene
angle
15°
22°
32°
28°
44. Look at the drawings. The length of the spring increases by 1 cm with 2 kg. How much
does the length increase with 6 kg?
A. 2 cm.
B. 3 cm.
C. 6 cm.
D. 12 cm.
45. Nigeria has a lot of oil wells. This oil could have been formed from ...
A. coal.
B. dead plants.
C. petrol.
D. rocks.
46. The earth was formed from ...
A. dead animals which were crushed.
B. molter material which cooled down.
C. large mountains which joined together.
D. rocks which were joined together by water.
312
47. A picture of fire extinguisher is shown. Which set of gases can be in the fire extinguisher?
A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide.
B. Oxygen and nitrogen.
C. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
D. Nitrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide.
48. Which means of communication has the shortest range?
A. Drumming.
B. Smoke signals.
C. Telephone.
D. Telex.
49. Before a smoke signal can be sent, what weather conditions must prevail?
A. Calm, sunny.
B. Windy, sunny.
C. Cloudy, windy.
D. Cloudy, dark.
50. When a gun is fired, sound and light are produced in addition to the bullet, being shot.
From what energy are the sound and light produced?
A. Heat.
B. Kinetic.
C. Chemical.
D. Electrical.
STOP! GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK
313
3.10.4 Environmental Science Paper 1993
EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER 4
TIME: 60 MINUTES
S/SENVSC4/G7/93
1. Read these instructions carefully.
2. DO NOT turn this page before you are told. Your teacher will tell you when to turn this page
to begin the questions.
3. There are 50 questions in this SCIENCE paper. You will be given EXACTLY 60 MINUTES
to do the questions.
4. For each question four answers are given, but only one of the four is right. Work out which
is the BEST answer. Then, on your ANSWER SHEET shade the answer space of the letter of
your choice in pencil.
EXAMPLE: Malaria, leprosy and Measles are names of .......
A. plants.
B. insects.
C. minerals.
D. diseases.
The best answer is D, you would show this answer like this:-
5. You must SHADE your answer spaces COMPLETELY and DARKLY WITH A PENCIL. If
you have to change your answer, you must rub out the shading VERY NEATLY before
shading the new one. USE A CLEAN RUBBER.
6. When you have finished one page, go straight on without waiting to be told. If you have
time left at the end of the question paper, use it to check your work carefully
7. Look at your ANSWER SHEET. At the top it should have your name, sex, date of birth,
examination number, primary school name and name of secondary school of your choice. It
314
should also say PAPER 4 ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE on the bottom left side.
8. You will NOT be able to ask questions once the examination has began.
DO NOT TURN THIS PACE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD
USE ONLY A PENCIL FOR YOUR ANSWERS
© E.C.Z. 1993
1. The germ that causes AIDS can be mostly spread by ......
A. sexual intercourse.
B. sharing the toilet.
C. shaking hands.
D. mosquito bites.
2. A house fly can spread ..........
A. dysentry, T.B and polio.
B. dysentry, cholera and typhoid.
C. dysentry, cholera and TB.
D. cholera, polio and AIDS.
3. Look at the diagram of the human food canal below.
There are parts labelled A, B, C, and D.
Which part is the liver?
4. At under five clinics infants and young children are immunised against the following
diseases:A. AIDS, Cholera, Diarrhoea and Polio.
B. Polio, TB, Tetanus and Whooping Cough.
C. AIDS, TB, Cholera and Whooping Cough.
D. Polio, TB, AIDS and Cholera.
315
5. You have to push the door to open it.
At which point would you use the smallest force?
6. Blowing, over the open end of a cap of a fountain pen creates sound because ...........
A. air in the cap vibrates.
B. air outside the cap vibrates.
C. lips of the person blowing vibrate.
D. air in the cap stops vibrating.
7. Here are two graphs from a school weather record, in the same week
The first one shows the speed of wind. The second shows the temperature. Which statement
is right?
A. The hottest day had the slowest wind.
B. The hottest day had the fastest wind.
C. The coldest day had the slowest wind.
D. The coldest day had the fastest wind.
8. Water is poured into a can that has four holes on its side. From which hole will water come
out with greatest force?
316
9. Seeds dispersed by wind should be ........
A. tiny and hard.
B. light and featherly.
C. heavy and featherly.
D. flat and hard.
10. Some valleys are not suitable for rearing cattle because.......
A. they are hot.
B. there is too much water.
C. they are tsetse fly infested.
D. there are a lot of wild animals.
11. The diagram shows a cooking pot containing very hot water. There are four things dipping
into it.
After ten minutes, which of the following will feel the hottest?
A. Glass rod.
B. Stick.
C. Wooden spoon.
D. Metal spoon.
12. Weather forecasting is important because .............
A. farmers can plan their work.
B. wind direction can be changed.
C. rainfall can be changed.
D. drought will not occur in the country.
13. Below is a diagram of a telephone system.
What is X?
A. Mouth Piece.
B. Ear Piece.
C. Radio.
D. Switch Board.
317
14. Study the four diagrams of electric circuits below. Which one will light?
15. Why should we switch off lights when they are not needed?
A. To make room cooler,
B. To help save energy.
C. To use more charcoal.
D. To recharge the bulbs.
16. Samples of water were collected from Kafue, Luangwa, Kabompo and Chambeshi rivers.
Which sample will show the greatest amount of pollution and why?
A. Luangwa because it is a fast flowing river.
B. Kabompo because it flows through a rain forest.
C. Kafue because it flows through Industrialised areas.
D. Chambeshi because it flows into Bangweulu Swamps.
17. As the earth goes around the sun it rotates from ..............
A. east to west.
B. north to south.
C. west to east.
D. south to north.
18. Animal manure is better than artificial fertilizer because ....
A. it is cheap and is easy to apply.
B. it fertilizes the soil as well as improves the soil structure.
C. it is black and contains plant food in large quantities.
D. it provides more nitrogen than artificial fertilizers.
19. The property of copper that makes it useful to the world is its ...
A. bright colour.
B. softness.
C. good conductivity.
D. good insulation.
318
20. Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows.
We can stop soil erosion at X by......
A. ploughing across the slope.
B. ploughing along the slope.
C. cutting down trees.
D. burning the area around.
21. A boy sets up an experiment shown in the diagram below. Every twelve hours the boy
measures the height of the water in the glass pot.
What is the most likely thing the boy is trying to find out?
A. Whether oil will kill the plant.
B. Whether the plant needs carbon dioxide and oxygen,
C. Whether the plant needs carbon dioxide alone.
D. Whether the plant uses up water.
22.
The drawings show the feet of three different birds. Below are four pairs of statements. Pick
out the answer where BOTH statements are correct.
A. Foot 1 is of a bird of prey and foot 3 is of a swimming bird.
B. Foot 2 is of a perching bird and foot 3 is of Bird of prey.
C. Foot 3 is of a swimming bird and foot 2 is of a bird of prey.
D. Foot 1 is of a bird of prey and foot 2 is of a swimming bird.
319
23. Look at these drawings. They are the jaws of two different animals. Which of the following
is true?
A. Both animals feed on plants only.
B. Animal 1 feeds on plants and animal 2 feeds on meat.
C. Animal 1 feeds on meat and animal 2 feeds on plants.
D. Both animals feed on meat only.
24. A vacuum flask keeps a hot drink warm for a long time because it..
A. radiates heat out.
B. reduces the heat escaping.
C. reduces the light getting out.
D. keeps warming the drink.
25. Water can exist as ........
A. liquid, air and gas.
B. solid, liquid and gas.
C. nitrogen, oxygen and water vapour.
D. oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
26.
The tortoise is a cold-blooded animal that eats plants and lays eggs. Which number shows its
correct position on the diagrams?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
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27. Look at the diagram. The wire is broken at X. What happens?
A. Both bulbs will stay a light,
B. Only bulb 1 will go out.
C. Only bulb 2 will go out.
D. Both bulbs will go out.
28. What energy changes take place when the battery lights up the bulb?
A. Electrical → Might → chemical.
B. Light → electrical → potential.
C. Chemical → electrical → heat and light.
D. Heat → kinetic → heat and light,
29. The diagrams show different size holes of a camera. Which hole will give the best image if
the inside of the pinhole camera is painted black?
30. The best way to make a piece of steel into a magnet is by:
A. Stroking a magnet with the piece of steel.
B. Stroking the piece of steel with a magnet in the same direction.
C. Stroking the piece of steel with a magnet in different directions
D. Hitting the piece of steel with a magnet.
31. A boy pulls a box across a table. The friction is most if the table ...............
A. is rough.
B. is smooth.
C. has beads on it.
D. has rollers on it.
32. Look at the diagram. If the hole in CARD C is covered, there will be no light between:
A. A and B.
B. B and C.
C. C and D.
D. A and D.
321
33. In the picture below a boy is shown breathing out in front of a mirror.
Which change is taking place on the mirror?
A. melting.
B. freezing.
C. evaporation.
D. condensation.
34. Study the diagram below:
Two balloons 1 and 2 balance horizontally. Balloon 1 is slowly losing air until all the air is lost.
Which diagram correctly shows what happened?
35. Gravity can act only on ..........
A. large masses on the earth.
B. all things on the ground.
C. things around and on the earth.
D. things at the south and north poles.
36. When a person breathes out during respiration the air contains
A. more oxygen, less carbon dioxide and more nitrogen than ordinary air.
B. more nitrogen, less oxygen and more carbon dioxide than ordinary air.
C. more carbon dioxide, less oxygen and more water vapour than ordinary air.
D. less nitrogen and oxygen than ordinary air.
322
37.
Given above is a set of four common animals. Study them carefully.
The DOG is different from the other animals shown because it is the only animal in the set
that ......
A. eats meat.
B. suckles its young.
G. eats meat and suckles its young.
D. is a domestic animal.
38. An example of an animal which is cold-blooded and has a backbone is a ..........
A. snail.
B. snake.
C. giraffe.
D. hippo.
39. Look at the drawing of a plant below.
Pollination in this plant is most likely to be carried out by ...........
A. bees.
B. wind.
C. moths.
D. water.
40. Heat is lost more rapidly by a surface which is ............
A. red.
B. black.
C. white.
D. silver.
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41. The correct list of gases in ordinary air starting with the most abundant is ..........
A. oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide.
B. nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide.
C. oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen.
D. carbon dioxide oxygen nitrogen.
42. The string of a guitar can be made to give higher pitch and louder sound by ..........
A. lengthening the string and plucking it harder.
B. Shortening the string and plucking it harder.
C. lengthening the string and plucking it gently.
D. shortening the string and plucking it gently.
43.
In the diagram above, microbes play the part of ..........
A. producers.
B. consumers.
C. decomposers.
D. parasites.
44. Which of these crops would do better in a drought stricken area?
A. Maize.
B. Millet.
C. Rice.
D. Potatoes.
45. 30 ml of sand is poured into 30 ml of peas. After mixing, the volume is less than 60 ml.
This is because the grains of sand ........
A. melt into the peas,
B. fit between the peas,
C. are all the same size,
D. are harder than the peas.
46. The hinges on a door are oiled. When the door is moved, the friction in the hinges is
............
A. the same,
B. bigger than before,
C. smaller than before,
D. Slightly more than before.
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47. Fertilization takes place in plants when ............
A. seeds join with fruits,
B. pollen grains join with ovules,
C. pollen grains are carried to the stigma,
D. pollen grains are released from a flower.
48. Look at the drawings below.
Which one is not scattered by wind?
49. Seeds are dispersed so that when young seedlings grow they
A. can be fertilized.
B. will be pollinated.
C. are not overcrowded.
D. Cannot be eaten by ants.
50. Salt is dissolved in water while stirring continously until more dissolves. More salt could be
dissolved by ...
A. cooling.
B. heating.
C. shaking.
D. vapourizing.
3.11. Zanzibar
3.11.1. Overview
End of Primary School Examination
1.
Title of examination:
Form 1 Entrance Examination
2.
Amount of fees charged:
Nil
3.
Examination after years in primary
school (6, 7, 8 years):
7 yrs
4.
Children's entry age in primary
school:
7 yrs
5.
Number
of
pupils
examination in 1994:
7,189
6.
Examination subjects offered:
sitting
9 subjects
• Science
• Mathematics
• Geography
• History
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7.
Language of examination:
• Kiswahili
• English
• Political Education
• Arabic
• Religious Studies
Kiswahili
8.
Institution setting the examination
questions:
Ministry of Education, Dept. of Higher, Science
and Technical Education
9.
Have there been any reforms in the
examination questions?
Yes
When? (year)
1993
What kind?
Children are in future tested after class 7 of
primary school to select some for special
secondary schools (Technical Schools, Islamic
Schools, Science Schools, French Language
School)
development
of
questions (please
• Primary school teachers write items in all
subjects individually
• Items reviewed by one moderator (Primary
school teachers and school inspectors and
exam officers) per subject at national level
• Moderators set final exam paper
10.
Stages
of
examination
describe):
11.
Type of examination questions
and distribution of different kind
Straight-forward recall questions only
12.
Is
continuous
incorporated
in
examination?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
13.
Are examination items pretested?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
14.
Which professional groups are
involved in setting the examination
questions?
• Primary school teachers
• School inspectors
• Curriculum designers
• Exam officers of the Ministry of Education
15.
Are the same professionals who
set the examination questions
involved in marking papers?
Yes [x]
No [ ]
16.
How are examination results used
for improving teaching in primary
schools?
./.
17.
To what other uses are
examination results put?
the
Selection for Secondary School (Form 1) and
assessing the general performance of primary
schools
18.
Main problem with Primary School
Leaving Examinations?
• Lack of skills and experience in designing test
items
• No facilities for proper data analysis and item
banking
• Lack of skills and experience in item analysis
assessment
the
final
326
3.11.2. An Overview of the 1993 Primary School Leaving Examination
by Ministry of Education
Background
Zanzibar consists of two islands - Unguja and Pemba. It provides 10 years of compulsory
basic education. At the end of seven years of primary school there is a common examination,
called Form 1 Entrance Examination.
Setting of the Examination
All primary schools are individually asked by their respective District Education Officers
(DEOs) to set papers according to the level of the National Form 1 Entrance Examination.
These papers are brought to the examination office by the DEOs. Each year, 3 to 4 papers
from different Districts are given to one experienced primary school teacher for moderation.
The paper that has been approved by the moderator is the one that becomes the National
Paper (one man moderation).
Administration of the Examination
The examination is normally administered in the month of November each year. A total of 9
subjects are examined at this level and it takes 5 days to administer them.
Supervision of the Exam
The examination is supervised at national level. Most of the supervisors are head teachers or
assistant head teachers. Schools in Unguja are supervised by people from Pemba and vice
versa.
Invigilation
Invigilation is done at regional level by teachers of different schools. Teachers from one
region are sent to another region for invigilation. Teachers from the hosting schools are not
permitted to be present in school, unless assigned a special duty.
Despatching of Answer Scripts
Answer scripts are collected at the examination offices everyday. The papers are stored at
the office waiting for marking. Since Zanzibar is a small country it is possible to collect all the
papers on the same day.
Attendance
In 1993, out of 9,710 registered candidates from 128 primary schools 9,200 (94.75%) sat for
the examination. The rest were reported to either have dropped out of the school between the
time of registration and the time of examination or to be sick during the examination period.
These pupils are normally allowed to repeat the last year of primary school and re-sit for the
National Examination.
Objectives of Zanzibar Primary School Leaving Examination
1. To select few students who will be admitted to Secondary Schools with special biases.
From the 1993 examination, 290 (3.2%) candidates were selected to enter 8 secondary
institutions with the following specializations:
• 2 Technical Secondary Schools which each take 40 students every year.
327
• 1 Muslim Academy which takes 40 students every year.
This institution, in addition to the normal secondary school subjects, also teaches Arabic
and Islamic Studies.
• 1 French Secondary School which takes 40 students every year.
• 1 Secondary School with the emphasis on Science accommodating 40 students every
year.
• 10 students are sent to Tabora Military School in Mainland Tanzania.
Students who are admitted in these Secondary Schools study O-level subjects and sit for the
National (Tanzania) O-level Exam. Vacancies in the secondary schools are distributed
quarterly to all districts, whereby female students will be considered preferentially to increase
their enrollment.
2. To identify repeaters, e.g. candidates who performed poorly.
3. To assess the general performance of the schools, for both teachers and students.
4. To assess the performance of individual students at the end of their primary education.
Results
Out of 9,200 candidates who sat for the Examination, 8,463 (91.9%) were taken to secondary
schools. This is because, in Zanzibar we have ten years of compulsory education (8 primary +
2 secondary). However, this system will be changed to 7 plus 3 years, where the 8th year is
used as a preparatory year to secondary school. Emphasis at this stage is put on English and
Mathematics. Official statistics of the examinations only show the averages of different
subjects for different schools. No further statistical analysis is employed, due to lack of skills
and resources.
Comments on the Performance
Generally the performance on the 1993 primary education examination was not satisfactory.
Pass mark had to be lowered to an average of 20% in order to admit about 90% of the
students in Form 1. All schools performed very poorly in all subjects, except in History.
Examination Problems
During the December 1993 »Science Camp« an analysis of the 1993 Science and
Mathematics Examination question papers was carried out (»Science Camp« is a research
activity project which has been conducted annually during the month of December since
1988).
This research project tries to define efficient methods for the teaching of Science. From the
analysis we found out that our examinations consist mainly of straight forward recall questions
and ask pupils to reproduce from memory. It was realized that encouraging enquiry,
reasoning and problem solving in teaching Science has also to be reflected in the
examinations.
It is hoped that in the next years, questions will be included that require problem solving and
enquiry based skills.
328
3.11.3 Form 1 Entrance Examinations 1994 - Science Paper (English Translation)
Candidate's Number .......
ZANZIBAR REVOLUTIONARY GOVERNMENT
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
FORM 1, ENTRANCE EXAMINATIONS, 1994
SCIENCE
TIME: 1.30 HOURS.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS PAPER
THIS PAPER CONTAINS 8 WRITTEN PAGES
Candidate's Number ..........
CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT ANSWER AND WRITE THE LETTER IN THE BRACKET
PROVIDED.
Example:
The gas that animals use most is
A. Carbondioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
D. Nitrogen (B)
1. Choose one set of living organisms without a vertebral column among the following set
given:
A. Butterfly, tortoise, bat, mouse.
B. Snake, millipede, lizard, chameleon
C. Millipede, snail, cockroach, chameleon
D. Grasshopper, millipede, butterfly, snail.( )
2. What are the necessary needs for the life of animals.
A. Food, water and medicine
B. Food, air and medicine
C. Food, water and air
D. Protein, starch and oil ( )
3. Most insects have 4 stages in their life cycle. The correct sequence is.
A. Egg, larva, pupa, adult insect.
B. Larva, egg, pupa, adult insect.
C. Egg, pupa, Larva, adult insect.
D. Larva, pupa, egg, adult insect. ( )
329
4. Which is the most important difference between animals and plants ?.
A. Animals moves while plants don't.
B. Animals feed on food while plants don't.
C. Plants manufacture their own food while animals don't.
D. Plants have a short life cycle than animals. ( )
5. One among the following is not an excretory organ. Which organ is this ?.
A. Tongue
B. Skin
C. Lungs.
D. Kidney ( )
6. Roots are the most important part of the plant because:
A. They hold the branches of the tree.
B. They add the thickness of the stem
C. They make food.
D. They absorb mineral salts from the soil. ( )
7. After being measured by the doctor, Khatib, has been found to have a temperature of about
37°C. In Fahrenheit, this is equivalent to
A. 37°F
B. 69°F
C. 66.6°F
D. 98.6°F ( )
8. Sugar which has dropped in a sauce pan containing water can be separated by using
which method ?
A. Boiling and evaporation.
B. Filtering the mixture.
C. Decantation.
D. Solidifying the mixture. ( )
9. Which among the following set of items are appropriate to use in measuring and recording
the height of a growing plant in a shamba?
A. Ruler, pencil, book.
B. Ruler, pencil, ink.
C. Notebook, pencil, measuring, scale.
D. Notebook, ruler, and a piece of thread ( )
10. Std 8 pupils of Uroa School, did an experiment to find the factors that cause rusting. They
did their experiment as shown in diagram I, II, III, IV, below. They left the experiment for one
week.
330
Rusting will occur in
A. Diagram I only.
B. Diagram II and III.
C. Diagram II and IV.
D. Diagram IV only. ( )
11. The density (gm/cm3) of an object having a mass 2.06 gm and a volume 2.0 cm3 is
A. 0.97
B. 1.03
C. 4.06
D. 4.12 ( )
12. Which among the following object is a 2nd class lever?.
A. Human arm
B. Crowbar
C. Scissors
D. Wheel barrow ( )
13. One pupil in her experiment has sown some bean seeds in 3 different type of soils - loamy
soil, clay and sandy soil. All had equal weight. She waters the plant with equal amount of
water at the same time in the morning. In this expt, the student could be able to find.
A. That water is necessary for seed germination.
B. That the amount of water affect growth.
C. The type of soil which is good for planting beans.
D. The best time for watering bean seedlings. ( )
14. Which among the following statements is false?
A. Electric current is a flow of electron.
B. When the guitar strings are tightened, vibrations increase.
C. During eclipse of the sun, the earth is found between the sun and the moon.
D. Magnetism can pass through the paper. ( )
15. Choose among the following example below, that show the correct sequence of a food
chain in living organisms.
A. Plant ........ hen ...... grasshopper ...... cat.
B. Plant ........ grasshopper ......... hen ..... cat.
C. Cat ........ grasshopper ......... plant ...... hen.
D. Hen ....... grasshopper ......... plant ....... cat. ( )
16. NPK fertilisers provide plant with the following nutrients except one. Which is this?
A. Calcium
B. Phosphorus
C. Potassium
D. Nitrogen. ( )
17. The load in a rod with one wheel has a weight of 90 Newton, and effort to be used will be
30 Newton. Therefore the mechanical advantage (MA) is
A. 90
B. 30
C. 60
D. 3 ( ).
331
18.
The diagram above shows how lime can be used to produce electricity. Which among the
following is the correct sequence that show how energy conversion occur until the bulb gives
out light?.
A. Electric energy ...... chemical energy ...... heat energy ...... light energy.
B. Chemical energy ........ electric energy ....... heat energy .......... light energy.
C. Chemical energy ........ heat energy ......... electric energy ....... light energy.
D. Light energy ........... heat energy ......... Chemical energy ............ light energy. ( )
19. Haji can see very well distant objects but has a problem to see near objects, therefore the
doctor advices him to wear glasses with:
A. convex lens
B. Concave lens.
C. Thin lens
D. Flat lens. ( )
20. Which among the beaks of the following birds have been correctly matched with the type
of food it eats.
A.
....... for eating meat.
....... for sucking nectar from flowers.
B.
C.
....... for eating fish.
D.
....... for cracking seeds. ( )
SECTION B
Fill in the correct answer in the blank spaces.
21. Optic Nerve transmit ........... messages to the brain while ....... nerve transmit hearing
messages to the brain.
22. Complete the table below.
Vertebrate
Mammal
......................
......................
Reptile
Body Covered with
......................
......................
moist skin
scales
Blood Type
......................
warm
......................
......................
332
Reproduction by.
......................
lay eggs
lay eggs
......................
23. The diagram of the circuit below does not work. You are required to correct it. Draw the
correct diagram.
24. Look at the picture below, then answer the questions that follows.
Name two characteristics from the picture that show that the organism is living.
i) ..........................
ii) ..........................
25. Fill in the correct answer in the blank spaces.
i. Bulb uses .......... energy. This is converted to ...... energy.
ii. Electric iron uses ....... energy. This is converted to ........ energy.
iii. Telephone uses .......... energy. This is converted to ........ energy.
iv. Television uses ......... energy. This is converted to ...... energy.
26.
The diagram above shows the reproductive system of a female mouse. Write the name of
parts labelled with letter.
A. ...........................
B. ...........................
C. ...........................
D. ...........................
333
3.11.4 Form 1 Entrance Examinations 1993 - Science Paper (English Translation)
S.M.Z
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, ZANZIBAR.
FORM ONE ENTRANCE EXAMINATIONS, 1993.
SCIENCE
TIME: 1 HOUR 30 MINUTES.
INSTRUCTIONS.
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THIS PAPER.
THIS PAPER CONSISTS OF 3 PRINTED PAGES.
SECTION A.
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER AND WRITE ITS LETTER ON THE BLANK SPACES.
1. Blood is made up of ..........
A. White blood corpuscles and protein.
B. Plasma, red blood corpuscles and white blood corpuscles.
C. Water and salts.
2. Objects that allow electricity to flow are called .........
A. Insulator
B. Galvanometer
C. Conductor
3. Bat is an animal that belong to the group .............
A. Mammals
B. Birds
C. Reptiles
4. Matter is made up of ..........
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Atoms
5. Amoeba and paramecium are organisms which belong to a group .....
A. Protozoa
B. Reptiles
C. Amphibian
SECTION B.
FILL IN THE BLANK SPACES.
1. The two types of skeletons are ......... skeleton and ....... skeleton.
2. Rusting can be prevented by ...............
334
3. Generator produce direct current ............
4. Skin is made up of ..... parts, which are ....... and ........
5. Food in an animal pass through the ............
SECTION C.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS.
1. Mention the five sense organs in living organism.
..............................................................................
2. Briefly explain the meaning of balanced diet.
..............................................................................
3. Draw
(a) a short sighted eye.
(b) a diagram of a lens to show how short sighted is corrected.
4. With an aid of a diagram, briefly explain how to make a transformer.
5. Label the parts indicated with letters.
335
3.12. Zimbabwe
3.12.1. Overview
End of Primary School Examination
1.
Title of examination:
Grade 7 Examination
2.
Amount of fees charged:
Nil
3.
Examination after years in primary
school (6, 7, 8 years):
7 yrs
4.
Children's entry age in primary school:
5 1/2-6 yrs
5.
Number of pupils sitting examination
in 1994:
306,706
6.
Examination subjects offered:
6 subjects in 4 papers:
• Shona or Ndebele
• Mathematics
• English
• General Paper (Religious & Moral
Education/Social Studies, Science &
Agriculture)
7.
Language of examination:
English (except for African languages)
8.
Institution setting
questions:
9.
Have there been any reforms in the
examination questions?
10.
the
examination
Examinations
Branch,
Education and Culture
Ministry
of
Yes
When? (year)
1990
What kind?
General Paper (consisting of items from
Social Studies, Science and Agriculture,
Religious and Moral Education) and African
languages (Shona or Ndebele) were
introduced in the Grade 7 Examinations.
Stages of development of examination
questions (please describe):
336
• Items are generated by regional panels
and Curriculum Development Unit. Items
are moderated at regional panel meetings
and selected for presentation at National
Panel (teachers are involved).
•
National
Panel
consisting
of
representatives from regional panels
moderate items submitted by regional
panels and select them for constructing
papers to be presented.
• National Panel selects items that have
been pre-tested for final examinations.
11.
Type of examination questions and
distribution of different kind of
questions.
Multiple-choice items only:
30% knowledge
40% comprehension
20% application
10% problem solving
12.
Is
continuous
assessment
incorporated in the final examination?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
13.
Are examination items pretested?
14.
Which
professional
groups
are
involved in setting the examination
questions?
Yes [x]
No [ ]
• Primary school teachers
• School inspectors
• Curriculum developers in Curriculum
Development Unit (CDU)
• Examination specialists
15.
Are the same professionals who set
the examination questions involved in
marking papers?
Yes [ ]
No [x]
If no, who marks the papers (state)?
Marked by optical mark reader/computer.
16.
How are examination results used for
improving
teaching
in
primary
schools?
• Examination papers that have been
written by candidates remain in the school
for future use of teachers or pupils.
• Reports on performance of candidates in
an examination are circulated to schools.
17.
To what other uses
examination results put?
Evaluation of primary school system for
national government and relevant section
of Ministry of Education, e.g. district
education offices.
18.
Main problem with Primary
are
the
• Items have tended to test recall at the
expense of other mental skills.
• Pupils may not take them seriously where
the examinations are not used for
selection.
• Because of large candidature multiplechoice tests only are administered. Skills
that are not well measured by such
questions are therefore not measured in
the primary examination.
3.12.2. Analysis of End of Primary Education Examination in Zimbabwe
by Nelson Muzambi, Examinations Branch, Ministry of Education
1. The duration of primary education in Zimbabwe is 7 years. Assessment of pupils from
Grade 1 (year 1) to Grade 6 (year 6) is entirely school-based, with each school being
responsible for producing end-of-term and end-of-year reports for each pupil.
2. The Grade 7 Examinations, the end of primary education examinations, are set by the
Examinations Branch. Authority for setting, moderating, administering, marking and awarding
is vested in the Secretary for Education and Culture, with the Examinations Branch as the
executing body.
3. The purpose of the examination is to certify that pupils have completed seven years of
337
primary education and to record levels of individual pupil competency in four subject areas.
The examination is not used as a selection tool because promotion is automatic to the next
grade. The outcome of automatic promotion is that many pupils who proceed to their first year
of secondary education (form 1) do not have the skills to function at that education level.
4. Pupils in Grade 7 take four tests: English, Mathematics, an African language (Shona or
Ndebele) and a General Paper. The General Paper comprises items from Environmental
Science, Social Studies and Religious and Moral Education syllabi. All the tests are written in
English with the exception of the African languages. Each subject test (examination) is
composed of one paper of 50 multiple-choice questions. Pupils are allowed two hours per
paper.
5. The multiple-choice questions are written by nine regional panels, consisting of
experienced teachers and education officers (supervisors). Each region is responsible for
selecting a certain number of items but with little guidance from the Examinations Branch.
6. Each regional panel is represented at national subject panel meetings arranged by the
Examinations Branch. At these meetings, questions for the final examination papers and pretest papers are selected, based on a set of skill assessment objectives.
7. All final examination questions have to be pretested before they are administered to the
candidates. Computerised item analysis is done on an old system which determines each
item's discrimination index, facility index and P-value. Items that perform well in pretests are
the only ones that are selected for the final papers to ensure that the final product suits the
broad spectrum of candidates in the schools. Multiple-choice tests were introduced in the
Grade 7 Examination in 1984. The reaction from parents and other concerned parties was
mixed, with a significant number criticizing the tests because they thought they lacked validity
and could be done by »idiots«.
8. The Government printer in Harare prints each year's examinations in one colour on
newsprint. The Examinations Branch distributes the examination papers via the postal service
to each of the 5,800 schools nationwide. Teachers administer each subject as stipulated on
the examinations timetable. The teachers are not given training in test administration or
security. Used examination papers are left at the schools for use by both teachers and pupils.
9. Scanner sheets completed by the candidates are marked by optical mark readers. The
Branch currently produces score reports from the data tape on an old processing system. The
score reports consist of the certificates given to each pupil who completes the test. The
certificate lists a grade of 1-9 for each subject convertible into a 'percentage equivalent'
according to a scale printed on the back of the certificate. A grade 1-6 represents a pass.
Scores are not compared between groups such as schools or regions.
10. A comprehensive report on the Grade 7 Examination is written at the end of each year.
The information in the report is meant to help Grade 5-7 teachers improve teaching of the
various subjects. The report includes statistics on pass rate and comments on the
performance of candidates in the separate subjects.
3.12.3. Examination Problems Encountered
by Margareter Chirongoma, Examinations Branch, Ministry of Education
1. There is general lack of expertise in the multiple-choice item construction.
2. There is need to produce more comprehensive reports on the Grade 7 Examination for
every subject pointing out the strengths and weaknesses of the items. This would go a long
way to assist the teachers to improve their ability to develop items for school based
assessment.
338
3. As for the General Paper 50 items are not enough to effectively test four subjects, namely,
• Social Studies
• Environmental Science (incl. Agriculture)
• Religious and Moral Education
• Home Economics.
In the »General Paper« Science and Agriculture are examined from question 31-50, which is
only 20 items. So it is almost impossible to give a good coverage of the syllabus. Therefore
there is need to test each subject separately as has been suggested by teachers who
completed the questionnaire sent out to schools to evaluate the 1993 Grade 7 Examinations.
4. Scores from continuous assessment do not contribute to the final grade such that the grade
one acquires in the national examination may not be a true reflection of one's performance.
5. Language development is hindered since the objective tests do not promote free
expression.
Printed by the Government Printer, Harare
3.12.4 Grade 7 Examination 1994 - General Paper (Science and Agriculture)
MINISTRY OR EDUCATION AND CULTURE
ZIMBABWE
GRADE SEVEN EXAMINATION, 1994
GENERAL PAPER
Date: Wednesday, 19 October 1994
Time: 2 hours
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Read ALL the instructions carefully.
2. DO NOT open this booklet until you are told to do so by the invigilator.
3. Use ONLY a 2HB pencil for all entries on the answer sheet.
4. If you wish to change your answer, ERASE it COMPLETELY with a pencil rubber and then
shade the new choice.
5. If MORE than ONE circle is shaded for any one answer, that answer will be regarded as
WRONG.
6. When you are told to start, choose ONE correct answer from the suggested answers and
shade it VERY DARK.
7. If you DO NOT understand the instructions ask the invigilator to explain them to you
BEFORE you start.
8. Answer ALL the questions on the separate answer sheet provided.
This question paper comprises 18 printed pages.
Copyright. Ministry of Education and Culture. 1994
Questions 1-30 refer to Religious and Moral Education and Social Studies.
Use figure 1 to answer question 31.
339
Figure 1
31. What is produced at Y that causes the water to boil?
A. Heat.
B. Light.
C. Smoke.
D. Steam.
E. vapour.
32. Which of the following is a water-borne disease?
A. Cold.
B. Dysentery.
C. Malaria.
D. Measles.
E. Tetanus.
Use figure 2 to answer question 33.
Figure 2
33. At which point of the bilharzia cycle A, B, C, D or E does the bilharzia parasite enter the
body?
340
Use figure 3 to answer question 34.
Figure 3
34. Equal volumes of water are poured into equal volumes of different kinds of substances.
After a set time, which substance will have allowed the least amount of water to go through?
A. Clay.
B. Gravel.
C Loam.
D. Manure.
E. Sand.
Use figure 4 to answer question 35.
Figure 4
35. Which seed is likely to germinate last under the same conditions?
Use figure 5 to answer question 36.
Figure 5
36. This diagram shows a four year crop rotation for a garden. In this rotation which crop
would be in bed 3?
A. Beans.
B. Cabbage.
C. Lettuce.
D. Onion.
E. Spinach.
341
37. Which weather condition is best for transplanting seedlings.
A. Cool and dry.
B. Hot and humid.
C. Cloudy and damp.
D. Dry and calm.
E. Windy and dry.
38. To which plant family do maize, rice and wheat belong?
A. Grass.
B. Fruit.
C. Legume.
D. Tuber.
E. Vegetables.
39. Green plants need the following to make food and grow
A. Bees, sunlight and air.
B. Soil, worms and water.
C. Sunlight, air and water.
D. Manure, air and sunlight.
E. Clay, water and air.
40. Mulching helps the soil to
A. lose a lot of water.
B. shelter the roots.
C. keep moisture for a longer period.
D. lose water at a faster rate.
E. become water-logged.
Use figure 6 to answer question 41.
Figure 6
41. The direction of X from Y is
A. North.
B. North East.
C. North West.
D. South.
E. South West.
42. If a transparent plastic bag is tied over some leaves of a living plant what will be seen in
the plastic bag after several hours?
A. Air.
B. Dry leaves.
C. Insects.
D. No change.
E. Water drops.
342
Use figure 7 to answer question 43.
Figure 7
43. Pools A and B are in the same area. They have equal amounts of water. Why does pool B
lose more water by evaporation than pool A?
Because pool B
A. has strong winds over it.
B. is in a very dry place.
C. stores much more water.
D. is not sheltered by the hills.
E. has a bigger surface area.
44. What type of fuel do steam engines use?
A. Coal.
B. Diesel.
C. Electricity.
D. Paraffin.
E. Petrol.
The diagrams in figure 8 show simple electric circuits.
Figure 8
343
45. Which bulb will light up?
Use figure 9 to answer question 46.
Figure 9
46. Name the part labelled X.
A. Heart.
B. Intestines.
C. Liver.
D. Lungs.
E. Stomach.
Use the map of Zimbabwe in figure 10 to answer the question that follows.
Figure 10
344
47. Which of the winds P, Q, R, S or T bring most rains to Zimbabwe when they meet:
A. T and S.
B. R and S.
C. R and Q.
D. R and T.
E. P and T.
48. Use figure 11 to answer question 48.
Figure 11
48. Which letter shows the position of the heart.
49. What should people do to make unprotected water safe for drinking?
A. Boil it.
B. Add salt.
C Keep it cool.
D. Let it settle.
E. Sieve it.
Use figure 12 to answer question 50.
Figure 12
345
50. The winds of the area shown are mostly coming from the east. The set up of the home is
wrong because the
A. living huts are far from the toilet.
B. protected well is not supposed to be between the huts and toilet.
C. smell from the toilet is continuously blown to the huts.
D. toilet water will flow to the well.
E. toilet should be nearer to the well.
3.12.5 Grade 7 Examination 1993 - General Paper (Science and Agriculture)
MINISTRY OR EDUCATION AND CULTURE
ZIMBABWE
GRADE SEVEN EXAMINATION, 1993
GENERAL PAPER
Date: Wednesday, 20 October 1993
Time: 2 hours
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Read ALL the instructions carefully.
2. DO NOT open this booklet until you are told to do so by the invigilator.
3. Use ONLY a pencil for all entries on the answer sheet.
4. If you wish to change your answer, ERASE it COMPLETELY with a pencil rubber and then
shade the new choice.
5. If MORE than ONE circle is shaded for any one answer, that answer will be regarded as
WRONG.
6. When you are told to start, choose ONE correct answer from the suggested answers and
shade it VERY DARK.
7. If you DO NOT understand the instructions ask the invigilator to explain them to you
BEFORE you start.
8. Answer ALL the questions on the separate answer sheet provided.
This paper comprises 13 printed pages.
Copyright. Ministry of Education and Culture. 1999
Printed by the Government Printer, Harare.
Questions 1-30 refer to Religious and Moral Education and Social Studies.
Use figure 1 to answer question 31.
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Figure 1
31. Which part of the wheelbarrow has to be greased in order to reduce friction?
32. Bilharzia parasites live in one of the following creatures,
A. water spiders.
B. water worms.
C. water slugs.
D. water snails.
E. water scorpions.
33. The shape of the earth is
A. a circle.
B. an oblong.
C. a sphere.
D. a trapezium.
E. flat.
34. The sun's energy is called
A. chemical.
B. electrical.
C. hydro-electric.
D. thermal.
E. solar.
35. People are scared of AIDS because
A. the disease has no cure.
B. the disease cannot be easily cured.
C. the disease is foreign to Zimbabwe.
D. doctors fear to touch patients with it.
E. it kills only young people.
36. Which crop gives most proteins?
A. Maize.
B. Soya beans.
C. Sorghum.
D. Wheat.
E. Millet.
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37. The low land between mountains or hills is called a
A. field.
B. forest.
C. plateau.
D. slope.
E. valley.
38. Animals that eat other animals are called
A. browsers.
B. carnivores.
C. grazers.
D. herbivores.
E. insect eaters.
Use Figure 2 to answer question 39.
Figure 2
39. What part of food chain represented by X is missing?
A. Air.
B. Carnivore's.
C. Plants.
D. Soil.
E. Water.
40. If you are outside and there is lightning what must you do to protect yourself?
A. Stand very still.
B. Shelter under a tree.
C. Run away fast.
D. Crouch down.
E. Don't have enemies.
41. A class recorded the number of boxes of tomatoes it sold for three days per week for
three weeks. The following is their recording.
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If the class wanted to sell the most tomatoes which two days should they choose?
A. Wednesday and Friday.
B. Tuesday and Thursday.
C. Monday and Thursday.
D. Monday and Friday.
E. Wednesday and Monday.
42. Which of these is man-made?
A. Cotton.
B. Linen.
C. Nylon.
D. Silk.
E. Wool.
43. What do green plants use to make plant food?
A. Air, food, sunlight.
B. Food, roots, water.
C. Roots, sunlight, air.
D. Soil, air, sunlight.
E. Water, sunlight, air.
44. What must be done with empty pesticide containers?
A. Clean them.
B. Destroy them.
C. Store food in them.
D. Store water in them.
E. Sell them to others.
45. It is good to grow plants in fish ponds because
A. fish like small water plants in a pond.
B. of some fish in the pond.
C. oxygen given off by plants is used by the fish.
D. the green colour of the plants attracts fish in the pond.
E. the plants help the fish to swim.
Use figure 3 to answer question 46.
Figure 3
46. The skull is likely to be that of an animal that fed on
A. other animals.
B. tree leaves.
C. house flies.
D. earth worms.
E. tall grass.
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Use figure 4 to answer question 47.
Figure 4
47. Which arrow shows the direction the wind will blow to?
Use figure 5 to answer question 48.
Figure 5
48. The graph shows the number of kilograms of a crop harvested. Choose a statement true
of the graph.
A. The largest harvest was in February.
B. 20Kg of crop was harvested in April.
C. The second largest harvest was in January.
D. The largest harvest was in January.
E. November had the largest harvest.
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Use figure 6 to answer question 49.
Figure 6
49. During filtration of water, fine sand is put in the filter because it
A. does not allow the dirt particles to pass through.
B. holds the larger pebbles and stones.
C. helps water run easily.
D. is not washed away by the water.
E. takes away salt from the water.
Use Figure 7 to answer question 50.
Figure 7
50. The jars in the diagram contain equal amounts of water. In which of the jars will table salt
dissolve fastest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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4. Examples of Follow-up Communications after the
Examinations
4.1. Kenya Certificate of Primary Education (KCPE) 8-4-4 K.C.P.E. Newsletter 1992
(abstracts)
by Research Section, Kenya National Examinations Council
THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL
8-4-4
K.C.P.E
NEWSLETTER
1992
Introduction
The Kenya National Examinations Council has been producing KCPE Newsletters for the last
six years. During this time, classroom teachers have had access to information about pupils'
weaknesses in examinations. Teachers should have realised that pupils generally make the
same type of mistakes and tend to be weak in certain areas of the syllabus. In the past,
possible causes of these mistakes and possible approaches to teaching that would improve
learning and hence performance have been suggested.
Teachers have, no doubt, obtained a lot of useful information from both formal and informal
assessment of their pupils. The Newsletter is not meant to be a one way form of
communication. It is meant to initiate dialogue between the Kenya National Examinations
Council and classroom teachers.
We would like to encourage teachers to send to us their suggestions as to why pupils
continue to perform poorly in certain areas of the syllabus in spite of our highlighting their
weaknesses in these areas and even recommending corrective measures. We would like
352
teachers to make use of the newsletter by making constructive suggestions and
recommendations so that their experiences can benefit many teachers. They could, for
example, suggest those methods of teaching that they have used and proved effective in
enhancing the learning of those topics that pupils often have problems with. They could also
give pupils' weaknesses that have not been highlighted in these newsletters. The information
we are requesting teachers to provide could be sent to the Council, as a separate report,
together with the tear-off post-examination questionnaire provided at the back of the
newsletter which we encourage teachers to continue responding to.
Science
INTRODUCTION
The Science section of the Science and Agriculture paper was set in accordance
general aims stated in the syllabus that have to be achieved over the 8-year
education cycle. It tested the various skills that the candidates were expected
acquired during their 8 years of primary education. The skills were tested using
content areas from the syllabus.
with the
primary
to have
different
Table 1 shows these skills and the performance of the candidates in each skill. Similar
information is also included for the 1990 KCPE for purpose of comparison.
Table 1
MAIN SKILLS TESTED
Recall
Comprehension
Application
Higher abilities (analysis, synthesis & evaluation)
MEAN % OF CANDIDATES SCORING
CORRECTLY
1990
1991
49.20
47.94
53.40
53.47
29.12
39.40
63.04
60.30
From the table above, it can be observed that the performance of the candidates was poorer
in those questions that tested application of knowledge in the two years. Teachers should
therefore pay more attention to the application of the knowledge and skills that the pupils
learn to their everyday life experiences.
OVERALL PERFORMANCE
An indication of performance in each of the 30 Science items is shown in Figure 6. In this
figure, the relative difficulty of each item can be seen at a glance. In addition, the performance
of the candidates in the 1991 KCPE Science section is given in Table 2 below. This is based
on a random sample of 24,136 candidates. The 1990 performance is also provided in the
table for comparison.
Table 2
MEAN RAW MARK/30
STANDARD DEVIATION
1990
15.02
4.13
1991
14.78
4.48
From table 2, the following conclusions could be made:
(i) The overall performance in 1991 is comparatively lower although the spread of the
candidates is slightly better.
(ii) there is no significant difference in performance in the two years.
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Question 18
18. Fatuma raised some water from a well using a winch like the one shown in the diagram
below.
Which one of the following would help her to reduce the effort needed to raise the water?
Increasing the length of the part labelled
A. W
B. X
C. Y
D. Z
RESPONSE PATTERN
Option
% choosing the option
Mean mark in other questions
A
47.13
14.05
B*
18.61
17.29
C
19.93
13.84
D
13.54
15.48
The question was testing the application of knowledge on machines. To choose the correct
answer, the candidates were expected to understand the relationship between the effort used
and the effort distance. The effort is inversely proportional to the distance through which it
moves. Thus, the longer the part labelled X is, the less the effort used.
About 50% of the candidates in the sample chose option A implying that the effort distance is
the part labelled W which is incorrect. Others thought the part labelled Y is the effort distance.
Such a confusion could only result from pupils' lack of knowledge on simple machines. Pupils
cannot understand this topic fully if they are taught by chalk and talk method. They should be
given a chance to do things and find out for themselves.
Question 26
26. The slowest way of recycling carbon in sawdust is by
A. putting the sawdust in the cowshed
B. putting the sawdust in the shamba
C. using the sawdust in a jiko for cooking
D. using the sawdust for making hardboards.
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RESPONSE PATTERN
Option
% choosing the option
Mean mark in other questions
A
20.30
14.87
B
26.09
14.99
C
23.47
13.30
D*
29.21
15.82
This question was testing the candidates' knowledge on what happens to sawdust under
different conditions. It was scored correctly by the bright candidates. The response pattern
also shows that the mean mark in the rest of the question was a mark or two about the
sample mean. This indicates that there was an element of guessing by most candidates. This
would result from lack of understanding of what recycling of carbon in sawdust means. The
correct option, D, was missed by many candidates probably due to their ignorance of what
hardboard is. The poor performance on this item could also have resulted from the
candidates' choosing an answer in haste before they could clearly understand what was being
asked for. The word »slowest« in the stem was key to choosing the correct answer. Thus
there is need for teachers to urge their pupils to try to understand what is being asked for
before choosing an answer.
Question 27
27. The diagram below represents a periscope, an object and an observer's eye.
The image of the object as seen by the observer will appear at
AP
BQ
CR
DS
RESPONSE PATTERN
Option
% choosing the option
Mean mark in other questions
A
16.84
13.72
B
15.10
12.82
C
51.26
15.86
D*
15.99
14.50
A periscope uses plain mirrors and therefore the candidates were expected to use their
knowledge of the properties of a plain mirror to answer this question. The small percentage of
candidates who scored this item correctly shows that most candidates did not have this
knowledge. More than half of the candidates in the sample chose option C which shows that
the image is formed on the mirror. Anyone who has ever used a plain mirror to view
himself/herself knows that this is not true. One's image always appears to be formed behind
the mirror. Simple experiments done by the pupils using plain mirrors would help them to
know that the image of an object placed in front of a plain mirror is formed behind the mirror.
Thus teachers should seize every possible moment to have their pupils perform simple
experiments to make their acquisition of scientific concepts easier and faster.
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Question 28
U
U
28. Study the diagram of the food web below and answer the question that follows.
Which of the following animals should be most abundant in the food web?
A. Insects
B. Snakes
C. Frogs
D. Rabbits
RESPONSE PATTERN
Option
% choosing the option
Mean mark in other questions
A*
10.70
14.84
B
65.89
15.15
C
7.70
13.87
D
14.84
13.75
The candidates were expected to know that a food web is a complex feeding relationship of
organisms consisting of several food chains. In each food chain, the most abundant
organisms are those at the lowest trophic level and the numbers of organisms decrease as
one goes up the food chain. In this question, insects, mice and rabbits occupy the same
trophic level, that is, they all feed on plants. Ideally, their numbers are expected to be similar
but in this food web, snakes and eagles have an alternative source of food. Snakes feed on
frogs and mice while eagles feed on snakes and rabbits. On the other hand, frogs have no
alternative source of food for they feed only on insects. Thus insects should be more
abundant compared to mice and rabbits because they are the only source of food to the frogs.
The fact that about 65% of the candidates chose option B shows that they did not understand
how numbers of organisms in a food web vary depending on the trophic level a particular
organism occupies. To help the pupils understand clearly feeding relationships and their
influence on the numbers of organisms, teachers should approach this topic from a practical
point of view. A small scale ecological study would help pupils to understand better than if
food webs and food chains are explained merely by use of drawings on the chalk board.
GENERAL COMMENTS AND ADVICE TO TEACHERS
1. Questions that were based on topics that ought to have been taught practically were poorly
done in most cases. This indicates that some of the teachers could be teaching Science
largely theoretically. It is advisable that teachers should try to have their pupils perform most
of the simple experiments. This would enhance their acquisition of Scientific knowledge and
formation of sound Scientific concepts. Science should be taught through an investigatory
approach whenever possible.
2. Candidates' poor performance in some questions resulted from their lack of knowledge on
the relevant syllabus topics. This could have been due to poor syllabus coverage or
ineffective instruction. Teachers should plan their teaching to ensure that each syllabus topic
356
is given the attention it deserves. Poor planning causes backlog of work which forces
teachers to teach in haste, and hence disregarding the pupils' learning pace, only serves to
confuse them.
3. Most of the questions that the candidates found difficult also required the candidates to
reason out and extrapolate learned information. Teachers are advised, therefore, to train their
pupils in the art of reasoning and applying learned information to new situations.
Agriculture
INTRODUCTION
The analysis of performance in Agriculture is based on a sample of 24,136 candidates drawn
from both rural and urban schools. Table 1 below shows a summary of the overall
performance in the Agriculture section of the Science and Agriculture paper.
Table 1
Year
RAW MEAN OUT OF 30
STANDARD DEVIATION
1990
17.60
3.71
1991
16.97
4.26
Table 1 shows that there was a slight drop in performance compared to the previous year.
However, there was a better spread of marks as indicated by the bigger Standard Deviation.
The performance of candidates in all questions is shown in Figure 7.
FIGURE 7 - AGRICULTURE
From Figure 7, it is evident that candidates found some questions more difficult than others.
Questions which were scored correctly by less than 30% of the candidates are considered to
be difficult. The performance of candidates in these questions is shown in Table 2.
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Table 2
Question Number
% of candidates choosing correct response
37
23.90
46
17.28
52
21.82
55
31.16
57
27.85
ANALYSIS OF THE DIFFICULT QUESTIONS
In each question discussed, a response pattern showing the percentage of candidates
choosing each of the four responses and their mean marks in other questions is given. The
correct response in each question is indicated with an asterisk (*).
Question 37
U
U
37. Which set of symptoms given below indicates fowl pox disease in chicken?
A. Dullness and swellings on the head.
B. Diarrhoea and lack of appetite.
C. Crowding and stretching of the neck.
D. Diarrhoea and crowding.
RESPONSE PATTERN
Option
% choosing the option
Mean mark in other questions
A*
23.90
17.91
B
42.24
17.09
C
20.30
15.94
D
12.95
16.79
In this question, many candidates chose Diarrhoea and lack of appetite as symptoms for fowl
pox disease in chicken. It is true that loss of appetite is a symptom for so many diseases and
diarrhoea is also a symptom of a few intestinal diseases. However, these should not be
confused with fowl pox disease which is manifested by characteristic swellings on the head.
Pupils should be familiar with the general causes of livestock diseases, their symptoms and
control measures since death of livestock is a major cause of loss in livestock production. The
schools which may not have livestock are encouraged to take their pupils to institutions or
farms where the required animals are kept.
Question 46
U
U
46. The illustration below shows a herdsman leading a bull for exercise using a halter.
358
Leading a bull this way is NOT safe because the halter
A. will hurt the bull
B. will interfere with the feeding of the bull
C. will interfere with the breathing of the bull
D. is not sufficient to restrain the bull.
RESPONSE PATTERN
Option
% choosing the option
Mean mark in other questions
A
7.76
16.06
B
35.74
17.06
C
38.54
16.81
D*
17.28
17.78
A small percentage of candidates got the correct response in this question. They were the
more able candidates as seen from their mean mark in other items. Responses B and C
attracted high percentages of candidates. Since these responses referred to the halter
interfering with either the feeding or the breathing of the bull, many candidates thought the
halter is tied so tightly that it will interfere with the animal. Many candidates were merely
guessing the answer. It can be deduced that many candidates had neither seen a halter,
which is a specially designed rope for restraining cattle, nor handled bulls or seen bulls being
walked around for exercise. The safest way to handle bulls is to fix a leadstick onto the bullring at the nose. Since the skin at the bull's nose onto which the ring is fixed is delicate, a bull
will keep calm as any violent movement will hurt it. It should be borne in mind that bulls can
be vicious and should always be handled with care. However docile they may appear to be,
bulls should not be taken for granted.
Question 52
U
U
52. Which one of the following factors will influence the efficiency of farm labour?
A. Size of the farm.
B. Market for the produce.
C. The number of farming activities in the farm.
D. Training on relevant skills.
RESPONSE PATTERN
Option
% choosing the option
Mean mark in other questions
A
27.28
16.95
B
13.08
15.27
C
37.17
16.68
D*
21.82
18.69
The question was testing how to manage farm labour for efficient performance of farm work.
Labour efficiency refers to the ability of workers to carry out a given task well and fast. To be
able to do this, training on the relevant skills is necessary.
The response pattern indicated a lot of guess work. Response C attracted the highest
percentage of candidates followed by A. The number of farming activities in the farm like
growing maize, bananas, wheat, and rearing poultry and pigs cannot influence the efficiency
of farm labour because in a well managed farm, labour is usually attached to a given
enterprise. Alternatively, workers would be assigned a few tasks within one or more
enterprises which the workers can manage.
Question 55
U
U
55. The reason for washing the udder with warm water before milking a cow is to
A. kill germs on the udder
B. enable the cow to produce more milk
C. remove dirt from the udder
D. soften the teats.
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RESPONSE PATTERN
Option
% choosing the option
Mean mark in other questions
A
36.35
16.58
B
7.08
16.14
C*
31.16
17.65
D
22.92
17.03
This question was not so poorly done. It was scored correctly by slightly more than 30% of the
candidates. Since it was a borderline case, it is also worth discussing.
The majority of the candidates chose the wrong option A. Warm water does not kill germs.
The temperature of water capable of killing germs can scald the skin of the milkman and the
cow's udder. It was the more able candidates who scored the right response. Apart from
removing dirt from the udder, warm water also helps to stimulate milk let down in the udder.
Question 57
U
U
57. A farmer noticed his crop growing slowly and the leaves showing purple colouration. What
plant nutrient was lacking in the soil?
A. Nitrogen.
B. Phosphorus.
C. Potassium.
D. Sulphur.
RESPONSE PATTERN
Option
% choosing the option
Mean mark in other questions
A
48.35
17.20
B*
27.85
17.74
C
17.51
16.25
D
5.63
15.76
The response pattern reveals that only 27.85% of candidates in the sample, who happen to
be the most able ones got the correct response. A high percentage of candidates chose
Nitrogen. Whereas deficiency of Nitrogen results in slow or stunted growth, purple colouration
is never observed. A characteristic deficiency symptom for Nitrogen is yellow colouration.
Some deficiency symptoms of major plant elements overlap. However, there are certain
unique symptoms for each element. It is important to remember that all the macro-nutrient
elements are very important for plant nutrition and pupils should learn about their roles, and
deficiency symptoms exhibited in growing plants.
GENERAL GUIDANCE TO TEACHERS
It has already been pointed out that teachers should arrange for their pupils to visit farms or
agricultural institutions. They should also cover all the parts of the syllabus.
We would add that teachers should give exercises based on various cognitive levels to their
pupils. This will ensure that the pupils do not only memorise what they have been taught, but
are also encouraged to think on their own and argue out answers to questions.
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4.2. Lesotho Primary School Leaving Examination P.S.L.E. Report (May 1990)
(abstracts)1
P
P
1
This report has been compiled by the Evaluation, Research and Testing Division of the
N.C.D.C. It has been prepared by the various subjects divisions at the centre using the
item analyses prepared by the Education Statistics Unit at the centre.
P
P
by National Curriculum Development Centre (N.C.D.C.), Ministry of Education
NATIONAL CURRICULUM DEVELOPMENT CENTRE
(N C D C)
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
1989 P.S.L.E. REPORT
MAY 1990
EVALUATION, RESEARCH AND TESTING DIVISION
P.O. BOX 1126
MASERU
Introduction
This is the first report of the Primary School Leaving Examinations (P.S.L.E.) since the
establishment of the item bank. Since we would like to keep the reliability of the PSLE tests
good we shall not quote the items that were in the tests but try to refer to whatever was in the
item and needs attention, as closely as possible. After all we teach concepts and not items
although items are used to find out if the concepts have been learnt or not. Examples, which
are not necessarily the items which were in the tests, may be shown in the report.
Comments which can be addressed to: Education Testing Officer, N.C.D.C., P.O. Box 1126,
Maseru 100 will be welcomed and useful to improve on this report.
This report is supposed to assist the teachers in improving on their instruction where
necessary, or even to commend them where the instruction has been good. The report should
serve as a mirror to the teachers, this is because the achievement of pupils does, in a way,
reflect how effective the teaching has been. The teachers are thus encouraged to use this
report maximally and give feedback, as much as they can.
In this report no comments have been made on Papers One and Two of English and Sesotho
but hope to include them in future.
Science (General)
PURE SCIENCE
When referring to respiration in plants »stomata« and »breathing holes« should not be
considered as different things altogether because in actual fact stomata are holes through
which a plant breathes and it could be correct to say »stomata« are »breathing holes«.
The functions of the different parts of a seed, like the radicle, the inside, outer covering should
be distinguished. The pupils seemed to confuse the functions of these parts.
Pupils still seem not to be sure of the different parts of a flower, they are not able to identify
the different parts from a drawing. When teaching such topics it is necessary to have a
sample of a flower for example or observe fertilisation by agents such as bees. The topic
should be treated as practical as possible.
The distinction between an amphibian and a reptile need to be made since the pupils seem to
confuse the two. There are some reptiles that are amphibians and those that are not.
361
Pupils seem not to be clear about when contraction takes place and when expansion takes
place due to the effect of heat. For these two concepts to be learnt well, they should be taught
practically, the pupils should observe expansion taking place and also contraction and be
aware which effect of heat causes either of them and be sure which word is used for which
process.
The changes from one state of matter to another do not seem to be very clear to the pupils
like from solid to liquid, liquid to gas and the reverse. These should also be taught practically
so that pupils can see as to what changes take place under which circumstances and the
words used for the different changes.
The direction in a food chain should have meaning like »from - to«, which would imply that
from one thing the next is produced or found. Various examples should be given to explain
the chain. If the direction is in the opposite direction that seems to confuse the pupils.
HOME ECONOMICS
Pupils do not seem to be aware of all the different methods of cooking. All methods of cooking
should be clearly explained to the pupils, even if they are not all demonstrated. These
explanations should, of course, be accompanied by examples in which the different methods
are used.
It seems that the functions of different foodstuffs have been well-taught. The term »complete
food« does not seem to be familiar to some pupils. There is need to clearly explain what is
meant by »complete food« giving the example of young ones that live only on one kind of
food but survive. This implies that the one food that the young ones live on is sufficient for
their livelihood hence it is a »complete food«. That is why breastfeeding is recommended
more than anything else for babies.
The grouping of various food-stuffs should be clearly explained to pupils and they should be
given regular exercises in classifying different foodstuffs. In other words, when given a certain
kind of food pupils should be able to state what nutrient or nutrients the particular food has
and thus be able to differentiate foods according to their nutrients.
HEALTH AND PHYSICAL EDUCATION
Pupils do not seem to know about diseases that are caused by pests that are not found
locally. There is need when teaching about diseases caused by pests, to include even those
diseases that are not found locally, like the tropical diseases.
What is taught about personal hygiene and can be done practically should then be taught
practically and whenever possible let the pupils practise it at school, for example, washing
one's hands when one comes from the toilet. Pupils do not seem to be aware of some of
common personal hygiene practices which they could learn easily through practice.
There is need to explain to pupils the dangers of some of the unhygienic practices, for
example it should be made clear why eating food from a rubbish pit or bin may be dangerous,
that is, how it can cause diseases.
When teaching about care of the different parts of the body emphasis should be laid on
improper common practices and these should be discouraged explaining what dangers those
might have to the particular part of the body, for example, the rubbing of the eye when there
seems to be a foreign particle that has entered the eye.
It seems not to be clear to pupils as to what exactly happens to people who die because there
is a coal fire burning inside a closed house with no fireplace with a chimney. It should be
explained that they die because of inhaling the poisonous gas, carbon monoxide and not
necessarily because there was no oxygen to be inhaled, it should be made clear that it is the
presence of the carbon monoxide in the blood system that causes the death.
362
Causes of the common diseases, especially those that may be epidemic should be known to
the pupils, this will be of help to the students to advise on how epidemic diseases can be
avoided where possible or to stop one if it is already taking place.
AGRICULTURE
When teaching pupils about the improvement of soil that is poor more emphasis should be
laid on the use of manure rather that on the use of artificial fertilizers which only provide
nutrients to the plants and not necessarily improving the quality of the soil.
The use of the term »seed bed« should be discouraged instead the term »nursery bed«
should be used because it is more correct. More emphasis should be laid on the techniques
of planting vegetables. It should be known which vegetables should be planted directly and
which can be transplanted and it should be explained why.
In the teaching of the subject the use of common words should be encouraged. For example,
the term »organic matter« could be used instead of »humus«. This is because some pupils
seemed not to know the meaning of the word »humus«.
Candidates did not seem to be clear as to how one type of soil differs from another. The
pupils should be taught in detail the characteristics of the different types of soil. They should
know the structure, the capacity to hold water, their nutritive value and so on.
It seemed not to be clear to pupils the need to prune trees. It should be clearly explained why
trees should be pruned, how they should be pruned and when they should be pruned.
Advantages gained should be given as against disadvantages of unpruned trees.
TRIAL SCIENCE
The topic on magnetism seems to be well-treated, the pupils are aware of the basic concepts
in magnetism, but they seem to lack the practical experience. Thus more practical work, even
in the form of demonstrations should be done.
The meanings of the words »float« and »sink« do not seem to be distinguishable to the
pupils. The distinction should be clearly made between these two words and this could be
done with the assistance of a demonstration with a few substances that sink in certain liquids,
especially water, and those that float in those liquids. Here should be included liquids that
float on other liquids. It should be explained that floatation depends on density, for example, if
the volume of a substance can be increased while its mass remains the same then its density
decreases (it becomes lighter) and it can float, like an inflated balloon.
Pupils do not seem to be aware of the interdependence between the various species of
nature. In the teaching of ecology emphasis should be laid on how one thing depends on the
existence of another and how that second one depends on yet another thing. For example,
animals depend on plants for food while the plants depend on the sun for energy.
Pupils only hear about certain instruments used for measuring various quantities in science
but have no idea as to how the instruments look like, and thus how they work. As much as
possible instruments used to make measurements should be shown to students and they
should use them, if possible, but if it is not possible demonstrations should be made on their
use.
Some pupils cannot make the difference between solution, solvent and solute. First, it is
necessary to clearly explain the process of dissolving and then make the distinction between
the solvent and the solute and hence the mixture, which is the solution.
Practical work should be done with balances to explain the state of equilibrium and of no
equilibrium. It should be clear as to how the balance swings when there is a heavier load on
one side.
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Since breathing organs differ from animal to animal or between certain families of animals it
should be clearly explained how these differ including the names used for different breathing
organs.
Some pupils could not differentiate between certain animals according to their structure. More
detail should be given when teaching about structure of different animals, for example, which
are covered with scales, which with no bones, which with legs and so on.
The use of machines, that is, levers and pulleys should be done practically because the pupils
seem not to be aware how some of the machines work.
The water retaining capacity of soil should be taught practically and the kind of soil suitable
for making bricks should be explained to pupils. The fact that soil has air inside it should be
shown practically.
Some pupils seemed not to be clear of the life stages of an insect, this could be taught as
suggested in the syllabus.
The difference between perimeter and area should be clarified, as it seemed not clear to
some pupils.
Conduction of electricity should be taught practically.
More emphasis should be laid in the teaching of friction, especially the effects of friction.
Pupils should be taught different kinds of clouds and also stars, it should not be taken for
granted that they know them. For clouds, the examples given should be familiar to the pupils.
SUMMARY
The test with the highest reliability was Mathematics with a (Kuder-Richardson Formula 20)
KR20 reliability coefficient of 0.861, this was followed by Trial Science with 0.816 then English
Paper 3 with 0.768 next Social Studies with 0.751 and then Sesotho with 0.719 and lastly
Science (General) with 0.711.
The following table shows the total score, the mean score and the standard deviation (S.D.)
for each paper (here the Papers I and II for Sesotho and English have been included but Trial
Science is not).
Paper Science Social Maths Sesotho Sesotho Sesotho English English English
Studies
Paper I Paper II Paper III Paper I Paper II Paper
III
Total 50
50
50
25
15
40
24
18
50
Score
Mean 22,21
26,41
27,6
16,63
10,23
30,08
9,02
7,25
25,46
S.D. 7,09
7,56
8,53
2,77
2,05
4,24
4,23
2,42
7,55
The total number of candidates was 26,181 and the overall pass percentage was 82.3, that is
21,539 candidates passed. There were 2,774 first, 4,867 second and 13,898 third class
passes and 4,642 failed.
364
UNEB
Newsletter Vol. 1, No. 2, 1993
• Report on PLE Work of Candidates
• Master the English Language to Master your Exams
• How a School can get a Centre Number
• Test Construction: Guidelines for Classroom Teachers
Shs. 1,500/= Registered as a Newspaper at G.P.O.
2.0 BASIC SCIENCE & HEALTH EDUCATION
In Basic Science and Health Education, the common errors encountered during the marking
were:
- confused facts on parasites and vectors e.g. Question 44.
- The language and expression were poor, use of mother tongue in some scripts.
- Spellings were poor.
- Lack of understanding of instructions. Could not explain or describe as expected.
- Poor illegible handwriting.
- Use of guess work especially on questions concerning sex.
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2.1 Sample of a poor script
The sample scripts show that the candidate has little knowledge of the subject matter. In the
1st sample, he cannot express himself correctly in English although he tries to answer in full
sentences. Spellings are very important especially of Science words as a candidate can fail
because of that, for instance answers given to question 9. 'serious' - may be the candidate
wanted to write 'cereals', question 12. 'longershitedness' was 'long sightedness'.
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2.2 Sample of good script
A good candidate answers in full sentences, and puts in detail to show that he/she
understands the subject.
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DSE in Brief
The German Foundation for International Development (DSE) is an institution which provides a
forum for development policy dialogue and the initial and advanced training of specialists and
executive personnel from developing and transitional countries. In addition, it supports German
experts preparing themselves for their assignments in developing countries and maintains the
Federal Republic of Germany's largest centre for documentation and information on development
cooperation issues.
Conferences, meetings, seminars and training courses support projects which serve economic
and social development, thus contributing to an effective, sustainable and wide-ranging
development process.
The DSE cooperates with partners at home and abroad. A considerable number of the
programmes take place in the developing countries, and the rest in Germany. Since 1960 the
DSE has given advanced professional training to more than 120,000 decision-makers, specialists
and executive personnel from over 150 countries. Through its dialogue and training events the
DSE currently reaches more than 10,000 participants annually.
Founded in 1959, the DSE contributes to development cooperation on the basis of the guidelines
of the German Federal Government's development policy. The institutional donor is the Federal
Ministry for Economic Cooperation and Development (BMZ). Some of the DSE programmes are,
however, financed by other donors (e.g. other Federal ministries, the Federal Länder, the
European Union).
Also, the Federal Länder of Baden-Württemberg, Bavaria, Berlin, North Rhine-Westphalia and
Saxony have made conference and training centres available. Since its establishment, the DSE
has been jointly financed by the Federation and the Länder. This finds expression in the
decentralized structure of the German Foundation with its specialized departments (Centres) and
conference centres in a number of Federal Länder.
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