CompTIA® A+ 220-801 and 220-802: Authorized Practice Questions

CompTIA® A+ 220-801 and 220-802: Authorized Practice Questions
CompTIA A+
220-801 and
220-802
®
Authorized Practice Questions
Fifth Edition
David L. Prowse
800 East 96th Street, Indianapolis, Indiana 46240 USA
CompTIA® A+ 220-801 and 220-802
Authorized Practice Questions
Exam Cram, Fifth Edition
Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc.
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Table of Contents
Introduction. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
Chapter 1:
Introduction to the 220-801 Exam . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Exam Breakdown . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Domain 1.0: PC Hardware (40%) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Domain 2.0: Networking (27%) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Domain 3.0: Laptops (11%) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Domain 4.0: Printers (11%) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Domain 5.0: Operational Procedures (11%). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Test-Taking Tips . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Getting Ready for the Practice Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
Chapter 2:
220-801 Practice Exam A. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Practice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Domain 1.0: PC Hardware . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Domain 2.0: Networking . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
Domain 3.0: Laptops . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20
Domain 4.0: Printers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22
Domain 5.0: Operational Procedures. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24
Quick-Check Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27
Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
Domain 1.0: PC Hardware . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
Domain 2.0: Networking . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 34
Domain 3.0: Laptops . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
Domain 4.0: Printers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
Domain 5.0: Operational Procedures. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40
Chapter 3:
220-801 Practice Exam B. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 43
Practice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 44
Quick-Check Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 63
Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 65
iv
Chapter 4:
220-801 Practice Exam C. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 79
Practice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 80
Quick-Check Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 102
Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 104
Chapter 5:
Review of the 220-801 Exams . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 121
Review of the Domains . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 121
Review What You Know . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 122
More Test-Taking Tips . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 123
Taking the Real Exam . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 124
Chapter 6:
Introduction to the 220-802 Exam . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 125
Exam Breakdown . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 125
Domain 1.0: Operating Systems (33%) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 126
Domain 2.0: Security (22%) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 126
Domain 3.0 Mobile Devices (9%) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 126
Domain 4.0: Troubleshooting (36%) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 127
Test-Taking Tips. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 127
Getting Ready for the Practice Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 128
Chapter 7:
220-802 Practice Exam A. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 129
Practice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 130
Domain 1.0: Operating Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 130
Domain 2.0: Security . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 136
Domain 3.0: Mobile Devices. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 140
Domain 4.0: Troubleshooting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 142
Quick-Check Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 150
Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 152
Domain 1.0: Operating Systems. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 152
Domain 2.0: Security . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 156
Domain 3.0: Mobile Devices . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 159
Domain 4.0: Troubleshooting. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 160
v
Chapter 8:
220-802 Practice Exam B. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 165
Practice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 166
Quick-Check Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 187
Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 189
Chapter 9:
220-802 Practice Exam C. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 205
Practice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 206
Quick-Check Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 228
Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 230
Chapter 10:
220-802 Practice Exam D . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 249
Practice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 250
Quick-Check Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 277
Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 279
Chapter 11:
Review of the 220-802 Exam. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 297
Review of the Domains . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 297
Review What You Know . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 298
More Test-Taking Tips . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 299
Taking the Real Exam . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 299
Chapter 12:
Wrap-Up . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 301
Getting Ready and the Exam Preparation Checklist . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 301
Tips for Taking the Real Exam. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 304
General Practices for Taking Exams . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 304
Smart Methods for Difficult Questions. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 306
Wrapping Up the Exam. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 308
Beyond the CompTIA A+ Exam . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 308
vi
About the Author
David L. Prowse is an author, a computer network specialist, and a technical
trainer. Over the past several years he has authored several titles for Pearson
Education, including the well-received CompTIA A+ Exam Cram and CompTIA
Security+ Cert Guide. As a consultant, he installs and secures the latest in computer and networking technology. Over the past decade he has also taught
CompTIA A+, Network+, and Security+ certification courses, both in the classroom and via the Internet. He runs the website www.davidlprowse.com, where
he gladly answers questions from students and readers.
About the Technical Editor
Aubrey Adams is an electronics and computer systems engineering lecturer and
Cisco Networking Academy instructor at Central Institute of Technology in
Perth, Western Australia. With a background in telecommunications, qualifications in communications engineering and management, and graduate diplomas
in computing and education, he teaches across a range of computer systems and
networking vocational education and training areas. Aubrey has authored
Networking Academy curriculum and assessments and is a Cisco Press author
and Pearson Education technical editor.
vii
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viii
It Pays to Get Certified
In a digital world, digital literacy is an essential survival skill.
Certification proves you have the knowledge and skill to solve business problems in virtually any business environment. Certifications are highly-valued credentials that qualify you for
jobs, increased compensation and promotion.
Certification Advances Your Career
• The CompTIA A+ credential—provides foundation-level knowledge and skills
necessary for a career in PC repair and support.
• Starting Salary—CompTIA A+ Certified individuals can earn as much as $65,000
per year.
• Career Pathway—CompTIA A+ is a building block for other CompTIA certifications
such as Network+, Security+ and vendor specific technologies.
• More than 850,000—Individuals worldwide are CompTIA A+ certified.
• Mandated/Recommended by organizations worldwide—Such as Cisco and HP and
Ricoh, the U.S. State Department, and U.S. government contractors such as EDS,
General Dynamics, and Northrop Grumman.
Some of the primary benefits individuals report from becoming A+ certified are:
• More efficient troubleshooting
• Improved career advancement
• More insightful problem solving
ix
CompTIA Career Pathway
CompTIA offers a number of credentials that form a foundation for your career in technology
and allows you to pursue specific areas of concentration. Depending on the path you choose to
take, CompTIA certifications help you build upon your skills and knowledge, supporting learning throughout your entire career.
Steps to Certification
Steps to Getting Certified and Staying Certified
Review Exam Objectives
Review the certification objectives to make sure you know
what is covered in the exam. http://www.comptia.org/
certifications/testprep/examobjectives.aspx
Practice for the Exam
After you have studied for the certification, take a free
assessment and sample test to get an idea what type of
questions might be on the exam. http://www.comptia.org/
certifications/testprep/
practicetests.aspx
Purchase an Exam Voucher Purchase your exam voucher on the CompTIA Marketplace,
which is located at: www.comptiastore.com.
Take the Test!
Select a certification exam provider and schedule a time
to take your exam. You can find exam providers at the
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testprep/testingcenters.aspx
x
Join the Professional Community
Join IT Pro Community
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multiple learning tools to help increase coverage of the learning objectives.
Why CompTIA?
• Global Recognition—CompTIA is recognized globally as the leading IT non-profit trade
association and has enormous credibility. Plus, CompTIA’s certifications are vendorneutral and offer proof of foundational knowledge that translates across technologies.
• Valued by Hiring Managers—Hiring managers value CompTIA certification because it
is vendor- and technology-independent validation of your technical skills.
• Recommended or Required by Government and Businesses—Many government
organizations and corporations either recommend or require technical staff to be
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and many more.)
• Three CompTIA Certifications ranked in the top 10—In a study by DICE of 17,000
technology professionals, certifications helped command higher salaries at all
experience levels.
How to obtain more information
Visit CompTIA online: www.comptia.org to learn more about getting CompTIA certified.
Contact CompTIA: Call 866-835-8020 ext. 5 or email questions@comptia.org
Connect with us:
Introduction
Welcome to CompTIA A+ 220-801 and 220-802 Practice Questions Exam Cram.
The sole purpose of this book is to provide you with practice questions that are
complete with answers and explanations to help you learn, drill, and review for
the CompTIA A+ certification exams. The book offers 700 questions that will
help you practice each exam domain and will help you assess your knowledge
before you take the real exam. The detailed answers to every question will aid in
reinforcing your knowledge about the concepts associated with the 2012 version
of the CompTIA A+ exams.
Who This Book Is For
The CompTIA A+ exams are designed for individuals with at least 12 months of
hands-on experience in the lab or field. If you have that experience, then this
book will be an excellent late-stage study tool. However, if you have not
acquired that experience, I recommend that you register for a hands-on A+
course or, at the very least, purchase an authorized A+ study guide such as the
A+ Exam Cram or the more in-depth A+ Cert Guide. After you take the course
and/or read the study guide (or guides), return to this book as your late-stage
test preparation to be used just before taking the real exams.
What You Will Find in This Book
In every chapter devoted to practice exams, you will find the following three
elements:
. Practice Questions: There are 700 questions that will help you learn,
drill, and review for the exam. All of the questions in this section are
multiple-choice.
. Quick-Check Answer Key: After you have finished answering the
questions, you can quickly grade your exam from this section. Only correct answers are given in this section. No explanations are offered yet.
Even if you have answered a question incorrectly, do not be discouraged.
Keep in mind that this is not the real exam. You can always review the
topic and do the questions again.
2
CompTIA®+ 220-801 and 220-802 Practice Questions Exam Cram
. Answers and Explanations: This section provides you with correct
answers as well as further explanations about the content posed in that
question. Use this information to learn why an answer is correct and to
reinforce the content in your mind for the exam day.
The book also comes with a supplemental disc. It contains a simulated testing
environment where you can take all seven exams on the computer in study mode
or in full practice test mode.
Hints for Using This Book
Complete your exams on a separate piece of paper so that you can reuse the
practice questions again if necessary. Also, plan to score 90% or higher on each
exam before moving on to the next one. The higher percentages you score on
practice question products, the better your chances for passing the real exam.
I am available for questions at my website:
www.davidlprowse.com
I answer questions Monday through Friday, usually in the mornings.
Need Further Study?
Consider a hands-on A+ course, and be sure to see the following sister products
to this book:
. CompTIA A+ Exam Cram, Sixth Edition by David L. Prowse
(ISBN: 978-0789749710)
. CompTIA A+ Cert Guide, Third Edition by Mark E. Soper, et al
(ISBN: 978-0789749802)
1
CHAPTER ONE
Introduction to the
220-801 Exam
The CompTIA A+ 220-801 exam is all about PC hardware,
networking, and procedures. The majority of this exam covers
the nuts and bolts of computer building.
In this chapter we’ll briefly discuss how the exam is categorized, give you some test-taking tips, and then prepare you to
take the three 220-801 exams that follow this chapter.
Exam Breakdown
The CompTIA A+ 220-801 exam is divided up by domain.
Each domain makes up a certain percentage of the test. The
five domains of the A+ 220-801 exam and their respective percentages are listed in Table 1.1.
TABLE 1.1 220-801 Domains
Domain
Percentage of Exam
1.0 PC Hardware
40%
2.0 Networking
27%
3.0 Laptops
11%
4.0 Printers
11%
5.0 Operational Procedures
11%
Total
100%
The 220-801 exam concentrates on the installation and configuration of hardware and devices. It doesn’t really get into
troubleshooting—that is saved for the 220-802 exam.
4
Chapter 1
Chances are that when you take the real CompTIA exam, you will see approximately 40 questions on PC hardware, 27 questions on networking, and so on.
So it stands to reason that PC hardware should be the most important subject
of your studies, due to the sheer bulk of the questions you will see.
Each domain has several or more objectives. There are far too many to list in
this book (20 pages or so), but I do recommend you download a copy of the
objectives for yourself. You can get them from:
http://www.comptia.org
Let’s talk about each domain briefly.
Domain 1.0: PC Hardware (40%)
This domain concerns building a computer and upgrading it. The core of a PC
includes the motherboard, CPU, and RAM. Those are the guts of the computer so to speak. They are installed inside a computer case.
You are required to understand motherboard form factors and compatibility
concerns as well as the ports, connectors, busses, and expansion slots of a motherboard. You should also know how to access, configure, and update the BIOS
and understand the relationship between the BIOS, CMOS, and lithium battery.
Then there’s everything that connects to the motherboard: CPU and fan, RAM,
expansion cards, hard drives, and optical drives. Plus there are all of the ports
on a computer such as USB, FireWire, video, and audio ports. And finally, you
should know some custom PC configurations such as gaming PCs, CAD/CAM
workstations, and HTPCs and the hardware that those different types of systems require.
Domain 2.0: Networking (27%)
The Networking domain covers network standards, cabling, connectors, and
tools. TCP/IP is also a big portion of this domain; you will undoubtedly see
questions on IP addresses, ports, and protocols. You should be able to compare
wired and wireless technologies and describe the various types of networking
hardware available.
Introduction to the 220-801 Exam
5
Domain 3.0: Laptops (11%)
The Laptops domain is a much smaller percentage than the PC Hardware
domain. But remember that every domain is important. You should be able to
demonstrate the ability to install and configure laptop hardware and software.
You also should know how to operate laptops’ special functions such as dual displays, wireless, and Bluetooth.
Domain 4.0: Printers (11%)
Printer technologies such as laser, inkjet, thermal, and impact will definitely
present themselves as questions on the exam. You should know how to install,
configure, and share printers as well as perform printer maintenance.
Domain 5.0: Operational Procedures (11%)
This domain covers safety, environmental controls, how to deal with prohibited content, how to act professionally, and how to use proper communication
skills.
Test-Taking Tips
My first recommendation is to take the exams slowly. Don’t rush it, especially
on the first exam. Carefully read through each question. Some questions are
tricky by design. Others may seem tricky if you lack knowledge in certain areas.
Still other questions are somewhat vague, and that is intentional as well. You
need to place yourself in the scenario of the question. Think of yourself actually installing a CPU and heat sink, or imagine that you are upgrading a video
card. Picture in your head the steps you must take to accomplish what the question is asking of you. Envision what you do with computers step-by-step, and
the answers will come easier to you.
Next, read through all of the answers. Don’t just jump on the first one that
seems correct to you. Look at each answer and ask yourself whether it is right
or wrong. And if it is wrong, define why it is wrong. This will help you to eliminate wrong answers in the search for the correct answer. When you have selected an answer, be confident in your decision.
Finally, don’t get stuck on any one question. You can always mark it and return
to it later. I’ll have more tips as we progress through the book, and I summarize
all test-taking tips at the end of this book.
6
Chapter 1
Getting Ready for the Practice Tests
The next three chapters feature practice tests based on the 220-801 exam. The
first exam (Practice Exam A) is categorized by domain to help you study the
concepts in order. It is also designed to be an easier exam than the other two.
The other exams (Practice Exam B and Practice Exam C) are freestyle, which
means the questions are mixed up to better simulate the real exam. Each exam
is followed by in-depth explanations. Be sure to read them carefully. Don’t
move on to another exam until you have mastered the first one. And by mastered
I mean you should be scoring 90% or higher on the exam as well as within each
of the individual domains. Really understand the concepts before moving on to
another exam. This will make you an efficient test-taker and allow you to benefit the most from this book.
Consider timing yourself. Give yourself 90 minutes to complete each exam.
Write down your answers on a piece of paper. When you are finished, if there
is still time left, review your answers for accuracy.
Each exam gets progressively more difficult. Don’t get overconfident if you do
well on the first exam; your skills will be tested more thoroughly as you
progress. And don’t get too concerned if you don’t score 90% on the first try.
That just means you need to study more and try the test again later. Keep studying and practicing!
After each exam is an answer key, followed by the in-depth answers/explanations. Don’t skip the explanations, even if you think you know the concept. I
often insert little tidbits of knowledge that are on the periphery of the concept,
but they serve to build you a stronger foundation of knowledge in general. In
other words, I might branch off the main topic, but this is done so you can get
a clearer, bigger picture of the 220-801 exam.
So take a deep breath, and let’s go!
2
CHAPTER TWO
220-801 Practice
Exam A
Welcome to the first 220-801 practice exam. This practice
exam is categorized in order of the domains. You will see 40
questions on PC Hardware; 27 questions on Networking; and
11 questions each for Laptops, Printers, and Operational
Procedures, for a total of 100 questions. This is the easiest
of the three 220-801 exams. The other two will get progressively harder.
Take this first exam slowly. The goal is to make sure you
understand all of the concepts before moving on to the next
test.
Write down your answers and check them against the answer
key that immediately follows the exam. After the answer key
you will find the explanations for all of the answers. Good
luck!
8
Chapter 2
✓
Quick Check
Practice Questions
Domain 1.0: PC Hardware
1. Which of the following are components you might find inside a
PC? (Select all correct answers.)
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 29
❍ A. CPU
❍ B. Motherboard
❍ C. Keyboard
❍ D. Printer
❍ E. RAM
❍ F. Cable modem
2. Which device stores data over the long term?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
CPU
Hard drive
Video card
Parallel
Detailed Answer: 29
1/8-inch TRS
1/4-inch TRS
PCI
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 29
PCIe
AGP
PCI-X
5. What part of the computer checks all your components during
boot?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
DVI
4. To which type of expansion slot would you install an x16 card?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 29
RAM
3. You would normally plug speakers into what type of port?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
CMOS
POST
BIOS
EEPROM
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 29
220-801 Practice Exam A
✓
Quick Check
6. Tim installs a new CPU in a computer. After a few hours, the
processor starts to overheat. Which of the following might be
the cause?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 29
The CPU is not locked down.
The CPU is not properly seated.
Thermal compound was not applied.
The CPU is not compatible with the motherboard.
7. If you have a flat-panel monitor, what type of technology is most
likely being used? (Select the best answer.)
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 29
A. LCD
B. CRT
C. RGB
❍ D. DVI
8. Which of the following could cause the POST to fail? (Select all
correct answers.)
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 29
❍ A. CPU
❍ B. Power supply
❍ C. CD-ROM
❍ D. Memory
❍ E. Hard drive
9. Which expansion bus uses lanes to transfer data?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
PCI
Detailed Answer: 30
PCI-X
PCIe
IDE
10. Which of the following are 64-bit CPUs? (Select all correct
answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Core i5
Phenom II
Pentium IV
x64
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 30
9
10
Chapter 2
✓
Quick Check
11. Which kind of socket incorporates “lands” to ensure connectivity
to a CPU?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Chipset
LGA
Copper
By the edges
Detailed Answer: 30
With tweezers
With an IC puller
Multimeter
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 30
UPS
FedEx
Surge protector
14. Which of the following uses a 24-pin main motherboard power
connector?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
By the front and back
13. Which device should you use to protect against power outages?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 30
PGA
12. How should you hold RAM when installing it?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 30
A. ATX
B. ATX 12V 1.3
C. ATX 12V 2.0
❍ D. ATX 5V 2.0
15. What is the maximum data transfer rate of SATA revision 3.0?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
1.5 Gb/s
Detailed Answer: 30
150 MB/s
3.0 Gb/s
6.0 Gb/s
16. A Compact Disc you use is rated at a speed of 48X. What does the
X refer to?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
150 KB/s
1.32 MB/s
133 MB/s
4.5 MB/s
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 30
220-801 Practice Exam A
11
✓
Quick Check
17. Which type of adapter card accepts broadcast programming?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
FireWire card
Network interface card
TV tuner
Detailed Answer: 31
Gaming PC
Virtualization workstation
CAD/CAM workstation
15
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 31
7
24
127
20. Which of the following ports would you most likely connect a
printer to?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
HTPC
19. How many pins are inside a SATA data connector?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 30
Video capture card
18. Which of the following types of custom PCs requires an HDMI
output?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 31
A. USB
B. LPT
C. FireWire
❍ D. eSATA
21. What is the delay in the RAM’s response to a request from the
memory controller called?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 31
Latency
Standard deviation
Fetch interval
Lag
22. What is the minimum number of hard drives necessary to
implement RAID 5?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
2
5
3
4
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 31
12
Chapter 2
✓
Quick Check
23. A user’s time and date keeps resetting to January 1, 2000. What is
the most likely cause?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 31
A. The BIOS needs to be updated.
B. Windows needs to be updated.
C. The Windows Date and Time Properties window needs
to be modified.
❍ D. The lithium battery needs to be replaced.
24. What type of adapter card is normally plugged into a PCIe x16
adapter card slot?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 31
A. Modem
B. Video
C. NIC
❍ D. Sound
25. To prevent damage to a computer, the computer should be
connected to what?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
A power inverter
An AC to DC converter
A UPS
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 32
512 MB
896 MB
448 MB
1024 MB
27. Which of the following components could cause the POST to beep
several times and fail during boot?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 31
A power strip
26. A computer has 1024 MB of RAM. It has 128 MB of shared video
memory. How much RAM is available to the operating system?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Sound card
Power supply
Hard drive
RAM
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 32
220-801 Practice Exam A
13
✓
Quick Check
28. Which of the following is the proper boot sequence of a PC?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
CPU, POST, boot loader, operating system
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 32
Boot loader, operating system, CPU, RAM
POST, CPU, boot loader, operating system
CPU, RAM, boot loader, operating system
29. Roger informs you that none of the three SCSI drives can be seen
on his SCSI chain. What should you check?
❍
A. Whether the host adapter is terminated and that the
disks have consecutive IDs of 1, 2, and 3
❍
B. Whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7 or 15, and
whether all the disks are terminated and have consecutive IDs of 0, 1, and 2
❍
C. Whether the host adapter has an ID of 0, and whether
the disks are terminated with the same ID
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 32
❍ D. Whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7, and whether
both ends of the chain are terminated, and that each
disk has a unique ID
30. Which of the following has the fastest data throughput?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
CD-ROM
RAM
USB
ATX
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 32
Pico-ITX
microATX
Nano-ITX
32. Which of the following CPU cooling methods is the most
common?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 32
Hard drive
31. Which kind of form factor is commonly found in HTPCs?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Heat sink
Heat sink and fan
Liquid cooling
Liquid nitrogen
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 32
14
Chapter 2
✓
Quick Check
33. You need to store 4 GB of data to an optical disc (without using
compression). Which of the following will meet your requirements? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
DVD-RW
CD-RW
BD-R
DVI
Detailed Answer: 33
DisplayPort
CNR
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 33
Powerful CPU
HDMI output
Surround sound
High-end video
36. You need to install the fastest hard drive possible. Which port
should you connect it to?
❍
Quick Answer: 27
HDMI
35. What does a CAD/CAM workstation require? (Select the two best
answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 32
CD-ROM
34. Which of the following is not a video port?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 33
A. USB
❍ B. SATA
❍ C. IDE
❍ D. eSATA
37. What type of power connector is used for an x16 video card?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Molex 4-pin
Detailed Answer: 33
Mini 4-pin
PCIe 6-pin
P1 24-pin
38. Which kind of current does a typical desktop PC draw from a wall
outlet?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Direct current
Neutral current
Alternating current
Draw current
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 33
220-801 Practice Exam A
15
✓
Quick Check
39. Which of the following are output devices? (Select the three best
answers.)
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 33
❍ A. Speakers
❍ B. Keyboard
❍ C. Mouse
❍ D. Printer
❍ E. Display
❍ F. Stylus
40. A customer complains that he gets a headache when he’s viewing
his display for more than an hour. What should you do?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 33
A. Raise the resolution to a higher setting
B. Install an antiglare filter
❍ C. Dim the lights near the customer’s desk
❍ D. Upgrade the video connector from DVI to VGA
Domain 2.0: Networking
41. What does the b in 1000 Mbps stand for?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Megabytes
Bytes
Bandwidth
64-bit
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 34
32-bit
128-bit
40-bit
43. When running cable through drop ceilings, what type of cable do
you need?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 34
Bits
42. The IP address 192.168.1.1 uses what addressing scheme?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
PVC
Category 5
Strong cable
Plenum
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 34
16
Chapter 2
✓
Quick Check
44. The wireless protocol 802.11n has a maximum data transfer rate
of what?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
600 Mbps
480 Mbps
54 Mbps
Modem
Detailed Answer: 34
Switch
Firewall
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 34
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
47. What is the minimum category cable needed for a 1000BASE-T
network?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
Router
46. The IP address 192.168.1.1 should have what default subnet
mask?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 34
11 Mbps
45. What device connects multiple computers together in a LAN?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 34
A. Category 3
B. Category 5
❍ C. Category 5e
❍ D. Category 6
48. Which of these IP addresses can be routed across the Internet?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
127.0.0.1
Detailed Answer: 34
192.168.1.1
129.52.50.13
10.52.50.13
49. Which port number does HTTP use?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
21
25
80
110
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 34
220-801 Practice Exam A
17
✓
Quick Check
50. What is the most commonly used network topology?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Star
Detailed Answer: 35
Bus
Ring
Mesh
51. What is the meaning of full duplex?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Transmitting and receiving data
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 35
Transmitting and receiving data simultaneously
Transmitting data only
Receiving data only
52. Which of the following types of cable have a copper medium?
(Select the three best answers.)
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 35
❍ A. Twisted pair
❍ B. Coaxial
❍ C. Fiber optic
❍ D. Cat 5e
❍ E. Multi-mode
53. Which types of cable can protect from electromagnetic interference (EMI)? (Select the two best answers.)
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 35
A. UTP
B. STP
❍ C. Fiber Optic
❍ D. Cat 6
54. What port do you connect a network patch cable to on the PC?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
USB
RJ45
RJ11
Parallel
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 35
18
Chapter 2
✓
Quick Check
55. You are configuring Bob’s computer to access the Internet. Which
of the following is required? (Select all that apply.)
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 35
❍ A. DNS server address
❍ B. Gateway address
❍ C. E-mail server name
❍ D. DHCP server address
❍ E. Domain name
56. Which of the following translates a computer name into an IP
address?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 35
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. DNS
❍ D. FTP
57. One of your customers wants to access the Internet from many
different locations in the United States. What is the best technology to enable her to do so?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Cellular WAN
Bluetooth
802.11n
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 36
192.168.1.100
192.168.1.1
192.168.10.1
192.168.0.1
59. What is the name of a wireless network referred to as?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 36
Infrared
58. You just configured the IP address 192.168.0.105 in Windows 7.
When you press the tab key, Windows automatically configures
the default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Which of the following
IP addresses is a suitable gateway address?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
SSID
WPA
DMZ
DHCP
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 36
220-801 Practice Exam A
19
✓
Quick Check
60. Which of the following connector types is used by fiber-optic
cabling?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 36
LC
RJ45
RG-6
RJ11
61. Which protocol uses port 53?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
FTP
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 36
SMTP
DNS
HTTP
62. Which of the following Internet services are wireless? (Select the
three best answers.)
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 36
❍ A. Cable Internet
❍ B. WiMAX
❍ C. Satellite
❍ D. DSL
❍ E. Cellular
❍ F. FIOS
63. Which of the following terms best describes two or more LANs
connected together over a large geographic distance?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 36
PAN
WAN
WLAN
MAN
64. Which of the following devices allows wireless computers to connect to the wireless network?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
WPA
WAN
WAP
VoIP
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 36
20
Chapter 2
✓
Quick Check
65. What device connects to the network and has the sole purpose of
providing data to clients?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 36
NAS
NAT
NAC
NaaS
66. You are making your own networking patch cable. You need to
attach an RJ45 plug to the end of a twisted-pair cable. Which tool
should you use?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 37
A. Tone and probe kit
B. Cable tester
C. Crimper
❍ D. Multimeter
67. Which port is used by RDP?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
80
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 37
110
443
3389
Domain 3.0: Laptops
68. Which is the most common type of RAM architecture used by
laptops?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 37
DIMM
RIMM
SODIMM
SDRAM
69. Which key on a laptop aids in switching to an external monitor?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Fn
Ctrl
Alt
Shift
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 37
220-801 Practice Exam A
21
✓
Quick Check
70. You would most likely find this type of display on a laptop.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
CRT
OLED
VGA
Detailed Answer: 37
Modem
NIC
RAM
Lithium-ion (Li-ion)
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 37
Nickel-Cadmium (Ni-Cd)
Nickel-metal hydride (NiMH)
Fuel cell
73. What does adding more RAM to a laptop that uses shared video
memory do for that laptop?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
Hard drive
72. What is the most commonly used battery type in laptops?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 37
LCD
71. What would you normally install into a Type II PCMCIA slot on a
laptop? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 37
A. Nothing
B. Improve video performance
C. Improve system performance
❍ D. Increase RAM speed
74. A customer can barely hear sound from the speakers on her
laptop. What should you do first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 38
Install a new sound driver
Tap the speakers
Search for a volume wheel/key
Reinstall Windows
75. Which of the following are typical names for expansion busses on
laptops? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
ExpressCard
SODIMM
PC Card
AGP
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 38
22
Chapter 2
✓
Quick Check
76. You use your laptop often. What is a simple, free way to keep your
laptop running cool?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 38
Keep the laptop on a flat surface
Put the laptop in the freezer when not in use
Direct a fan at the laptop
Keep the laptop turned off whenever possible
77. What are two important factors when purchasing a replacement
laptop AC adapter? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 38
Current and voltage
Connector size and shape
Battery type
Inverter type
78. Eric uses an external monitor with his laptop. He tells you that his
laptop will boot but the system won’t display anything on the
external screen. Which of the following enables the display?
❍
❍
A. Connect the laptop to another external monitor
❍
C. Press the Enter and Esc keys while the laptop is
booting
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 38
B. Press the Fn and Screen keys one or more times until
the screen appears
❍ D. Press the Fn key while the laptop is booting
Domain 4.0: Printers
79. Which type of printer uses a toner cartridge?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Ink jet
Detailed Answer: 38
Laser
Dot matrix
Thermal
80. Which of the following should not be connected to a UPS?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
PCs
Monitors
Laser printers
Speakers
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 38
220-801 Practice Exam A
23
✓
Quick Check
81. Which of the following is not a connector you might find on a
printer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
USB
PCIe
Centronics
Detailed Answer: 39
Print a test page
Restart the spooler
Set up a separator page
Printing on both sides of the paper
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 39
Printer collation
Full-duplex printer communication
Printing to file
84. Special paper is needed to print on what kind of printer?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 27
Verify that the printer prints in Microsoft Word
83. Which of the following best describes printing in duplex?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 38
RJ45
82. Terri finishes installing a printer for a customer. What should she
do next?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
A. Dot matrix
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 39
B. Thermal
C. Laser
❍ D. Inkjet
85. Which environmental issue affects a thermal printer the most?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Moisture
Detailed Answer: 39
ESD
Dirt
Heat
86. What happens last in the laser printing process?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Charging
Exposing
Developing
Fusing
Quick Answer: 27
Detailed Answer: 39
24
Chapter 2
✓
Quick Check
87. This type of printer uses impact to transfer ink from a ribbon to
the paper.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Inkjet
Dot matrix
Thermal
Quick Answer: 28
Detailed Answer: 39
Install the printer locally and access the Sharing tab
Install the printer locally and access the spool settings
Install the printer locally and access the Ports tab
Connect to the printer via FTP
89. A color laser printer is producing images that seem to be tinted
blue. What should you do?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 39
Laser
88. How can you take control of a network printer from a remote
computer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 27
Quick Answer: 28
Detailed Answer: 40
Clean the toner cartridge
Calibrate the printer
Change the fusing assembly
Clean the primary corona
Domain 5.0: Operational
Procedures
90. What tool should you use to protect a computer from electrostatic
discharge (ESD) while you are working inside it?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 40
Multimeter
Crimper
Antistatic wrist strap
PSU tester
91. While you are working at a customer site, a friend calls you on
your cell phone. What should you do?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 28
Ignore the call for now.
Go outside and take the call.
Answer the phone as quietly as possible.
Text your friend.
Quick Answer: 28
Detailed Answer: 40
220-801 Practice Exam A
25
✓
Quick Check
92. You spill an unknown chemical on your hands. What should
you do?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 40
Call 911.
Call the building supervisor.
Consult the MSDS for the chemical.
Ignore it.
93. You are running some cable from an office to a computer located
in a warehouse. As you are working in the warehouse, a 55-gallon
drum falls from a pallet and spills what smells like ammonia. What
should you do first?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 28
Quick Answer: 28
Detailed Answer: 40
A. Call 911.
B. Call the building supervisor.
C. Get out of the area.
❍ D. Save the computer.
94. While you are upgrading a customer’s server hard drives, you
notice looped network cables lying all over the server room floor.
What should you do?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 40
Ignore the problem.
Call the building supervisor.
Tell the customer about safer alternatives.
Notify the administrator.
95. What should be done with a lithium-ion battery that won’t hold a
charge any longer?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 28
Quick Answer: 28
Detailed Answer: 40
A. Throw it in the trash.
B. Return it to the battery manufacturer.
C. Contact the local municipality and inquire as to their
disposal methods.
❍ D. Open the battery and remove the deposits.
96. Which of the following statements is not assertive
communication?
❍
A. “I certainly know how you feel—losing data is a
terrible thing.”
❍
B. “Could you explain again exactly what you would like
done?”
❍
C. “Do your employees always cause issues on
computers like these?”
❍ D. “What can I do to help you?”
Quick Answer: 28
Detailed Answer: 40
26
Chapter 2
✓
Quick Check
97. A customer has a malfunctioning PC, and as you are about to
begin repairing it, the customer proceeds to tell you about the
problems with the server. What should you say to the customer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 41
Wait until I finish with the PC.
I’m sorry, but I don’t know how to fix servers!
Is the server problem related to the PC problem?
I have to call my supervisor.
98. What could be described as the chronological paper trail of
evidence?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 28
Quick Answer: 28
Detailed Answer: 41
A. First response
B. Chain of custody
C. Setting and meeting expectations
❍ D. Data preservation
99. What should you not do when moving servers and server racks?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Remove jewelry
Detailed Answer: 41
Move a 70-pound wire rack by yourself
Disconnect power to the servers before moving them
Bend at the knees and lift with your legs
100. Active communication includes which of the following?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 28
A. Filtering out unnecessary information
B. Declaring that the customer doesn’t know what he or
she is doing
❍ C. Clarifying the customer’s statements
❍ D. Mouthing off
Quick Answer: 28
Detailed Answer: 41
220-801 Practice Exam A
Quick-Check Answer Key
1. A, B, and E
30. C
59. A
2. C
31. C
60. A
3. C
32. B
61. C
4. B
33. B and D
62. B, C, and E
5. B
34. D
63. B
6. C
35. A and D
64. C
7. A
36. B
65. A
8. A and D
37. C
66. C
9. C
38. C
67. D
10. A and B
39. A, D, and E
68. C
11. C
40. B
69. A
12. A
41. B
70. B
13. B
42. B
71. B and C
14. C
43. D
72. A
15. D
44. B
73. C
16. A
45. C
74. C
17. D
46. B
75. A and C
18. A
47. C
76. A
19. B
48. C
77. A and B
20. A
49. C
78. B
21. A
50. A
79. B
22. C
51. B
80. C
23. D
52. A, B, and D
81. C
24. B
53. B and C
82. B
25. D
54. B
83. A
26. B
55. A and B
84. B
27. D
56. C
85. D
28. A
57. B
86. D
29. D
58. D
87. C
27
28
Chapter 2
88. C
93. C
98. B
89. B
94. C
99. B
90. C
95. C
100. C
91. A
96. C
92. C
97. C
220-801 Practice Exam A
29
Answers and Explanations
Domain 1.0: PC Hardware
1. Answers: A, B, and E. Common components inside a PC include the CPU,
motherboard, and RAM, along with the power supply, adapter cards, and hard
drives. Keyboards (and mice) are input devices that are located outside the PC.
Printers (and displays) are output devices that are located outside the PC. A cable
modem is an Internet communication device that is outside of the PC. Know the
internal components of a PC!
2. Answer: C. The hard drive stores data over the long term. The hard drive stores the
OS and data in a nonvolatile fashion, meaning it won’t be erased when the computer
is turned off. The CPU calculates data and sends it to RAM for temporary storage; the
RAM (which is volatile) is cleared when the computer is turned off. The video card
stores temporary video data within its onboard memory, but this, like RAM, is volatile
and is cleared when the computer is turned off.
3. Answer: C. 1/8" TRS jacks (also known as mini-jacks) are the most common for
speaker connections. Speakers normally plug into a sound card or motherboard.
Parallel ports are older connectors normally used for printers or scanners. DVI
(Digital Visual Interface) is a type of video port. The larger 1/4" TRS connections
are for instrument cables or full-size stereo connections.
4. Answer: B. PCI Express (PCIe) slots accept x1, x4, and x16 cards (pronounced “by
sixteen”). PCIe is by far the most common expansion slot for video cards (which are
usually x16). PCI is an older expansion bus that can accept video cards but, unlike
PCIe, they have no particular designation. AGP works with video cards, but the cards
are normally numbered as 1x, 2x, 4x, and 8x (pronounced “eight x”). PCI-X is used
mostly in servers, for example, with network adapters.
5. Answer: B. The POST (Power-On Self-Test) is part of the Basic Input Output System
(BIOS). It runs a self-check of the computer system during boot and stores many of
the parameters of the components within the CMOS. EEPROM is a type of ROM chip
on which the BIOS might reside. BIOS is known as firmware.
6. Answer: C. Without the thermal compound applied, the processor might overheat after
a few hours. If the CPU is not locked down, or is not properly seated, the PC will simply fail to boot. If the CPU is not compatible with the motherboard, either it will not fit
the socket or the PC will not boot.
7. Answer: A. Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) is most commonly the type of technology
that a flat-panel monitor uses, though there is also light-emitting diode (LED)-backlit
LCD, Plasma, and Organic LED (OLED). Cathode ray tube (CRT) is an older type of
tube technology resulting in a much bulkier monitor. RGB simply stands for red,
green, blue (the three primary colors of a CRT monitor). DVI is short for Digital Visual
Interface, a port you would find on a video card.
8. Answers: A and D. The CPU and memory need to be installed properly for the POST
to run (and to pass). The hard drive and CD-ROM might or might not be installed
properly, but they are not necessary for the POST to complete. If the power supply is
defective, the system will simply not boot and will not even get to the POST stage.
30
Chapter 2
9. Answer: C. PCIe (PCI Express) uses serial lanes to send and receive data. That means
one bit at a time per lane. PCI, PCI-X, and IDE are parallel technologies, which means
8 bits at a time or multiples of 8. IDE stands for Integrated Device Electronics, the
predecessor to SATA hard drive technology.
10. Answers: A and B. Intel’s Core i5 and AMD’s Phenom II are both 64-bit CPUs. The
Pentium IV is an older 32-bit CPU. x64 is the name given to 64-bit processor technology but is not an actual CPU.
11. Answer: C. LGA (Land Grid Array) is the type of socket that uses “lands” to connect
the socket to the CPU. PGA sockets have pinholes that make for connectivity to the
CPU’s copper pins. The chipset is the combination of the northbridge and southbridge
on the motherboard. LGA sockets are often a brass alloy or have gold contacts, and
although copper might be a possibility for some sockets, it doesn’t fit into the description of “lands” in the question. LGA is the best answer.
12. Answer: A. Hold RAM by the edges to avoid contact with the pins, chips, and circuitry.
Touching the front and back is not advised because it will require touching the chips
on the RAM module. Tools are not needed, and if they are used, metallic could be
damaging to the module. Plastic tweezers are used to remove screws that fell into
tough-to-reach places in the case. The IC puller is a tool that removes older integrated
circuits and is not used often today.
13. Answer: B. The UPS is the only item listed that protects the computer from power
outages like blackouts and brownouts. A multimeter is used to test AC outlets and
individual wires inside the computer. FedEx is a shipping company, not a computer
acronym. A surge protector (or surge suppressor) is used to protect computer equipment from surges and spikes in power, but cannot protect against power outages.
14. Answer: C. ATX 12V 2.0 (and higher) combined the 20-pin and 4-pin connectors used
in ATX 12V 1.3 into one 24-pin connector. ATX is simply the name of the form factor;
there are many types of ATX. There is no ATX 5V. Although ATX sends 12-volt and
5-volt signals, it is known as ATX 12v.
15. Answer: D. SATA revision 3.0 can transfer a maximum of 6.0 Gb/s (6 gigabits per
second, note the lowercase b). This allows a peak throughput of 600 MB/s (600
megabytes per second, note the uppercase B). 1.5 Gb/s is the data transfer rate
of SATA revision 1.0. It’s maximum throughput is 150 MB/s. 3.0 Gb/s is the data
transfer rate of SATA revision 2.0. It has a peak throughput of 300 MB/s.
16. Answer: A. The X in CD technology is equal to 150 KB/s. A 1X drive can read or write
150 KB/s, a 2X drive can read or write 300 KB/s, and so on. A typical speed for today’s
CD-ROM drives is 48X. This comes to 7.2 MB/s total. 1.32 MB/s is the 1X speed of a
DVD. 133 MB/s is the maximum data transfer rate of an Ultra ATA-7 connection (IDE
hard drive). 4.5 MB/s is the 1X speed of a Blu-ray disc.
17. Answer: D. The TV tuner card accepts television broadcast programming. It will usually have cable-in and antenna-in RG-6 ports. FireWire cards allow a computer to
connect to FireWire devices such as hard drives and audio devices. Video capture
cards are used to record video from a camera, VCR, or close-circuit television system.
A network interface cards is also known as a NIC, or network adapter; it makes the
connection to the Ethernet network for a PC.
220-801 Practice Exam A
31
18. Answer: A. A home theater PC (HTPC) requires a High-Definition Multimedia Interface
(HDMI) output on the video card so that it can connect properly to the HDMI port on a
television. Sure, it’s possible to connect via DVI with an adapter, or even by way of
VGA, but the whole point of a true HTPC is that it has the best to offer when it comes
to connections. Since most theater system TVs will have one or more HDMI inputs,
the HTPC should have at least one HDMI output. Gaming PCs will usually have DVI
connections to connect to desktop monitors, though they might have HDMI as well.
Virtualization workstations don’t rely on video cards as much as the other systems
listed in the answers, so HDMI is not necessary. CAD/CAM workstations require a
high-end video card, but the DVI (or multiple DVI) output is usually satisfactory.
19. Answer: B. The SATA data connector has 7 pins. The SATA power connector has 15
pins. ATX 12V 2.0 and higher power connections have 24 pins. 127 is the maximum
amount of USB devices you can connect to the computer.
20. Answer: A. A printer would most likely be connected to a Universal Serial Bus (USB)
port. LPT is an older parallel port that is less commonly used. Though there are
FireWire printers, they are much rarer than USB printers. eSATA is normally used for
external hard drives or external optical drives. Printers can also connect to the network
directly if they have an RJ45 port.
21. Answer: A. Memory latency or CAS (Column Address Strobe) latency happens when
a memory controller tries to access data from a memory module. It is a slight delay
(usually measured in nanoseconds) while the memory module responds to the memory controller. The memory controller (also known as the northbridge) has a specific
speed at which it operates. If the CPU asks the chip for too much information at once,
this might increase latency time while the memory controller works.
22. Answer: C. Because RAID 5 uses striping with parity, a third disk is needed. You can
have more than three disks as well. Two disks are enough for plain RAID 0 striping
and is the exact number you need for RAID 1 mirroring. Four disks are required by
RAID 6 and RAID 10.
23. Answer: D. If the time and date keep resetting to a time such as January 1, 2000,
chances are that the lithium battery needs to be replaced. Updating the BIOS will allow
the BIOS to “see” new devices and communicate with them better but will not fix the
time issue. Updating windows will not fix this problem but should be done often to
keep the computer secure. Other time synchronization problems can be fixed in the
clock settings within the Notification Area. Windows client computers should be configured to synchronize to a time server.
24. Answer: B. The PCI Express (PCIe) x16 expansion slot is used primarily for video.
Modems, network interface cards (NICs), and sound cards will connect to either PCIe
x1 or plain PCI slots.
25. Answer: D. A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) protects computer equipment
against surges, spikes, sags, brownouts, and blackouts. Power strips, unlike surge
protectors, do not protect against surges. Power inverters are effectively AC to DC
converters; the power supply acts as a power inverter.
32
Chapter 2
26. Answer: B. The amount of shared video memory is subtracted from the total RAM.
So, if a computer has 1024 MB RAM (1 GB) and the video controller is sharing 128
MB of that RAM, the remainder for the rest of the system is 896 MB. This is common
with motherboards that have integrated video cards and laptops.
27. Answer: D. RAM is one of the big four (RAM, CPU, motherboard, and video) that can
cause the POST to fail. Different RAM errors can cause the POST to make a different
series of beeps. Consult your motherboard documentation for more information about
the different beep codes. The sound card does not have an effect on the POST. If the
power supply has a problem, either the computer will not boot at all (and not even
enter POST) or it will have intermittent problems—for example, shutting down unpredictably. Hard drive problems will result in a variety of errors. While the POST will
complete in these cases, the operating system will not boot.
28. Answer: A. The CPU must be installed correctly for the POST to begin. After the POST
is successful, the boot loader then runs (for example, BOOTMGR for Windows 7/Vista
or NTLDR for Windows XP), and then the operating system comes up. That is, if there
are no boot loader errors. The CPU is crucial; if installed incorrectly, the system will
not POST, making it more difficult to troubleshoot.
29. Answer: D. The adapter should use the ID 7. Both ends of the SCSI chain need to be
terminated (some SCSI cards and devices auto-terminate). Each disk needs a unique
ID. The particular ID you give the disks doesn’t matter.
30. Answer: C. RAM is much faster than the rest of the options listed. For instance, if you
have PC3-8500 DDR3 RAM (aka DDR3-800), your peak transfer rate is 6,400 MB/s.
The rest of the following devices are listed in descending order: hard drive (typically
133, 150, 300, or 600 MB/s), USB (typically 60 or 480 MB/s), and CD-ROM (typically
7.5 MB/s).
31. Answer: C. Home theater PCs (HTPCs) commonly use the microATX form factor. The
Mini-ITX form factor is also used for HTPCs. Less commonly used is the ATX form
factor due to its large size. Pico-ITX and Nano-ITX are used in handheld computers
and are much smaller.
32. Answer: B. The most common CPU cooling method is the heat sink and fan combination. The heat sink helps the heat to disperse away from the CPU, while the fan blows
the heat down and through the fins; it is helped in escaping the case by the power
supply exhaust fan and possibly additional case fans. Heat sink and fan combinations
are known as active cooling. The heat sink by itself is called passive cooling. It
requires no power but is not enough to cool most desktop PCs. Liquid cooling is a
more extreme method used in custom PCs such as gaming computers and possibly
audio/video workstations and virtualization machines. It uses a coolant similar to the
way an automobile does. Liquid nitrogen would be plain foolish and is not a legitimate
answer.
33. Answers: B and D. A rewritable DVD-RW and a writeable Blu-ray (BD-R) meet the
requirements. DVDs can store between 4.7 and 17 GB of data. Standard Blu-ray discs
can store between 25 and 50 GB of data. No CD (without compression) can store
more than 1 GB of data; typical CD storage is 750 MB.
220-801 Practice Exam A
33
34. Answer: D. CNR is not a video port. It stands for Communications and Networking
Riser; an adapter card slot used by audio and telephony equipment. DVI is the Digital
Visual Interface, the most common output on PC video cards. HDMI is the HighDefinition Multimedia Interface, common in home theaters and HTPCs. DisplayPort is
another video standard used by some PCs. It is designed to replace DVI but is still not
as common as DVI as of 2012.
35. Answers: A and D. A computer-aided design/computer-aided manufacturing workstation requires a powerful CPU, high-end video, and as much RAM as possible. The CPU
is especially important to run design applications such as AutoCAD. HDMI output is
necessary on HTPCs. Surround sound is needed on HTPCs and perhaps gaming computers as well.
36. Answer: B. You should connect the hard drive to a SATA port. SATA revision 3.0 offers
6.0 Gb/s data transfer resulting in a maximum throughput of 600 MB/s. USB 3.0
comes in a close second at 5.0 Gbps (480 MB/s). However, SATA will usually still be
the preferred choice because it has less latency and is internal to the computer. IDE is
the predecessor to SATA and has a maximum transfer rate of 133 MB/s. As of early
2012, eSATA is limited to 3.0 Gb/s (300 MB/s). Unless you specifically are required to
use an external drive, internal SATA is the way to go.
37. Answer: C. An x16 card is a PCI Express card. It requires one or two PCIe 6-pin
power connectors (or an 8-pin connector). Molex 4-pin power connectors are used by
IDE hard drives. Mini 4-pin connectors (also known as Berg) are used by floppy
drives. P1 24-pin power is the main power connection that the motherboard gets from
the power supply.
38. Answer: C. Alternating current (AC) is the standard in the United States; your computer should be connected to a 120V AC outlet. Other countries might use 230V AC connections. Direct current (DC) works inside the computer. The power supply converts
between the two! In this respect, the power supply is an inverter. Neutral current and
draw current are not terms you will see on the CompTIA exams.
39. Answers: A, D, and E. Speakers, printers, and displays are output devices. A speaker
outputs sound. A printer outputs paper with text and graphics. A display (or monitor)
displays video. Keyboards, mice, and styli are input devices. A stylus is used on
mobile devices that incorporate touchscreens. It is a pen-like device used to manipulate the display, similar to a mouse. However, many mobile devices now allow a
person to simply use a finger and tap on the screen.
40. Answer: B. You should install an antiglare filter on the monitor. By reducing glare, a
person’s eyes react better to the display and so the customer can use the computer
longer without getting a headache. Raising the resolution would make the problem
worse. Lowering the resolution might help, but it is only a temporary solution, and not
a good one at that. Dimming the lights will decrease glare, but studies prove that a
person will develop eye strain and headaches quicker when reading a backlit screen in
a dark room. Video Graphics Array (VGA) is not an upgrade from DVI—quite the
reverse. Besides, changing the video connector probably won’t help the problem. The
only ways to fix the problem are to: install an antiglare filter; upgrade the monitor to a
bigger size and consider positioning it differently, for example, farther away; and recommending that the user take breaks every 30 minutes or so.
34
Chapter 2
Domain 2.0: Networking
41. Answer: B. The b in 1000 Mbps stands for bits. 1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per
second or 1 gigabit per second. Remember that the lowercase b is used to indicate
bits when measuring network data transfer rates.
42. Answer: B. There are 32 bits in a standard IPv4 address. In this case, the binary
equivalent of the IP numbers would be 192 = 11000000, 168 = 10101000, 1 =
00000001, and 1 = 00000001. If you count all the binary bits, you end up with 32 in
total. Therefore, the address is a 32-bit dotted-decimal address. 64-bit is a term used
with newer x64 CPUs. 128-bit is used by IPv6. 40-bit is a commonly used amount of
bits in older encryption techniques.
43. Answer: D. Plenum-rated cable needs to be installed wherever a sprinkler system
cannot get to. This includes ceilings, walls, and plenums (airways). The reason for
this is that the PVCs in regular cable give off toxic fumes in the case of a fire.
Plenum-rated cable has a protective covering which burns slower and gives off
less toxic fumes.
44. Answer: B. 802.11n runs at a maximum of 600 Mbps. 802.11b runs at a maximum
of 11 Mbps. USB 2.0 Hi-Speed runs at a maximum of 480 Mbps. 802.11g has a
maximum data transfer rate (DTR) of 54 Mbps.
45. Answer: C. A switch connects computers together in a local area network (LAN). In
SOHO networks, it is usually a part of a multifunction network device. In larger networks, the switch is an individual device that has 12, 24, 48, or 96 ports. A modem
connects a PC to the Internet by way of a dial-up connection over a plain old telephone
service (POTS) line. A router connects one network to another. Though a SOHO multifunction device is often referred to as a router, it’s not the router portion of that device
that connects the computers together in the LAN. A firewall protects all the computers
on the LAN from intrusion.
46. Answer: B. 192.168.1.1 is a private Class C address and therefore should have
the subnet mask 255.255.255.0, the standard default subnet mask for Class C.
255.255.0.0 is the Class B default subnet mask. 255.0.0.0 is the Class A default
subnet mask. 255.255.255.255 is the broadcast address for IP. It is not usable
as a subnet mask for typical computers on the LAN.
47. Answer: C. The minimum cable needed for 1000BASE-T networks is Category 5e.
Of course, Cat 6 would also work, but it is not the minimum of the listed answers.
1000BASE-T specifies the speed of the network (1000 Mbps), the type (baseband,
single shared channel), and the cable to be used (T = twisted pair). Cat 3 is suitable
for 10 Mbps networks. Cat 5 is suitable for 100 Mbps networks.
48. Answer: C. The only public address (needed to get onto the Internet) is 129.52.50.13.
All the others are private IPs, meant to be behind a firewall. 127.0.0.1 is the local loopback IP address. 192.168.1.1 is a common Class C private IP address used by SOHO
networking devices. 10.52.50.13 is a Class A private address.
49. Answer: C. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port 80 (by default). Port 21
is used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). Port 25 is used by the Simple Mail Transfer
Protocol (SMTP). Port 110 is used by the POP3 e-mail protocol.
220-801 Practice Exam A
35
50. Answer: A. The star topology is the most common. This is when computers are
cabled to a central connecting device such as a switch. Bus and ring don’t use a
central connecting device and are outdated. Mesh is when each computer connects
to each other. This is an expensive and complicated configuration. What is more likely
is that you will encounter a partial mesh, where a few of the computers on the network
have secondary connections to other systems.
51. Answer: B. Full duplex means that a network interface card (NIC) can transmit and
receive data at the same time. A 100 Mbps network running in full-duplex mode
can transfer 200 Mbps, but this is because transmitting and receiving have been
combined, not because speed has been increased. A NIC that can transmit or receive
data, but not at the same time, is transmitting in half-duplex mode.
52. Answers: A, B, and D. Twisted pair, coaxial, and Category 5e cable are all examples
of network cables with a copper medium. They all send electricity over copper wire.
Multi-mode is a type of fiber-optic cable; it uses light to send data over a glass or
plastic medium. Twisted pair is the most common type of cabling used in today’s
networks.
53. Answers: B and C. Shielded twisted pair (STP) and fiber optic can protect from EMI.
However, unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cannot. Unless otherwise mentioned, Category
6 cable is UTP. STP is shielded twisted-pair. Unlike UTP (unshielded twisted-pair), it
provides an aluminum shield that protects from EMI. UTP and coaxial have no such
protection. Fiber optic uses a different medium altogether, transmitting light rather
than electricity; therefore, EMI cannot affect fiber-optic cables.
54. Answer: B. The RJ45 (Registered Jack) is the standard connector for network patch
cables. RJ11 is for modem and other telephony connections. USB is for peripherals
(such as a mouse or printer), and parallel is for printers and scanners, but it’s not
used nearly as much as USB is.
55. Answers: A and B. To get on the Internet, the DNS server is required so that the computer can get the resolved IP addresses from the domain names that are typed in. The
gateway address is necessary to get outside the network. E-mail server information is
not necessary if the person is just looking to get onto the Internet. A DHCP server
address is not necessary either. However, it is an easier method. The beauty of DHCP
is that you don’t need to know the DHCP server’s address to acquire an IP address.
The domain name for your network is normally not needed either. That will only be
necessary if you want to add the computer to the organization’s domain.
56. Answer: C. The DNS (Domain Name System) protocol translates a computer name
into an IP address. Whenever you type a web server name such as www.davidlprowse.com a DNS server translates that name to its corresponding IP address. The
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is used to send data from one computer to
another utilizing a guaranteed delivery system. User Datagram Protocol (UDP), on the
other hand, sends data in a streaming format, without the need for guaranteed delivery. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows you to send files between computers over
the Internet.
36
Chapter 2
57. Answer: B. Cellular WAN uses a phone or other mobile device to send data over
standard cellular connections. By themselves, the other options don’t offer a direct
connection to the Internet. Infrared is used more often for very short distance connections, allowing data to be “beamed” from one device to another. Bluetooth is also for
short distances, but not as short as infrared. Bluetooth headsets are commonly used
with smartphones. 802.11n is a Wi-Fi technology for the LAN.
58. Answer: D. 192.168.0.1 is the only suitable gateway address. Remember that the
gateway address must be on the same network as the computer. In this case the
network is 192.168.0, as defined by the 255.255.255.0 subnet mask. As to the
other answers: 192.168.1.100 is on the 192.168.1.0 network; so is 192.168.1.1.
192.168.10.1 is on the 192.168.10.0 network. Don’t forget that a zero at the end
of an IP address denotes the network number.
59. Answer: A. The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the name of the wireless network. This
is the name you look for when locating a wireless network. WPA stands for Wi-Fi
Protected Access, a secure connectivity protocol for wireless networks. The demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area between the LAN and the Internet that often houses web,
e-mail, and FTP servers. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a service
that assigns IP addresses automatically to computers and other devices.
60. Answer: A. The LC connector is used by fiber-optic cabling. Other fiber connectors
include SC and ST. RJ45 is the connector used by twisted-pair networks. RG-6 is the
connector used by cable modems and TV set-top-boxes. RJ11 is the standard phone
line connector.
61. Answer: C. The Domain Name System (DNS) protocol uses port 53 by default. FTP
uses port 21. SMTP uses port 25. HTTP uses port 80.
62. Answers: B, C, and E. WiMAX, satellite, and cellular are examples of wireless Internet
services. Cable Internet, DSL, and FIOS all use wired connections.
63. Answer: B. A wide area network (WAN) is a network in which two or more LANs are
connected together over a large geographic distance—for example, between two
cities. The WAN requires connections to be provided by a telecommunications or data
communications company. A personal area network (PAN) is a small network made up
of short-distance devices such as Bluetooth. WLAN stands for wireless local area network. This is the name that the IEEE uses for their 802.11 standards. That is because
the term Wi-Fi, though widely used, is copyrighted. A MAN is a metropolitan (or
municipal) area network; it can connect two or more LANs together but does it in a
small city-based area.
64. Answer: C. A wireless access point (WAP) connects wireless clients to the wireless
network. This device also gives the wireless network its name or SSID. WPA is a
secure wireless connectivity protocol. A WAN is a wide area network; it connects LANs
together. VoIP stands for Voice over IP. This is a technology that allows phone calls to
be made over data networking infrastructures.
65. Answer: A. Network-attached storage (NAS) devices store data for network use. They
connect directly to the network. Network address translation (NAT) is used on routers
to take a group of computers on a private LAN and connect them to the Internet by
using a single public IP. NAC stands for network access control, a group of technologies designed to allow or deny access by authenticating users. NaaS stands for
220-801 Practice Exam A
37
Network as a Service, a cloud-based technology where organizations can offload their
network infrastructure to a third-party. Threw in a tougher one there—have to keep
you on your toes!
66. Answer: C. Use an RJ45 crimper tool to permanently attach RJ45 plugs to the end of
a cable. A tone and probe kit is used to locate individual phone lines but can also be
used with network lines. The better tool, however, for testing and locating is a continuity cable tester. A multimeter is great for testing AC outlets and for testing wires inside
a computer but is not often used in networking applications.
67. Answer: D. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389. This protocol allows
one computer to take control of another remote system. Port 80 is used by HTTP. Port
110 is used by POP3. Port 443 is used by HTTP Secure or HTTPS, a protocol used
during secure web sessions.
Domain 3.0: Laptops
68. Answer: C. SODIMM (small outline dual in-line memory module) is the most commonly used RAM by laptops. Regular DIMMs are normally used in desktop computers; some of those types include SDRAM, DDR, and RIMMs or RDRAM.
69. Answer: A. The Fn (Function) key is used for a variety of things, including toggling
between the built-in LCD screen and an external monitor/TV. The Fn key could be a
different color (for example, blue) and offers a sort of “second” usage for keys on the
laptop. Ctrl may also have secondary functions but is otherwise used the same as on a
PC’s keyboard. Alt and Shift work in the same manner as they do on a PC.
70. Answer: B. The liquid crystal display (LCD) is the most common type on a laptop. You
might also see LED-backlit LCDs. Cathode ray tubes (CRTs) were the predecessor to
flat-panel monitors. They were rarely used in laptops and only way back in the 1980s.
CRT monitors were more commonly used with PCs. Organic LED screens are not popular on laptops as of the writing of this book. VGA is not a type of display; it is a video
standard that uses a 15-pin connector. It is the predecessor to today’s standards such
as DVI and HDMI.
71. Answers: B and C. Input/output devices such as modems and NICs (network interface
cards/network adapters) are the most commonly installed Type II devices. Hard drives
would normally be installed internally but could also be connected to USB and
FireWire ports. RAM is installed internally.
72. Answer: A. Although Ni-Cd and NiMH batteries have been used on laptops, the most
commonly used type as of the writing of this book is lithium-ion. Some laptops and
especially other smaller mobile devices use lithium-ion polymer-based batteries. Fuel
cells are used in vehicles, vending machines, and highway road signs, but not laptops.
73. Answer: C. Increasing the amount of RAM on a laptop or a PC improves general system performance. To improve video performance, you would need to either upgrade
the video card or lower some of the video settings. The fact that the laptop uses
shared video doesn’t come into play. The shared video will use a finite amount of RAM
on the laptop. Adding more RAM won’t change the amount of shared video used.
However, some laptops allow you to increase this setting within the BIOS. This, in
conjunction with adding RAM, might improve video performance as well.
38
Chapter 2
74. Answer: C. Sometimes, the volume wheel on older laptops can be hard to find and
could be in the lowest position (which might still make a slight audible noise). On
newer laptops the volume is usually controlled by pressing the Fn key and the volume
up or volume down key simultaneously. Installing a new sound driver isn’t necessary
yet. Always check the physical volume first, and then check if the volume is low or the
sound is muted in Windows. Tapping the speakers is an interesting idea, but it has no
place in this discussion. If a speaker is loose, it will often make scratchy noises; however, speakers rarely become loose on today’s laptops. Reinstalling Windows is the
last thing you want to do. Check the simple solutions when troubleshooting problems
such as no audio or video.
75. Answers: A and C. ExpressCard and PC Card (also known as PCMCIA) are expansion
busses used on laptops. SODIMM is the type of RAM in a laptop. AGP is the
Accelerated Graphics Port; it is the predecessor of the PCIe x16 video expansion bus.
Mini-PCIe is another expansion bus that is used by laptops, but it is internal and is
more difficult to install cards to then its PC version.
76. Answer: A. Laptops have airflow underneath them; if the unit is not on a flat surface,
that airflow will be reduced or stopped altogether, leading to component damage. The
freezer is not a good idea because condensation could build up inside the unit. A fan
won’t do much good unless the laptop is on a flat surface, and although it is plausible
to keep the laptop turned off, it negates the reason for using the laptop.
77. Answers: A and B. Make sure to purchase an AC adapter that is a true replacement.
This can be found on the laptop manufacturer’s website. When you enter your model
number, the website will tell you everything you need to know about current, voltage,
and connector type. The battery and AC adapter do need to work in conjunction with
each other; because of this, they both need to be compatible with the laptop. The AC
adapter inverter is simply an inverter; it converts power from AC to DC. However, there
is another inverter in the laptop; it powers the display. This question is not referring to
that, but if you are ever troubleshooting a display, the inverter type is very important.
78. Answer: B. The Screen key (also known as the display toggle) is one of the keys available when you use the function (Fn) key. This enables you to switch between the laptop display and an external display (or if you wanted to use both). If the display toggle
doesn’t work, then try another external monitor. No other key combinations perform
this task.
Domain 4.0: Printers
79. Answer: B. Laser printers use toner cartridges. Inkjet printers use ink cartridges.
Dot matrix printers use a ribbon. Thermal printers use specially coated paper that is
heated.
80. Answer: C. Laser printers use large amounts of electricity, which in turn could quickly
drain the battery of the UPS. They should be plugged into their own individual power
strips.
81. Answer: C. Printers might connect via RJ45, USB, or Centronics. However, PCIe is an
internal expansion bus that printers do not use. USB is the most common for local
printers, meaning ones that connect directly to the computer. Centronics is an older
220-801 Practice Exam A
39
printer connector; a printer cable would have a centronics connector on the printer
side and a 25-pin parallel connector for the computer side (which would connect to
the LPT port). If the printer is network-ready, it will have a built-in RJ45 port.
82. Answer: B. Print a test page after installation. If the test page prints properly, it should
be unnecessary to print a page in Word. Restarting the spooler is not needed if the
printer has just been installed. The spooler should already be running. If that has
failed, that would be a separate troubleshooting scenario. Separator pages are not
necessary; they are optional and can be configured in the Printer Properties window.
83. Answer: A. When printing “duplex,” it means that you are printing on both sides of the
paper (if the printer has that capability). Some laser printers can do this, but it creates
a longer total paper path, which leads to more frequent paper jams. Collation is when
documents are printed in a standard order, usually numerically. Full-duplex in networking is when information can be sent and received simultaneously. A printer can have a
full-duplex connection to the network, but this question is referring to printing in
duplex. Printing to file is a process that can be performed by Windows. Instead of
selecting a physical printer when printing a document, Windows prints to a special file
and saves that file to a location of your choice with a .prn extension.
84. Answer: B. Regular paper can be used on all the listed printers except for thermal
printers, which use specially coated paper that is heated to create the image. A dot
matrix might use tractor feed paper, but that is standard for many dot matrix printers;
it is also still considered regular paper. A laser printer or dot matrix printer might use
two-part paper, but two-part paper isn’t necessary for laser printers or dot matrix
printers to operate; thermal printers won’t work unless you use specially coated paper.
Inkjet printers normally use standard copy paper for printing.
85. Answer: D. Heat is the number-one enemy to a thermal printer. If a thermal printer or
the thermal paper is kept in a location where the temperature is too high, it could
cause failure of the printer and damage to the paper. Excessive moisture can cause
rubber rollers and separation pads to fail over time. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) is
always a foe, but only if you are working inside the printer. Dirt can clog up the works
over time in any device. But by far, heat is what you have to watch for with thermal
printers.
86. Answer: D. Of the listed answers, the fusing stage happens last. It is typically considered to be the last stage of the laser printing process before paper exits the printer.
The laser printing process includes the following steps in order: cleaning, charging,
writing (or exposing), developing, transferring, and fusing.
87. Answer: C. The dot matrix is a type of impact printer. It uses a printhead to physically
impact the ribbon and transfer ink to the paper. Laser printers apply toner to paper
through varying voltages. Inkjet printers spray ink from a cartridge onto the paper.
Thermal paper is specially coated and forms text when it is heated properly.
88. Answer: C. After you install the driver for the printer locally, you can then take control
of it by going to the properties of the printer and accessing the Ports tab. Then click
the Add Port button and select the Standard TCP/IP Port option. You will have to know
the IP address of the printer or the computer that the printer is connected to.
40
Chapter 2
89. Answer: B. After installing a printer, it is important to calibrate it for color and orientation, especially if you are installing a color laser printer or an inkjet printer. These calibration tools are usually built in to the printer’s software and can be accessed from
Windows. Or, you can access them from the printer’s display. If a toner cartridge
needs to be cleaned, it probably has a leak and should be replaced. The fusing assembly needs to be changed only when it fails. Many printers will give you an indication of
when the fuser is at 20% life and needs to be replaced soon. If the fuser fails, the
toner will fail to stick to the paper. The primary corona wire can be cleaned; it is near
the drum. This can help with other types of print quality problems such as lines and
smearing.
Domain 5.0: Operational Procedures
90. Answer: C. Use an antistatic wrist strap when working inside a computer to protect
against electrostatic discharge (ESD). Other ways to prevent ESD include using an
antistatic mat, touching the chassis of the case, and using antistatic bags.
91. Answer: A. While on the job site, limit phone calls to emergencies or if your employer
calls you about another customer. Taking a personal phone call while working at a
client site is considered unprofessional. Be professional when you’re on the job!
92. Answer: C. If it is not life-threatening, consult the material safety data sheet (MSDS)
to determine the proper first aid (if any). If it is an emergency, call 911. If you cannot
get access to the MSDS, contact the facilities department of your organization or try
your building supervisor. Never ignore an unknown chemical. Take action before it
becomes a problem.
93. Answer: C. If there is something that is immediately hazardous to you, you must leave
the area right away. Afterward, you can call 911, the building supervisor, or your manager, depending on the severity of the situation. Computers and all other technology
come second after human life. Remember that. Plus, if backup systems have been
implemented properly, you have nothing to lose if a computer is damaged.
94. Answer: C. You need to explain to the customer that there is a safer way. Cable management is very important when it comes to the safety of employees. Trip hazards
such as incorrectly routed network cables can have devastating effects on a person.
Never ignore the problem. It is not your place to notify the building supervisor or
administrator because this is not your company. However, you might opt to tell your
manager about the event. A wise consulting company wants to protect its employees
and should want to know of potential hazards at customer locations.
95. Answer: C. Every municipality has its own way of recycling batteries. But you should
definitely recycle them and not throw them in the trash. Manufacturers probably won’t
be interested in batteries that won’t charge any longer. It is more likely that you will
recycle them. Be safe—never open a battery!
96. Answer: C. Asking a customer if employees always cause issues is just plain rude;
this type of communication should be avoided. However, the other three statements
are positive and helpful, or at least consoling. Stay away from being judgmental of the
customer.
220-801 Practice Exam A
41
97. Answer: C. Ask if the server problem is related to the PC problem. Try to understand
the customer before making any judgments about the problems. Make sure it isn’t a
bigger problem than you realize before making repairs that could be futile. If you find
out that it is a separate problem, ask the customer which issue she would like to
resolve first.
98. Answer: B. Chain of custody is the chronological paper trail of evidence that may or
may not be used in court. First response describes the steps a person takes when first
responding to a computer with prohibited content or illegal activity: it includes identifying what exactly is happening, reporting through proper channels, and preserving
data and devices. Setting and meeting expectations deals with customer service; it is
something you should do before you start a job for a customer. Data (and device)
preservation is a part of first response; a person who first arrives at the scene of a
computer incident will be in charge of preserving data and devices in their current
state.
99. Answer: B. Don’t attempt to move heavy objects by yourself. Ask someone to help
you. Removing jewelry, disconnecting power, and bending at the knees and lifting with
the legs are all good safety measures.
100. Answer: C. One example of active communication is clarifying a customer’s statements. For instance, if you are unsure exactly what the customer wants, always
clarify the information or repeat it back to the customer so that everyone is on the
same page. Never declare that the customer doesn’t know what he is doing. This
is a surefire way to lose the customer and possibly your job. It should go without
saying, mouthing off could be the worst thing you could do. Save that for the drive
home on the freeway—I’m just kidding! Be professional at all times when working
with customers.
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3
CHAPTER THREE
220-801 Practice
Exam B
Now let’s kick it up a notch. This second 220-801 exam could
be considered an intermediate practice test. I’ll be mixing in
some more difficult questions this time. Unlike the first exam,
this one is freestyle, meaning the questions are randomized.
You can expect questions from any of the domains, in any
order.
Again, the goal here is to make sure you understand all of the
concepts before moving on to the next test. If you didn’t
already, I suggest taking a break between exams. If you just
completed the first exam, give yourself a half-hour or so before
you begin this one. If you didn’t score 90% or higher on Exam
A, go back and study; then retake Exam A until you pass with
90% or higher.
Write down your answers and check them against the answer
key that immediately follows the exam. After the answer key,
you will find explanations for all of the answers. Good luck!
44
Chapter 3
✓
Quick Check
Practice Questions
1. Which of the following IP addresses would a technician see if a
computer is connected to a multifunction network device and is
attempting to obtain an IP address automatically but is not
receiving an IP address from the DHCP server?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
192.168.0.10
169.254.10.10
192.168.10.10
Heat sinks
Memory modules
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 65
127
63
15
255
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 65
A driver is not properly installed for this device.
The device is disabled.
The driver is not digitally signed.
The device driver needs to be upgraded.
5. Beep codes are generated by which of the following?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 65
CPUs
4. What does a yellow exclamation point next to a device in the
Device Manager indicate?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Case fans
3. What is the total number of devices that can be daisy-chained to
an IEEE 1394 port?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 65
172.16.10.10
2. 80mm and 120mm are common sizes for what type of PC
component?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
CMOS
RTC
POST
Windows
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 65
220-801 Practice Exam B
45
✓
Quick Check
6. How should you apply spray cleaner to a monitor?
❍
❍
A. Spray the cleaner directly on the monitor screen.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 65
B. Spray the cleaner on the top of the monitor and wipe
down.
❍ C. Spray evenly on the monitor.
❍ D. Spray the cleaner on a clean, lint-free cloth first.
7. Which bus slot provides the highest video performance?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
PCI
AGP
PCIe
An RJ11 jack
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 65
A USB connector
An RJ45 jack
An SCSI connector
9. You just turned off a printer to maintenance it. What should you
be careful of when removing the fuser?
❍
❍
❍
Detailed Answer: 65
SCSI
8. Which of the following indicates that a printer is network-ready?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 66
A. The fuser being hot
B. The fuser being wet
C. The fuser being fragile
❍ D. The fuser releasing toner
10. Where is the memory controller located in a Core 2 Duo system?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
On the CPU
Detailed Answer: 66
On memory
Within the chipset
Within the PCIe controller
11. Which of the following connectors is used for musical equipment?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
MIDI
HDMI
DVI
DisplayPort
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 66
46
Chapter 3
✓
Quick Check
12. Although not used as often as a Phillips screwdriver, this tool is
sometimes used to remove screws from the outside of a computer case or from within a laptop.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 66
Monkey wrench
Torx wrench
Channel lock
Pliers
13. What is the main advantage of selecting a 64-bit operating system
over a 32-bit operating system?
❍
A. The ability to use software-based data execution
prevention (DEP)
❍
❍
B. The ability to use unsigned drivers
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 66
C. The ability to access more than 4 GB of RAM
❍ D. The ability to run multiple 16-bit programs in separate
memory spaces
14. Moving your CPU’s speed beyond its normal operating range is
called _____________.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Overdriving
Overpowering
Overspeeding
DVI
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 66
COM1
LPT1
SCSI
16. What is the most important piece of information needed to
connect to a specific wireless network?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 66
Overclocking
15. Which port is typically known as a serial port?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Channel
MAC address
SSID
Administrator password
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 67
220-801 Practice Exam B
47
✓
Quick Check
17. Which password is used in the BIOS (CMOS) to prevent end users
from accessing the BIOS contents?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 67
Supervisor
User
Administrator
Local
18. Why would the display on a laptop get dimmer when the power
supply from the AC outlet is disconnected?
❍
A. The laptop cannot use full brightness when on battery
power.
❍
❍
B. Power management settings on the laptop.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 67
C. To operate properly, laptop displays require an
alternating current power source.
❍ D. Security settings on the laptop.
19. Which tool should always be used when working on the inside of
the computer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 67
Cordless drill
Antistatic strap
Multimeter
Screwdriver
20. What are advantages of using the Dynamic Host Configuration
Protocol (DHCP)? (Select the two best answers.)
❍
❍
A. IP addresses can be managed from a central location.
❍
C. The hosts file on the computer can be validated for
proper entries.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 67
B. The network speed can automatically adjust based on
the type of traffic being generated.
❍ D. Media access control addresses can be changed.
❍ E. Computers can automatically get new addressing
when moved to a different network segment.
21. On a laptop, which of the following would most likely be a
pointing device?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Serial mouse
PS/2 mouse
USB mouse
Touchpad
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 67
48
Chapter 3
✓
Quick Check
22. Which of the following storage technologies is used by traditional
hard disk drives?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Optical
Impact
Solid-state
Gaming PC
Detailed Answer: 68
AV workstation
HTPC
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 68
The separation tab
The developing rollers
The paper tray
The pickup rollers
25. Which of the following is the default port for HTTPS?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 63
Virtualization workstation
24. A client brings in a printer that is giving a paper-feed error. What
is the most likely cause?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 67
Magnetic
23. On which type of computer is RAM the most important?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
A. Port 25
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 68
B. Port 80
C. Port 143
❍ D. Port 443
26. What is the maximum distance at which a Class 2 Bluetooth
device can receive signals from a Bluetooth access point?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 68
100 meters
10 meters
5 meters
1 meter
27. Which of the following form factors does a VGA connector comply
with?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
8P8C
15-pin D shell
microATX
RG-6
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 68
220-801 Practice Exam B
49
✓
Quick Check
28. You and a co-worker are running network cables above the drop
ceiling. The co-worker accidentally touches a live AC power line
and is thrown off the ladder and onto the ground. He is dazed and
can’t stand. He is no longer near the AC power line. What should
you do first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 68
Cut the power at the breaker.
Move the co-worker farther down the hall.
Apply CPR.
Call 911.
29. A customer reports that an optical drive in a PC is no longer
responding. What question should you ask first?
❍
Quick Answer: 63
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 68
A. “What has changed since the optical drive worked
properly?”
❍ B. “Did you log in with your administrator account?”
❍ C. “What did you modify since the optical drive worked?”
❍ D. “Have you been to any inappropriate websites?”
Quick Answer: 63
30. Which device can store a maximum of 1.44 MB on a removable
disk?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 68
Floppy drive
CD-ROM
ROM
Compact Flash
Quick Answer: 63
31. What wireless networking standard operates at 5 GHz only?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 68
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n
Quick Answer: 63
32. What is the PC equivalent of FireWire?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
IEEE 1284
USB
IEEE 1394
ISA
Detailed Answer: 69
50
Chapter 3
✓
Quick Check
33. Which type of RAM has a peak transfer of 12,800 MB/s?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
DDR3-800
DDR3-1600
DDR2-800
Laser
Detailed Answer: 69
Inkjet
Thermal
CPU is beyond the recommended voltage range.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 69
Computer won’t boot.
BIOS reports low temperatures within the case.
Spyware is installed into the browser.
36. Which of the following cable types is not affected by EMI but
requires specialized tools to install?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 63
Impact
35. What is a possible symptom of a failing CPU?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 69
DDR2-1600
34. Which type of printer uses a print head, ribbon, and tractor feed?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 69
A. Cat 6
B. STP
C. Fiber optic
❍ D. Coaxial
37. A computer you are working on has a lot of dust inside it. How
should you clean this?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 69
Disassemble the power supply and remove the dust.
Use a vacuum to clean up the dust.
Use a surface dust cleaning solution.
Use compressed air to remove the dust.
38. Setting an administrator password in the BIOS accomplishes
which of the following?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Prevents a user from rearranging the boot order
Prevents a user from reading e-mail
Prevents a virus from infecting the MBR
Prevents an attacker from opening the case
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 70
220-801 Practice Exam B
51
✓
Quick Check
39. Which function is performed by the external power supply of a
laptop?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Stores power
Converts DC power to AC power
Converts AC power to DC power
UTP
Detailed Answer: 70
Fiber
Coaxial
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 70
24
15
8
35
42. When it comes to computer case form factors, which of the
following provides the most room for effective cooling?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 63
POTS line
41. How many pins would you see in a high-quality printhead on a dot
matrix printer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 70
Increases voltage
40. Which type of cable has only two twisted pairs?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 70
A. ATX
B. BTX
❍ C. ITX
❍ D. microATX
43. A co-worker is traveling to Europe and is bringing her computer.
She asks you what safety concerns there might be. What should
you tell her?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 70
The computer is not usable in other countries.
Check for a compatible power adapter for that country.
Use a line conditioner for the correct voltage.
Check the voltage selector on the power supply.
44. What is an LCD display’s contrast ratio defined as?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Power consumption
Display resolution and brightness
The darkest and lightest outputs
Power savings
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 70
52
Chapter 3
✓
Quick Check
45. Which of the following tools can protect you in the case of a
surge?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 71
Torx wrench
Antistatic strap
Voltmeter
Antistatic mat
46. What connector can have audio and video pass through it?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
VGA
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 71
RGB
DVI
HDMI
47. While you are working on a computer at a customer’s home, the
customer informs you that he needs to leave for about 10 minutes
and that his 8-year-old son can help you with anything if you need
it. What should you do?
❍
A. Tell the customer to get back home as soon as
possible.
❍
B. Tell the customer that you are not responsible for the
child.
❍
C. Tell the customer that an adult must be home while
you work.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 71
❍ D. Tell the customer that the child must be removed.
48. Which device limits network broadcasts, segments IP address
ranges, and interconnects different physical media?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 71
Switch
WAP
Firewall
Router
49. You just upgraded the CPU. Which of the following can make your
computer shut down automatically after a few minutes? (Select
the best answer.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Wrong CPU driver.
Wrong voltage to the CPU.
Incorrect CPU has been installed.
The CPU has overheated.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 71
220-801 Practice Exam B
53
✓
Quick Check
50. Which of the following power connections might be used by hard
drives? (Select the two best answers.)
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 71
❍ A. 8-pin
❍ B. 7-pin
❍ C. Molex
❍ D. 15-pin
❍ E. Berg
51. Which of the following is a valid IPv4 address for a network host?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
127.0.0.1
172.17.58.254
255.10.15.7
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 72
Unlit
Rapid, erratic flashing
Solid green
Solid yellow
53. You want to upgrade memory in your computer. Which of the following is user-replaceable memory in a PC?
❍
Detailed Answer: 71
169.254.0.0/16
52. If a lot of data is flowing through a network card, what should the
activity light look like?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 72
A. CMOS
❍ B. BIOS
❍ C. DRAM
❍ D. SRAM
❍ E. ROM
54. You are working on a very old printer, and it starts to smoke.
What should you do?
❍ A. Turn off the printer.
❍ B. Call 911.
❍ C. Unplug the printer.
❍ D. Call maintenance.
❍ E. Tell the printer it is bad to smoke.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 72
54
Chapter 3
✓
Quick Check
55. Which technology has the fastest data transfer rate?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
802.11a
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 72
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n
56. You are asked to fix a problem with a customer’s domain
controller that is outside the scope of your knowledge. What
action should you take?
❍
❍
A. Learn on the job by trying to fix the problem.
❍
C. Assure the customer that the problem will be fixed
very soon.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 72
B. Tell the customer that the problem should be reported
to another technician.
❍ D. Help the customer find the appropriate channels to fix
the problem.
57. Of the following, which IP address is private?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
11.58.254.169
172.31.1.1
192.169.0.1
Wavering
Detailed Answer: 73
Positive
Certain
127.0.0.1
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 73
::1
192.168.0.0
FE80::/10
60. Which of the following statements is correct concerning IPv6
addresses?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 63
Decisive
59. What is the local loopback IPv6 address?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 73
169.255.10.41
58. How should you remain in the face of adversity?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
A. They cannot be used with IPv4.
B. They are supported by all routers.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 73
220-801 Practice Exam B
55
✓
Quick Check
❍ C. They represent addressing using 128 bits.
❍ D. They require fiber-optic connections.
61. What operating CPU temperature is typical?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
60° Fahrenheit
Detailed Answer: 73
60° Celsius
72° Fahrenheit
72° Celsius
62. You need to install a printer that can be used to print payroll
checks on paper forms that have a carbon backing. Which printer
technology should you select?
❍
Quick Answer: 63
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 73
A. Impact
❍ B. Laser
❍ C. Inkjet
❍ D. Thermal
63. In current motherboards, which memory bus width can be
accomplished by using the dual channel technology?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
128-bit
256-bit
448-bit
Inspects traffic and accepts or declines transmission
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 73
Determines the best route to transmit data
Broadcasts data to all network devices
Broadcasts data to specific network devices
65. Which of the following tools could a person use to test an AC
outlet? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 73
64-bit
64. Which of the following best describes a hub?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Multimeter
PSU tester
Receptacle tester
Loopback plug
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 74
56
Chapter 3
✓
Quick Check
66. What maximum data transfer rate is IEEE 1394b capable of?
❍ A. 12 Mbps
❍ B. 400 Mbps
❍ C. 480 Mbps
❍ D. 800 Mbps
❍ E. 5 Gbps
67. Which of the following is not a configuration that can be made in
the BIOS?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
❍
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 74
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 74
Boot sequence
Temperature thresholds
Overclocking
Install drivers
E. Intrusion detection
68. Which of the following traits and port numbers are associated
with POP3?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Receives inbound e-mail on port 25
Sends outbound e-mail on port 110
Sends outbound e-mail on port 25
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 74
Printer
Mouse
Telephone cord
Power cord
70. Which of the following controls the connection between the CPU
and the PCIe x16 expansion slot?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 74
Receives inbound e-mail on port 110
69. When working on a computer, which of the following should you
disconnect to prevent electrical shock? (Select the two best
answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Northbridge
Power supply
Memory
Memory controller
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 74
220-801 Practice Exam B
57
✓
Quick Check
71. What is the recommended method for handling an empty toner
cartridge?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Incinerate it.
Refill it.
Recycle it.
Detailed Answer: 74
Parallel cable
IEEE 1394b cable
Cat 5e crossover cable
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 75
Stay calm and do the job as efficiently as possible.
Take the customer out for a cup of coffee.
Avoid the customer and get the job done quickly.
Refer the customer to your supervisor.
74. Which of the following types of printers uses toner?
❍
Quick Answer: 63
Cat 5e patch cable
73. A customer experiences a server crash. When you arrive, the
manager is upset about this problem. What should you do in this
scenario?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 74
Throw it away.
72. Which type of cable would you use to connect a laptop directly to
a PC?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
A. Impact
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 75
❍ B. Laser
❍ C. Inkjet
❍ D. Thermal
75. As you are servicing a manager’s PC at your company, you run
across a list of names of employees who are supposedly about
to be let go from the company. Some of these people are coworkers. What should you do?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Turn the sheet over.
Act as if you never saw the list.
In secret, tell everyone who was on the list.
Yell at the manager for having that list out.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 75
58
Chapter 3
✓
Quick Check
76. In order to perform a network installation of Windows, which
of the following must be supported by the computer’s network
interface card?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
PCI
PCL
PnP
PCI
Detailed Answer: 75
AGP
AMR
Serial
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 75
USB
PS/2
Parallel
79. How can you reduce the chance of ESD? (Select the three best
answers.)
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 63
PCIe
78. Which of the following is the newest type of mouse connection?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 75
PXE
77. In which of the following slots would you place an 8x video card?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 75
A. Use an antistatic strap.
B. Use an antistatic mat.
❍ C. Raise the temperature.
❍ D. Raise the humidity.
❍ E. Lower the humidity.
❍ F. Work in a carpeted area.
80. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of a dual-core
processor versus a single-core processor?
❍
A. A dual-core processor has two cores, with separate
caches, on the same physical chip.
❍
B. A dual-core processor has several unique cores, with
the same cache, on two different chips.
❍
C. A dual-core processor uses higher voltage than a single-core processor.
❍ D. A dual-core processor requires more RAM to function
than a single-core processor.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 76
220-801 Practice Exam B
59
✓
Quick Check
81. Which of the following devices is the least likely to be replaced on
a laptop?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
RAM
PC Card
Keyboard
Detailed Answer: 76
1000 bits per second
1,000,000,000 bits per second
1 gigabit per second
Cable Internet
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 76
Ethernet
Client/Server
IEEE 802.3
84. Which of the following can send data the farthest?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 63
100,000,000 bits per minute
83. Which of the following is an example of a broadband connection?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 76
CPU
82. If your “bandwidth” is 1000 Mbps, how many bits are you
sending/receiving? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
A. Multi-mode fiber
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 76
B. Single-mode fiber
C. STP
❍ D. Coaxial
85. You need to expand the peripherals of a computer, but the system
doesn’t have enough ports. Which type of card should you install?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 76
Modem
Network adapter
USB card
TV tuner card
86. Which of the following is a typical speed of a SATA hard drive?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
1000 Mbps
3.1 GHz
8 GB
7200 RPM
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 76
60
Chapter 3
✓
Quick Check
87. Which of the following should you use to clean a monitor’s screen
if you are not sure how to do so?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 63
Detailed Answer: 76
Isopropyl alcohol
Mild detergent
Water
Boric acid
88. Which of the following best describes the differences between a
switch and a router?
❍
A. A switch interconnects devices on the same network
so that they can communicate, whereas a router
interconnects one or more networks.
❍
B. A router broadcasts all data packets that are sent on
the network, and a switch transmits data directly to
the device.
❍
C. A switch broadcasts all data packets that are sent on
the network, and a router transmits data directly to the
device.
Quick Answer: 64
Detailed Answer: 77
❍ D. A switch interconnects one or more networks, whereas
a router interconnect devices on a network.
89. Ray wants to install a new internal SATA hard drive in his computer. Which types of cables should he connect to the drive? (Select
the two best answers.)
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 64
Detailed Answer: 77
A. 7-pin data cable
B. 40-pin data cable
❍ C. 4-pin power cable
❍ D. 15-pin power cable
90. A group of users in ABC Corp. needs to back up several gigabytes
of data daily. Which of the following is the best media for this
scenario?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
DVD
Dual-Layer DVD
External USB hard drive
DLT
Quick Answer: 64
Detailed Answer: 77
220-801 Practice Exam B
61
✓
Quick Check
91. You are required to rip the contents of a CD to a compressed file
format that can be read easily on PCs, Linux computers, or Macs.
Which format should you select?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 77
.AAC
.WMA
.MP3
.MOV
92. You need to replace and upgrade the memory card in a
smartphone. Which type of memory does the smartphone
most likely use?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 64
Quick Answer: 64
Detailed Answer: 77
A. SSD
B. CF
C. USB flash drive
❍ D. SD
93. Your organization relies heavily on its server farm for resources
and is less reliant on the client computers. Which type of client
computer does the organization most likely use?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Client/Server
Thin client
Thick client
Quick Answer: 64
Detailed Answer: 77
Condition the drum to be written to
Transfer toner from the drum to the paper
Fuse the toner to the paper
Clean the drum
95. Which of the following capabilities enables a printer to store
multiple documents?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 77
Virtualization workstation
94. What are the respective functions of the two corona wires in a
laser printer? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 64
Buffer
Print driver
Printer pool
Spooling
Quick Answer: 64
Detailed Answer: 77
62
Chapter 3
✓
Quick Check
96. While you explain a technical concept to a customer, what is the
best action for you to take?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 64
Detailed Answer: 78
A. Recommend a training class.
B. Sit next to the customer.
C. Use acronyms so that the customer feels comfortable
about your knowledge.
❍ D. Tell the customer to read the manual.
97. You are setting up a SOHO network with DSL. Which of the
following devices should you place on the phone line so that
the line can be shared with a phone and the DSL modem?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 64
Detailed Answer: 78
A. Line filter
B. Heat sink
❍ C. Router
❍ D. Coax splitter
98. One way to provide preventive maintenance to a hard drive is to
do what?
❍
A. Upgrade the cache on the drive to improve
performance.
❍
B. Increase the amount of RAM on the PC to increase the
page file.
Quick Answer: 64
Detailed Answer: 78
❍ C. Install a second hard drive.
❍ D. Keep an area of airflow around the drive so that it
doesn’t overheat.
99. After a blackout, the power comes back on, causing a surge to
occur on all the computers and equipment in the office. Your
co-worker’s laptop display doesn’t come on. However, if you look
closely at the display, you can see that Windows is running, but
very dimly. What could be the cause of this problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 78
The inverter has been shorted out.
The power supply has failed.
The display is not getting power.
The display driver has failed.
100. Which tool would you use to test a 24-pin ATX 12v power
connector?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 64
Torx wrench
Multimeter
Receptacle tester
Tone and probe kit
Quick Answer: 64
Detailed Answer: 78
220-801 Practice Exam B
Quick-Check Answer Key
1. C
30. A
59. B
2. A
31. A
60. C
3. B
32. C
61. B
4. A
33. C
62. A
5. C
34. B
63. B
6. D
35. A
64. C
7. D
36. C
65. A and C
8. C
37. D
66. D
9. A
38. A
67. D
10. C
39. D
68. A
11. A
40. B
69. C and D
12. B
41. A
70. A
13. C
42. B
71. D
14. A
43. D
72. D
15. B
44. C
73. A
16. C
45. B
74. B
17. A
46. D
75. B
18. B
47. C
76. A
19. B
48. D
77. C
20. A and E
49. D
78. B
21. D
50. C and D
79. A, B, and D
22. A
51. C
80. A
23. B
52. B
81. A
24. D
53. C
82. C and D
25. D
54. C
83. A
26. B
55. D
84. B
27. B
56. D
85. C
28. D
57. C
86. D
29. A
58. C
87. C
63
64
Chapter 3
88. A
93. C
98. D
89. A and D
94. A and B
99. A
90. D
95. A
91. C
96. B
92. D
97. A
100. B
220-801 Practice Exam B
65
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: C. If the computer fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server,
Windows will take over and apply an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA). This
address will be on the 169.254.0.0 network. All of the other addresses could possibly
be obtained from a DHCP server. 172.16.10.10 is a Class B private IP. 192.168.0.10
and 192.168.10.10 are Class C private IP addresses.
2. Answer: A. Case fans are measured in mm (millimeters). 80mm and especially
120mm are very common. They are used to exhaust heat out of the case. This aids
in keeping the CPU and other devices cool. CPUs commonly use a heat sink/fan
combination. However, the two are often connected together. Memory modules don’t
use fans, but they can be equipped (or purchased) with heat sinks of their own.
3. Answer: B. An IEEE 1394 (FireWire) chain can have up to 63 devices. USB can handle
up to 127 devices, though both of these numbers are outside the realm of normalcy
for most individuals! 15 is the maximum amount of devices that can be on a SCSI
chain. Remember this doesn’t count the SCSI card. 255 is a commonly used number
when it comes to maximums but doesn’t apply to IEEE 1394.
4. Answer: A. If you see a yellow exclamation point in the Device Manager, this indicates
that the device does not have a proper driver. If the device is disabled, it will have
either a down arrow (for Windows 7/Vista) or a red x (Windows XP). If a driver was
not digitally signed, the device might show up in the Unknown devices category until
it is installed properly. If a device has a working driver, then upgrading it will be up to
you, but you won’t necessarily be notified of this.
5. Answer: C. As the POST checks all the components of the computer, it may present
its findings on the screen or in the form of beep codes. The complementary metaloxide semiconductor (CMOS) stores information such as time and date and BIOS
passwords. RTC stands for real-time clock; it is the device that keeps time on the
motherboard. Windows generates all kinds of error codes but not beep codes. The
beep codes come from the POST, which happens before Windows boots.
6. Answer: D. Never spray any cleaner directly on a display. Spray on a lint-free cloth
first, and then wipe the display gently. Try not to get any liquid in the cracks at the
edge of the screen. A lot of companies sell products that are half isopropyl alcohol and
half water. You could also make this yourself. Again, remember to put the solution on
a lint-free cloth first.
7. Answer: D. PCI Express (PCIe) offers the highest video performance. A PCIe x16
version 3 card can transfer a maximum of 16 GB/s. Compare this to the closest
competitor listed: AGP, which can do 2,133 MB/s, about 1/8 of PCIe. SCSI is used
for hard drives and scanners among other things, but not for video. PCI is the predecessor to PCIe but is rarely used for video anymore; it is limited to 133 or 266 MB/s
depending on the speed. Either way, it doesn’t hold a candle to PCIe.
8. Answer: C. The RJ45 jack enables a connection to a twisted-pair (most likely Ethernet)
network. Printers with a built-in RJ45 connector are network ready. RJ11 ports are
used by modems and dial-up Internet connections. If a printer has this, then it is a
multifunction printer acting as a fax machine. USB is the standard port for a printer.
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This allows it to connect to a PC or to a print server. SCSI connectors are not often
found on today’s printers; regardless, they would indicate a local connection, not a
network connection.
9. Answer: A. The fuser heats paper to around 400° Fahrenheit (204° Celsius). That’s like
an oven. If you need to replace the fuser, let the printer sit for 10 or 15 minutes after
shutting it down, and before maintenance. The fuser is not wet or fragile, and it does
not contain toner—that is contained by the cartridge.
10. Answer: C. On Core 2 Duo, Quad, and Extreme systems, the memory controller is
located within the chipset and is known as the Memory Controller Hub (MCH) by Intel,
but it is also referred to as the northbridge. On AMD systems and newer Intel systems
such as the Core i5 or i7, the memory controller is located “on-die,” meaning within
the CPU.
11. Answer: A. The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) connector is used for
musical equipment such as keyboards, synthesizers, and sequencers. MIDI is used to
create a clocking signal that all devices can synchronize to. The other three connectors, HDMI, DVI, and DisplayPort, are all video connectors.
12. Answer: B. The Torx wrench is a special tool used to remove screws from the outside
of a case; often, proprietary computer manufacturers will use these screws. It can also
be used to remove screws (albeit smaller ones) from a laptop. The standard is the size
T-10 Torx wrench. But you might also use a T-8 and even a T-6 on laptops.
13. Answer: C. If you want to access more than 4 GB of RAM, you will need a 64-bit operating system. 32-bit OSes are limited to 4 GB of RAM, and in some cases 3.25 GB.
Many computers today, especially custom computers such as virtualization systems
and gaming computers, require more than 4 GB of RAM so a 64-bit operating system
is the only choice. Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is a security feature in today’s
operating systems; it stops a program from executing code in a forbidden area of
memory. Most of today’s 32-bit or 64-bit systems offer this. Unsigned drivers are
based on the operating system itself; whether that particular OS is 32-bit or 64-bit
will not be a factor. You must be an administrator to allow the use of unsigned drivers.
32-bit operating systems can run older 16-bit programs, but 64-bit operating systems
will have problems running 16-bit programs even in compatibility mode.
14. Answer: A. Overclocking is the act of increasing your CPU’s operating speed beyond
its normal rated speed. The rest of the terms are not used in relation to this concept.
15. Answer: B. COM1 (communications port 1) is a serial port; it sends or receives
one bit at a time, up to 115,200 Kbps. A typical example is the 9-pin male DE9 port
(inaccurately referred to also as the DB9). DVI is a video port. LPT1 is an older parallel
printing port. SCSI is a parallel port used by hard drives and tape drives. The older
COM port is used by dial-up modems. It is also used to program devices such as
handheld terminals. You don’t see COM ports on PCs today, but you might still see
them as an add-on card in the field, used to access networks as an administrator failsafe in case other Internet connectivity methods fail. In rural areas, people may still
use internal or external dial-up modems. The external modem is what connects to the
COM1 serial port. Though USB is also technically a “serial” port, most technicians and
professionals refer to the serial port as COM1 or COM2.
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16. Answer: C. The SSID is the most important piece of information required to connect
to a wireless network; it is the name of the wireless network. The wireless channel
number isn’t necessarily needed; the wireless access point (WAP) might autonegotiate the channel. Also, MAC address filtering is not enabled by default, so the
MAC address might not be needed. (In fact, this would be entered by the admin at the
wireless access point, not from the client computer.) The administrator password is
needed only if you wanted to make configuration changes to the wireless access point.
For example, if you wanted to implement MAC filtering, you would have to log in to the
WAP with an admin password to configure it.
17. Answer: A. The supervisor (or system) password is used so that only the technician
can get into the BIOS (CMOS). The user password is used to password-protect whatever operating system is running on the computer, but it does it from the firmware
level. An “administrator” password is something used in Windows or on a networking
device, and a local password is something used in software.
18. Answer: B. The power management settings on the laptop can cause the display to
automatically dim when the AC adapter is unplugged. In fact, this is the default on
many laptops in order to conserve battery power. These can be configured within
Power Options in Windows. You can certainly set the display to full brightness when
on battery power—it just isn’t recommended. Laptops can operate properly when connected to the AC power adapter or when using the battery only. The display brightness
of a laptop isn’t affected by any security settings.
19. Answer: B. Always use an antistatic strap to avoid ESD (electrostatic discharge).
Power tools and battery-operated tools such as cordless drills should be avoided.
Although multimeters and screwdrivers are tools you might use, they might not
always be necessary, whereas the antistatic strap should always be worn.
20. Answers: A and E. Advantages of using DHCP include: IP addresses can be managed
from a central location and computers can automatically get new addressing when
moved to a different network segment (perhaps one that uses a different DHCP server). Quality of Service (QoS) adjusts the network speed based on the type of traffic
generated. DHCP has nothing to do with the Hosts.txt file; that file contains static
entries of hostname to IP address conversions. Media Access Control addresses are
usually not changed on a network adapter, although they can be masked. MAC filtering
maintains a list of MAC addresses that are allowed to access a network, but once
again, this is a different concept from DHCP.
21. Answer: D. The touchpad is the most likely of the listed devices. Serial devices (and
the port in general) are found less and less often on laptops. (They are extinct on new
laptops.) PS/2 mice are also rare. Both of these have given way to the touchpad and
external USB mice.
22. Answer: A. The traditional hard drive is still the magnetic disk. This is because it is
well known and has a low cost per MB of storage space. There are optical hard drives,
but they are rare; optical drives are commonly implemented as CD, DVD, or Blu-ray
drives. Impact refers to a type of printer, such as the dot matrix or the daisy wheel
printer. Solid-state hard drives are gaining in popularity because they have no moving
parts, are quiet, and work as fast as (if not faster than) traditional magnetic hard
drives. However, they are far more expensive than the traditional drive, which slows
their general acceptance.
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23. Answer: B. RAM is more essential to the virtualization workstation than any of the
other types of custom PCs listed. Virtual operating systems (virtual machines or VMs)
require a lot of RAM to run, much more than any other application. Plus, a virtualization workstation will often have more than one virtual machine running, increasing its
need for RAM even further. Gaming PCs biggest requirements are CPU and video card.
Audio/video workstations require specialized audio and video cards, fast hard drives,
and dual monitors. Home theater PCs (HTPCs) require an HDMI output, surround
sound, a small form factor, and possibly a TV tuner.
24. Answer: D. Paper-feed errors are often caused by the pickup rollers, which are in
charge of feeding the paper into the printer. If a separation tab fails, it might cause
more than one sheet of paper to be entered into the printer. The developing rollers
transfer ink to the imaging drum. The paper tray simply holds the paper. It should
not cause paper-feed errors unless the constraining tabs are too tight.
25. Answer: D. Port 443 is the default port for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure
(HTTPS). This is the protocol used during online banking sessions, or if you go to
checkout when shopping online. Port 25 is the default port for SMTP. Port 80 is HTTP.
Port 143 is the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP); it’s similar to POP3 but
offers offline operation, and multiple clients can access the same mailbox.
26. Answer: B. Class 2 Bluetooth devices have a maximum range of approximately 10
meters. Class 2 devices are the most common (for example, Bluetooth headsets).
Class 1 has a 100-meter range, and Class 3’s range is approximately 1 meter. The
maximum length of a standard USB 2.0 cable is 5 meters.
27. Answer: B. The VGA connector uses a D shell (also referred to as D-sub) 15-pin
connector. It has three rows of five pins. The 8P8C is the technically correct name for
an RJ45 networking plug. microATX is a motherboard form factor commonly used in
smaller PCs and HTPCs. RG-6 is the connector used for cable TV and cable Internet
connections.
28. Answer: D. Because the immediate danger is gone, call 911 right away. Then apply
first aid and CPR as necessary. The next step would be to shut the power off at the
electrical panel or call the building supervisor to have the power shut off.
29. Answer: A. You should first ask if anything has changed since the optical drive worked
properly. Don’t blame the user by asking what “you” modified; it implies that you think
the user caused the issue. Always ask if anything has changed first before any other
questions. Try not to accuse a user of accessing inappropriate websites because this
could be considered inflammatory and harassment. Think like a robot with the single
purpose of fixing the problem, but act like a professional and courteous human being!
30. Answer: A. The floppy disk drive (FDD) stores a maximum of 1.44 MB on a removable
disk (1.38 MB of which is actual data). CD-ROM drives use removable discs; however,
the maximum they can store is much greater. Note that magnetic disks are spelled
with a k, while optical discs are spelled with a c. The acronym ROM usually refers to a
chip on a circuit board that is not removable. Compact Flash comes in varying sizes
(all greater than 1.44 MB) and is considered a card, not a disk.
31. Answer: A. 802.11a operates at 5 GHz only. 802.11b and g operate at 2.4 GHz.
802.11n operates at either 2.4 or 5 GHz. The IEEE 802.11 wireless standards are
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collectively known as 802.11x. There is no actual 802.11x standard; it was not used in
order to avoid confusion. 802.11x is instead a variable that you will sometimes see
that refers to two or more 802.11 technologies.
32. Answer: C. IEEE 1394 is the PC equivalent of FireWire. FireWire was originally developed by Apple, and although the two names are often used interchangeably, the PC
standard is IEEE 1394. USB is the Universal Serial Bus, a similar standard but with a
different architecture and data transfer rate. IEEE 1284 is an older parallel PC standard
for printer cables and connections. ISA is the Industry Standard Architecture, a legacy
16-bit adapter card slot.
33. Answer: C. DDR3-1600 has a peak transfer rate of 12,800 MB/s. It runs at an I/O bus
clock speed of 800 MHz and can send 1600 megatransfers per second (MT/s). It is
also known as PC3-12800. To figure out the data transfer rate of DDR3 from the name
“DDR3-1600”, simply multiply the 1600 by 8 (bytes) and solve for megabytes: 12,800
MB/s. To figure out the data transfer rate of DDR3 by the consumer name “PC312800”, just look at the number within the name and add “MB/s” to the end. To figure
out the data transfer rate when given only the I/O bus clock speed (for example, 800
MHz), multiply the clock speed by 2 and then multiply that number by 8 and solve for
megabytes: 800 MHz×2×8 = 12,800 MB/s.
DDR3-800 has a peak transfer rate of 6,400 MB/s; it is also known as PC3-6400.
There is no DDR2-1600. The fastest DDR2 standard is DDR2-1066, which has a peak
transfer rate of 8,533 MB/s. DDR2-800 (like DDR3-800) has a peak transfer rate of
6,400 MB/s. It is commonly sold as PC2-6400.
34. Answer: B. The impact printer uses a print head, ribbon, and tractor feed. An example
of an impact printer is the dot matrix. Laser printers are much more complex and use
more parts. Inkjet printers use a print head but use an ink cartridge instead of a ribbon
and don’t use a tractor feed. Thermal printers use a print head and a special heating
element.
35. Answer: A. If the CPU is running beyond the recommended voltage range for extended periods of time, it can be a sign of a failing CPU. It could also be caused by overclocking. Check in the BIOS to see if the CPU is overclocked or not. If the computer
won’t boot at all, another problem might have occurred, or the CPU might have
already failed. Low case temperatures are a good thing (if they aren’t below freezing!),
and spyware is unrelated to this issue.
36. Answer: C. Fiber-optic cable is the only answer listed that is not affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI). This is because it does not use copper wire or electricity,
but instead uses glass or plastic fibers and light. Any copper cable will be susceptible
to EMI to a certain degree. Regular UTP cable such as Cat 5e or Cat 6 will be very susceptible. Coaxial slightly less, and shielded twisted-pair (STP) even less than that. STP
is difficult to install and must be grounded; because of these things, it is found less
commonly in networks. To truly protect from EMI, fiber-optic is the best way to go.
37. Answer: D. Compressed air is safe. However, you might want to do this outside and
vacuum up the left over residue. Never disassemble the power supply. It is called a
field replaceable unit (FRU) for good reason. Do not stick a vacuum cleaner inside a
computer; it could damage the components. Do not spray any kind of solutions inside
the computer; this will damage the components.
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38. Answer: A. Setting an admin password in the BIOS prevents a user from rearranging
the boot order. The idea behind this is to stop a person from attempting to boot off of
an optical disc or USB flash drive. As an administrator, you should change the BIOS
boot order to hard drive first. Then apply an administrative (also known as supervisory) password. That’ll stop ‘em right in their tracks! The admin password does not
prevent any of the other listed answers. To prevent a user from reading e-mail, you
would have to remove e-mail applications (such as Outlook) and probably take away
the browser, too! (Doesn’t sound feasible.) To prevent a virus from infecting the MBR,
you could turn on boot sector scanning in the BIOS (if the motherboard supports it).
To prevent an attacker from opening the case, use a case lock. To find out if someone
attempted to get into the computer itself, turn on the chassis intrusion alert in the
BIOS.
39. Answer: D. The external power supply of the laptop converts AC to DC for the system
to use and for charging the battery. It is known as the power adapter, and it needs to
run at a very specific voltage. In fact, different make and model power adapters will
usually not work with different laptops, even if the voltages are only slightly different.
The adapter does not store power; that is the responsibility of the laptop battery. It is
also accomplished by a UPS, though you probably wouldn’t lug one of those around
with your laptop while travelling.
40. Answer: B. The plain-old telephone service (POTS) line has two twisted pairs of
copper wire, for a total of four wires. It is used for telephone landlines. Unshielded
twisted pair (UTP) has four pairs, eight wires total. Fiber-optic cable has a single glass
or plastic core that sends light. Coaxial has a single core of copper.
41. Answer: A. High-quality dot matrix printheads can come in 9, 18, or 24 pins, with 24
being the highest quality.
42. Answer: B. The BTX form factor provides the most room for effective cooling in a
computer case. BTX was designed as a replacement for ATX; it was expected to help
cool devices that used a lot of power and created a lot of heat. However, CPUs, RAM,
and video cards have new designs that allow them to use less voltage and therefore
create less heat, making BTX less necessary. Still, BTX combines a large cooling area
with smart design and positioning of devices that allows for more cooling than is possible with ATX and its derivatives, or the various ITX versions.
43. Answer: D. Some power supplies have selectors for the United States and Europe
(115 and 230 volts). However, your co-worker might need an adapter, too; otherwise,
the plug may not fit. Newer power supplies might auto-sense the voltage. If the power
supply doesn’t have one of those red switches, check the documentation to see if it
can switch the voltage automatically. Line conditioners simply clean the power for a
specific voltage. If your circuit has dirty power (for example, it is fluctuating between
113 and 130 volts), a line conditioner will keep it steady at 120 volts.
44. Answer: C. LCD contrast ratio is the brightness of the brightest color (measured
as white) compared to the darkest color (measured as black). Static contrast ratio
measurements are static; this done as a test with a checkerboard pattern. But there is
also the dynamic contrast ratio, a newer technology in LCD displays that adjusts
dynamically during darker scenes in an attempt to give better black levels. It usually
has a higher ratio, but it should be noted that there isn’t any real uniform standard for
measuring contrast ratio.
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45. Answer: B. Most antistatic straps come with a 1 mega ohm resistor, which can protect
against surges. However, the best way to avoid a surge is to 1) make sure the computer is unplugged before working on it; and 2) don’t touch any components that hold a
charge. This means don’t open power supplies or CRT monitors, and don’t touch
capacitors on any circuit boards such as motherboards. And, of course, stay away
from any other electrical devices when working on computers.
46. Answer: D. High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI), as the word multimedia
implies, can transmit video and audio signals. VGA, RGB, and DVI are video standards
only, with DVI being the newest and most commonly used on PC monitors.
47. Answer: C. Whenever you’re working in someone’s home, make sure that there is an
adult available. It is not your responsibility to watch over children, nor should any
company agree to have its consultants do this. If the person insists on leaving, and
you can pack up your things before he goes, do so, and then call your supervisor to
inform her of the event.
48. Answer: D. A router can limit network broadcasts through segmenting and programmed routing of data. This is part of a router’s job when connecting two or more
networks. It is also used with different media. For example, you might have a LAN
that uses twisted-pair cable, but the router connects to the Internet via a fiber-optic
connection. That one router will have ports for both types of connections. A switch
connects multiple computers together on the LAN; it does not limit IP-based network
broadcasts. However, the switch does not segment by IP address—it communicates
with computers and segments the network, via MAC addresses. Also, the switch will
normally use one type of media: twisted pair, connecting to RJ45 ports. However, it
is possible that the switch might connect to another switch by way of a specialized
fiber-optic connector. A wireless access point (WAP) connects the computers on the
wireless LAN (WLAN). It often has only one connection, a single RJ45 port. A hardware-based firewall will usually connect to the network via RJ45; regardless, it will
have only one or only a few connections. It doesn’t deal with routing, or broadcasts;
instead it prevents intrusion to a network.
49. Answer: D. The CPU could overheat if thermal compound has not been applied
correctly (common) or if it is not seated properly (rare). As part of the boot process,
power needs to verify the CPU. If the wrong voltage is running to the CPU, the system
won’t even boot. If an incorrect CPU has been installed, the system will probably not
boot, especially if the BIOS doesn’t recognize it. Finally, the CPU doesn’t use a driver;
instead the BIOS recognizes it (or doesn’t, if it needs a BIOS update) and passes that
information to the operating system.
50. Answers: C and D. Molex power connectors are used by IDE drives. 15-pin power
connectors are used for SATA drives. 8-pin power connectors are used by high-end
PCI Express video cards. There are several types of 7-pin connectors, such as SATA
data, and S-Video, but 7-pin power connections are less common. Berg is the power
connector for floppy drives. Okay, we are halfway through the exam. Take a deep
breath—then continue on with power! (Pun intended.)
51. Answer: C. Of the answers listed, 172.17.58.254 is the only valid IPv4 address for a
network host. A host on the network is any computer or network device that uses an
IP address to communicate with other computers or devices (hosts). 172.17.58.254 is
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a Class B private IP address so it fits the description of a valid IPv4 address for a
network host. 127.0.0.1 is the local loopback address. Every computer using TCP/IP
gets this address; it is used for testing. It cannot be used to communicate with other
hosts on the network. 169.254.0.0/16 means an IP address of 169.254.0.0 with a
default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, indicating the network number is 169.254. It is
not a valid host IP address because it ends in 0.0. The first IP address of a network is
always reserved for the network number; it can not be used by a host. Otherwise, if
the address was, say, 169.254.0.1, the address would work, but because it is an
APIPA address, it would be able to communicate only with other systems using APIPA
addresses. 255.10.15.7 is not valid. That address is within the Class E reserved range.
Normal host IP addresses’ first octet will either be between 1 and 126, or 128 and
223, but not between 224 and 255.
52. Answer: B. When data is flowing through the activity light, it should blink or flash rapidly, in an erratic fashion. You see solid green (1000 Mbps or 100 Mbps) or yellow (10
Mbps) on the link light (if there is a separate link light). If it is unlit, the cable is not
connected properly or the device is malfunctioning.
53. Answer: C. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is the modules (or sticks) of
memory that you can install into a motherboard. SDRAM, DDR, DDR2, and DDR3 are
all examples of DRAM. The complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) is a
chip that is soldered onto the motherboard that works in conjunction with the Basic
Input/Output System, another chip soldered on to the motherboard. Static RAM
(SRAM) is memory that is nonvolatile (as opposed to DRAM); it is also soldered to the
circuit board. Read-Only Memory (ROM) is usually not serviceable. The BIOS resides
on a ROM chip, more specifically an electrically erasable programmable ROM (EEPROM) chip.
54. Answer: C. Turning the printer off might not be enough. It might be seriously malfunctioning, so pull the plug. Dialing 911 is not necessary unless a fire has started. Wait at
least 15 minutes before opening the printer to see what caused the smoke. Printer
power supplies can fail just like a PC’s power supply can. In fact, a laser printer power
supply does more work because it needs to convert for high voltages in the 600 V
range. If you have a maintenance contract with a printer company, and the printer is
under warranty or contained in the service contract, you could call the maintenance
company to fix the problem. Be ready to give a detailed account of exactly what happened. You could tell the printer that it is bad to smoke, but that would be belligerent
and would probably show that you have been working too hard.
55. Answer: D. Of the listed answers, 802.11n has the fastest data transfer rate at a maximum of 600 Mbps. However, to achieve this, you need to have the right wireless
access point, configured properly, with client computers that are also compatible with
the 802.11n standard. 802.11a and g have a maximum DTR of 54 Mbps. 802.11b has
a maximum of 11 Mbps.
56. Answer: D. Make sure that the customer has a path toward a solution before dismissing the issue. Do not try to fix the problem if the scope of work is outside your knowledge. Most PC technicians will not work on domain controllers because they are
advanced Microsoft servers that are used in client/server networks.
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57. Answer: C. 172.31.1.1 is the only address listed that is private. It is within the Class B
range of private addresses: 172.16.1.1–172.31.255.255. 11.58.254.169 is not private
because it is on the Class A 11 network. The Class A private range is within the
10.0.0.0 network. 169.255.10.41 is not private either. Microsoft’s APIPA, however,
uses the 169.254.0.0 network which is private. 192.169.0.1 is public because of the
second octet: 169. The Class C private range is 192.168.0.0–192.168.255.255.
58. Answer: C. Always have a positive outlook. The customer will have fewer concerns,
and you will be more relaxed. If you appear to be wavering when problems occur, the
customer will have less confidence in your skills (as will you). When you need to make
a technical decision, be certain and decisive and implement the solution immediately.
59. Answer: B. The IPv6 loopback address used for testing is ::1. This will determine if
IPv6 is working correctly on the network card but will not generate network traffic.
It exists on every computer that runs IPv6. 127.0.0.1 is the IPv4 loopback address.
192.168.0.0 is simply a private IP network number. FE80::/10 is the range of autoassigned addresses in IPv6.
60. Answer: C. The only statement that is correct concerning IPv6 is that it uses 128-bit
addressing. This is compared to IPv4, which uses 32-bit addresses. IPv6 and IPv4 can
co-habit a computer with no problems. IPv6 is not necessarily supported by all
routers. Some routers still only support IPv4. IPv6 is a logical concept. The physical
cable that connects to the computer has no bearing over which IP version is used.
61. Answer: B. 60° Celsius is a typical operating temperature for CPUs such as the Core
i5 or Phenom II. The operating range may be above or below that. However, 72°
Celsius becomes less typical. 60° Fahrenheit is equal to 15.5° Celsius. A processor will
not run that cold (but it would be pretty efficient if it did!). 72° Fahrenheit is excellent
room temperature and is what you should set the room temperature for computers to
run at their best.
62. Answer: A. The impact printer technology is what you want. This strikes the ribbon,
and consequently the paper with a printhead. The physical hammering action causes
the carbon backing to take effect and apply text to the next layer of paper. Multipart
forms such as these are commonly used for receipts. Laser printers can print to special multipart forms, but not ones with carbon backing.
63. Answer: B. Dual channel memory combines two sticks of RAM into a bank that is
128-bit. Single channel memory is 64-bit. 256-bit is a common bit length used by the
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES). 448-bit memory bus width is used by some
video cards. These types of video cards have much faster RAM access than motherboards do.
64. Answer: C. A hub broadcasts data to all network devices connected to it. Because of
this inefficient method, switches are preferred. Switches send information to specific
network devices based on their MAC addresses. A firewall will inspect traffic and allow
or deny it access to the network. Intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) can also do this, but in a more intelligent manner. A router will
determine the best route for data.
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65. Answers: A and C. A receptacle tester and multimeter can be used (with caution) to
test an AC outlet. A power supply (PSU) tester is used to test the main P1 power
connection (and possibly other connections) of a power supply. There are various
loopback plugs for testing ports on the back of a PC (for example, the RJ45 loopback
plug), but these have nothing to do with testing an AC outlet.
66. Answer: D. IEEE 1394b is capable of 800 Mbps. Newer versions of IEEE 1394b can
support 3,200 Mbps, but an IEEE 1394b port on a computer will often allow only a
maximum of 800 Mbps. 12 Mbps is the data transfer rate of USB 1.1 Full Speed. 400
Mbps is the speed of IEEE 1394a. 480 Mbps is the speed of USB 2.0. 5 Gbps is the
speed of USB 3.0.
67. Answer: D. You cannot install drivers to the BIOS. Drivers are software that allows the
operating system to communicate with hardware; they can be configured in the Device
Manager in Windows. The rest of the answers can be configured in the BIOS. The boot
sequence (also known as boot priority or boot order) allows you to select which
device will be booted off of first (hard drive is the most secure). Temperature thresholds allow you to set alerts and possibly shut down the system if the CPU runs too
hot. Overclocking is when the CPU’s voltage is raised and the speed is increased.
Overclocking is not recommended, but if you do configure it, you should set temperature thresholds. Intrusion detection can be enabled and will log if a person opened the
computer case.
68. Answer: A. POP3 is the protocol used by e-mail clients to receive e-mail. It makes use
of Port 110. SMTP is used by e-mail clients to send e-mail. It uses port 25.
69. Answers: C and D. The power cord carries 120 volts at 15 amps or 20 amps, and the
telephone cord carries 80 volts when it rings. It is important to disconnect these before
servicing a computer. Now, if you were opening the computer, you would disconnect
everything. However, you might be fixing something that doesn’t require you to open
the computer—for example, connecting a network cable. Remember to always disconnect any power, data, or telecommunications cables before working on the system.
70. Answer: A. The northbridge takes care of the connections between the CPU and the
PCI Express (PCIe) x16 expansion slot. On older Intel systems and AMD systems, the
northbridge is the first of a pair of chips in the chipset (the other is the southbridge).
On newer Intel systems, the northbridge functionality is combined with the CPU.
71. Answer: D. Recycle toner cartridges according to your company’s policies and
procedures, or according to municipality rules and regulations. Do not throw away
or incinerate toner cartridges. Although it is possible to refill toner cartridges, it is not
the recommended way to handle an empty cartridge because it is messy and timeconsuming. Most companies simply purchase new toner cartridges.
72. Answer: D. To connect one computer to another directly by way of network adapter
cards, use a crossover cable. That cable is designed to connect like devices. It is wired
as 568B on one end and 568A on the other. Those standards are ratified by the
Telecommunications Industries Association/Electronics Industries Association
(TIA/EIA). A regular (and more common) Cat 5e patch cable is known as a straightthrough cable. It is used to connect unlike devices, such as a computer to a switch.
Normally this is wired with the 568B standard on each end. A parallel cable might be
used to connect an older printer to a computer or an external hard drive to a SCSI
220-801 Practice Exam B
75
card. IEEE 1394 cables are not used to connect computers to each other; they are
used to connect external hard drives to IEEE 1394 or FireWire ports.
73. Answer: A. Stay calm and do the job as efficiently as possible. There isn’t much you
can do when a customer is upset except fix the problem! I’d be interested to see what
would happen if a person asked the owner of the server out for a cup of coffee, but
I’m pretty sure the reaction would be negative. You don’t want to avoid the customer,
but you don’t have to engage in anything except fixing the problem. The customer
should be referred to your supervisor only if the person gets in the way of you doing
your work.
74. Answer: B. The laser printer uses toner. Impact printers use ribbon, inkjet printers use
ink cartridges, and thermal printers use specially coated paper.
75. Answer: B. There isn’t much you can do in a situation like this. The best thing is to
ignore it and act as if it never happened. Technicians must be security-minded. In
addition, the purported list might be real, but it might not be. It isn’t your call to make.
However, before working at a customer site, you should ask that all confidential materials be removed before you begin work.
76. Answer: A. Network installations require that the network card be configured for
Preboot Execution Environment (PXE). This allows the network card to boot off of the
network, locate a network installation server, and request that the installation begin.
This configuration might be done in the BIOS of the computer (if the network adapter
is integrated to the motherboard), within a special program in Windows, or one that
boots from CD (if the network adapter is an adapter card). Peripheral Component
Interconnect (PCI) is an expansion bus that accepts network adapter cards, sound
cards, and so on. PCL stands for Printer Command Language, developed by HP so a
computer can properly communicate with dot matrix or thermal printers. PnP stands
for Plug ‘n Play, a Windows technology that allows devices to be located and installed
automatically.
77. Answer: C. Any card named with a number followed by an x is most likely an AGP
card, (2x, 4x, 8x, 16x). AGP is the Accelerated Graphics Port, usually a brown slot on
the motherboard. It is faster than PCI but slower than PCIe (PCI Express) video cards.
PCIe cards place the x before the number (for example, x16—pronounced “by 16”).
AMR stands for Audio-Modem Riser, a small expansion slot developed by Intel to be
used with sound cards and modems.
78. Answer: B. USB is the newest type of mouse connection. It replaces PS/2 as today’s
standard. Serial mice were used in the early 1990s, and parallel was never really used
for mice at all; it was used for printers and SCSI connections.
79. Answers: A, B, and D. To reduce the chance of electrostatic discharge (ESD), use an
antistatic wrist strap and mat. Also, consider raising the humidity. The more humidity
there is, the less friction, and ultimately, less ESD. Raising the temperature will have
no effect. Lowering the humidity increases the chances of ESD. Working in a carpeted
area will also increase the chance of ESD; try to work in a non-carpeted area. You
should also touch the chassis of the computer before handling any components. In
addition, place components in antistatic bags when they are not in use.
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Chapter 3
80. Answer: A. A dual-core processor has two cores, with separate caches, on the
same physical chip. A processor with several cores would be known as multi-core
(quad-core or hex-core). Dual-core processors are generally more efficient than older
single-core processors and often use less voltage. A dual-core processor does not
require more RAM than a single-core, but it usually requires more cache memory.
Every core of a multi-core CPU has its own L1 and L2 cache.
81. Answer: A. The CPU is the least likely to be replaced. You would probably need to
replace other equipment, too, in this case. Just like PCs, though, the CPU should
rarely fail. However, you might upgrade, replace, or add to RAM. PC Cards (PCMCIA)
are commonly implemented as network adapters, modems, and more. It is common
to install and remove PC Cards. Laptop keyboards fall victim to coffee, overuse, and
other damage over time and sometimes need to be replaced.
82. Answers: C and D. 1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second, otherwise notated as
1,000,000,000 bits per second, or 1 gigabit per second.
83. Answer: A. Cable Internet is a broadband connection. It uses multiple “channels” to
transmit and receive information. All the rest of the examples are technologies that
are, or use, a baseband connection (one channel on the media). Ethernet (which was
originally ratified by the IEEE as the 802.3 standard) is a shared technology by default;
only one computer can communicate on the network at any given time. However,
Ethernet switching alleviates this by segmenting computers and redirecting information to other systems via MAC address. Client/Server is less a networking technology
and more of a way that computers communicate; it has a centralized server that controls the network.
84. Answer: B. Single-mode fiber-optic cable can send data farther than any of the other
answers—up to hundreds of kilometers. Multi-mode fiber-optic cable can send data
about 600 meters. STP is a type of twisted pair; all twisted pair is limited to 100
meters or 328 feet. Coaxial cable is limited to 200 or 500 meters, depending on the
type.
85. Answer: C. You should install a USB add-on card. This will give you more ports than
the computer already has for use with peripherals. Another option would be to purchase a USB hub. Modems, network adapters, and TV tuner cards all have their own
purpose and do not allow additional peripherals.
86. Answer: D. 7200 RPM is a typical speed of a hard drive—rotational speed, that is.
Other common rotational speeds include 5400 RPM; 10,000 RPM; and 15,000 RPM.
1000 Mbps is a common network data transfer rate. SATA hard drives will commonly
have a DTR of 3 Gb/s (300 MB/s) or 6 Gb/s (600 MB/s). 3.1 GHz is a common CPU
frequency. 8 GB might be the amount of RAM you install in a computer or the size of a
USB flash drive.
87. Answer: C. If you are not sure about what to clean a screen with, use water. Water will
most likely not damage the screen. However, if the user manual for the monitor calls
for it, you might see that you can use a half-and-half mixture of water and isopropyl
alcohol. Do not use detergents on a screen; they are okay for the outside of a computer case but not the display. And boric acid would just be plain silly (and dangerous).
220-801 Practice Exam B
77
88. Answer: A. A switch interconnects devices on the same network so that they can communicate, whereas a router interconnects one or more networks. Remember that the
switch is in charge of connecting devices on the LAN. But the router is in charge of
connecting the LAN to another LAN, to the Internet, or to both. Multifunction network
devices make matters confusing; they combine the functionality of a switch, a router, a
wireless access point, and a firewall. Physically, the four-port section of the device is
the switch portion and the single port that leads to the Internet is the router portion.
89. Answers: A and D. Internal SATA drives connect to the motherboard (or SATA card)
via a 7-pin data cable and a 15-pin power cable. PATA (IDE) hard drives use a 40-pin
data cable and 4-pin (Molex) power cable. Who is Ray? He’s just another fictitious
character in this book. You’ll hear more about him later.
90. Answer: D. In a large corporation (or enterprise environment), tape backup such as
the Digital Linear Tape (DLT) is the best media for backing up. DLTs and Super DLTs
(SDLT) can have a capacity as high as 800 GB, allowing for a huge amount of backup
as compared to DVD and dual-layer DVD (4.7–17 GB) and external USB hard drives
(up to 64 GB or so, though this number will undoubtedly increase as time goes on).
91. Answer: C. The MPEG Audio Layer III (.MP3) works best when dealing with multiple
platforms. Advanced Audio Codec (.AAC) is used more commonly on Apple computers
and devices and gaming consoles. Windows Media Audio (.WMA) is a Microsoft format developed especially for the Windows Media Player. .MOV is a QuickTime file format meant to be used with movies and other video.
92. Answer: D. Smartphones typically use Secure Digital (SD) cards—more to the point,
microSD cards. SSD stands for solid-state drive. This technology is implemented as
flash-based hard drives or as adapter cards with DDR memory and a battery.
CompactFlash (CF) cards are a bit bulkier and might be used in conjunction with PCs,
laptops, and handheld computers. USB flash drives won’t fit inside a typical smartphone and so are relegated to hanging on people’s key chains and acting as mobile
transporters of data.
93. Answer: C. In this scenario, the organization probably has thin-client computers for its
users. These have operating systems that are embedded in flash memory, and the rest
of the information they require comes from a server. Thin clients normally have no
hard drive; this is why they are referred to as diskless workstations. Virtualization
workstations definitely need a hard drive and require lots of other resources; they are
not as dependent on servers. Client/server is a type of networking organizational technique. However, thin clients will often log in to a server. Thick clients are for the most
part PCs, the typical desktop computer.
94. Answers: A and B. Know the six main steps of laser printing: Cleaning, charging, writing (also known as exposing), developing, transferring, and fusing. In the charging
step, the drum is conditioned/charged by the primary corona wire (negatively charging
it) and prepared for writing. In the transferring step, the paper is positively charged by
the transfer corona wire, preparing it to accept the toner from the drum.
95. Answer: A. The printer has RAM, which acts as a buffer if you or others send multiple
documents to it. It prints them one at a time according to which job entered the queue
first. Don’t confuse the printer’s buffer with the spooler that exists on the hard drive of
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Chapter 3
the computer that controls the printer. The print driver is the software you install so
that Windows can “talk” to the printer properly; it needs to be the exact driver. A printer pool is a group of printers (often identical) that share the duties of printing.
96. Answer: B. Make the customer truly feel comfortable by sitting down next to her and
taking the time to explain the technical concept from a simple and concise point of
view. The less jargon, the better. Recommending a training class is tantamount to
dismissing the customer off-hand. Telling the customer to read the manual is just
downright rude. I know, I say this often to you the reader—however, you are a tech,
so reading the manual is what you do. The customer is not supposed to be supertechnically oriented. The acronym RTM should be kept within technical circles!
97. Answer: A. Line filters are required for DSL modems to share phone lines with a
phone. A line filter shields the phone line from digital noise and interference caused by
telephone devices and makes DSL communications possible. If DSL is installed in a
SOHO (small office/home office), devices such as telephones, fax machines, answering machines, dial-up modems, and security alarms should have line filters. But don’t
install one where the DSL modem is located. A heat sink is used to disperse heat away
from a CPU. A router allows access to another network or the Internet. A coaxial splitter is used to split the signal coming from a cable TV company, so that multiple TVs
can be used at the same time.
98. Answer: D. Hard drives run pretty hot; keeping an area of airflow around the drive can
help to keep it cool. The key is to make sure the PC has proper airflow. This can be
done by adding fans or using a liquid cooling system. It isn’t quite possible to add
cache to a hard drive; the cache on most hard drives is hardwired, and there are no
locations to add more. Increasing RAM does not necessarily increase the pagefile, and
regardless, this won’t prevent problems with a hard drive over the short term, but it
can make the hard drive work more efficiently. A second hard drive should be treated
as a completely separate device. However, installing the OS to one drive and storing
data on the second drive can go a long way to making both drives last longer.
99. Answer: A. Power surges can cause the inverter to short out, after which the coldcathode fluorescent lamps (CCFL) cannot get any power. You need to open the LCD
panel to replace the inverter in this case.
100. Answer: B. When testing the main 24-pin ATX power connector that leads from the
power supply to the motherboard, use a multimeter. It can test each individual wire’s
voltage. Better yet, use a power supply unit (PSU) tester. This tests them all in one
shot. A Torx wrench is used to open computers and laptops that have special Torx
screws; T-10 is a common size. A receptacle tester is used to test an AC outlet,
although multimeters can be used for that as well. A tone and probe kit is used to test
telephone and network connections for continuity. However, it can test only one pair of
the wires in the cable. For better results when testing network cables, use a proper
network cable testing kit. Testing tools are a key ingredient in a computer technician’s
toolkit.
4
CHAPTER FOUR
220-801 Practice
Exam C
This time, let’s turn up the gas a little further. I’ll be increasing the level of difficulty once more. This third 220-801 exam
could be considered an advanced practice test. This exam is
also freestyle. You can expect questions from any of the
domains, in any order.
This is where you prove your stuff. If you can score 90% or
higher on this practice test—on the first time through—then
you should be just about ready for the real exam. Still, you
should thoroughly understand all of the concepts before you
register for the real test. Even if you score well, read through
the explanations carefully.
If you didn’t already, I suggest taking a break between exams.
If you just completed the first exam, give yourself a half-hour
or so before you begin this one. Don’t forget, if you did not
score 90% or higher on the first two 220-801 practice exams,
do not take this one yet. Go back and study, and then retake
those exams until you pass with 90% or higher. Then come
back to this exam.
Write down your answers and check them against the answer
key that immediately follows the exam. After the answer key
you will find the explanations for all of the answers. Good
luck!
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Quick Check
Practice Questions
1. Your co-worker Patrick has a Core i5 3.1 GHz CPU. Pat wants you
to tell him what the bus speed is and what the maximum multiplier is. What do you tell him?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 104
3.1 GHz and 31
3.1 GHz and 100
100 and 31
200 and 31
2. Which of the following expansion busses can transmit 1 GB/s per
lane?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 104
A. PCI
B. AGP
❍ C. USB 3.0
❍ D. PCIe
3. A user complains that his network interface card (NIC) is not functioning and has no link lights. The weather has been changing
drastically over the past few days, and humidity and temperature
have been rising and falling every day. What could be the direct
cause of this problem? (Select the best answer.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 104
Thermal expansion and contraction
Thermal sublimation
Chip creep
POST errors
4. A user reports that the battery in his Windows 7 laptop is often
low on power. Which of the following should you recommend to
help the user conserve laptop battery power?
❍
A. Configure the laptop power options to restore power
usage when the laptop is unattended
❍
❍
B. Configure the laptop power option to power saver plan
C. Have the user remove the battery and run the notebook using the electrical cord only
❍ D. Have the user run the laptop using the battery until all
the power is depleted and then recharge the battery
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 104
220-801 Practice Exam C
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✓
Quick Check
5. What is the most important consideration when installing
Windows 7 Ultimate 64-bit?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 105
Memory type
Processor speed
Memory speed
Processor type
6. A help desk phone support technician is finding it difficult to
understand the customer due to a heavy accent. Which action
should the technician take next to help the customer resolve the
problem?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 105
A. Repeat the problem back to the customer
B. Have the customer call back at a later time
C. Ask the customer to not speak with an accent
❍ D. Tell the customer that her accent is preventing the
problem from being solved
7. Which of the following is indicated by repetitive flashing lights on
the keyboard during POST?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 105
A software error
A hardware error
A password is required
An external peripheral error
8. Which network type enables high-speed data communication and
is the most difficult to eavesdrop on?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 105
Satellite
DSL
Fiber optic
Cable
9. Which of the following is a difference between a cellular WAN card
and a WLAN card?
❍
A. A cellular WAN card requires a subscription to a cellular provider, while a WLAN card can work without
provider payment.
❍
B. A cellular WAN card will work on most public wireless
access points, while a WLAN card is more proprietary.
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 105
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❍
C. A WLAN card generally has a range of 6 miles, while a
cellular WAN card is limited in range to 1,200 feet.
❍ D. A WLAN card is usually an external card, while a
cellular WAN card is usually an internal card.
10. Which of the following defines the protocols associated with the
following TCP or UDP port numbers, in order?
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 106
21, 22, 25, 53, 443, 3389.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
FTP, Telnet, SMTP, DNS, HTTP, RDP
FTP, SSH, SMTP, DNS, HTTP, RDP
FTP, SSH, SMTP, POP3, HTTPS, RDP
FTP, SSH, SMTP, DNS, HTTPS, RDP
11. Which of the following is the most appropriate question to ask a
customer first when attempting to troubleshoot an input device
issue over the phone?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 106
Can you describe the steps you have taken?
Have you verified that all USB plugs are secure?
Have you tried turning it off and on again?
Are you sure that the device is plugged in?
12. Which type of RAM stick is RIMM 6400?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
A. DDR
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 106
B. EEPROM
❍ C. SDRAM
❍ D. RAMBUS
❍ E. PC2-6400
13. You are tasked with installing a new SATA revision 3.0 hard drive
controller so that the computer can access hard drives at 6 Gb/s.
Which step list will most likely prevent errors?
❍
A.
1. Install the card.
2. Update the BIOS.
3. Upgrade the card’s firmware.
4. Install the driver.
5. Apply system updates.
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 106
220-801 Practice Exam C
83
✓
Quick Check
❍
B.
1. Apply system updates.
2. Update the BIOS.
3. Install the card.
4. Install the driver.
5. Upgrade the card’s firmware.
❍
C.
1. Update the BIOS.
2. Install the driver.
3. Install the card.
4. Upgrade the firmware.
5. Apply system updates.
❍ D.
1. Apply system updates.
2. Install the driver.
3. Install the card.
4. Upgrade the firmware.
5. Update the BIOS.
14. A new video card you are installing requires a 600 W power
supply. The power supply should have how many pins on the
main cable?
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 106
❍ A. 6 pins
❍ B. 8 pins
❍ C. 20 pins
❍ D. 24 pins
❍ E. 40 pins
15. Russ’s computer has a 60 GB IDE hard drive that contains his
operating system. He wants to add a second IDE hard drive to his
computer. How should he configure the two drives?
❍
A. Russ should configure the new drive as master and
set the old drive as slave.
❍ B. Russ should configure both drives as slaves.
❍ C. Russ should configure both drives as master.
❍ D. Russ should configure the new drive as slave and the
old drive as master.
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 106
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Quick Check
16. Examine the following illustration. Then answer the question that
follows.
Console
Computer A
PC A
Computer B
Computer C
PC B
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 107
Computer D
PC C
What is the minimum number of USB cables required to set up
the three computers, including the keyboard and mouse?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
2
6
8
10
17. Which of the following data rates are supported by PC3-10600
memory?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 107
1333 MT/s and 1066 MT/s
1066 MT/s and 800 MT/s
1600 MT/s and 1333 MT/s
1600 MT/s and 800 MT/s
18. Which of the following properties of a heat sink has the greatest
effect on heat dissipation?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 107
Connection type
Shape
Surface area
Proximity to the power supply
19. You are working just outside a server room that is being built,
and you hear a loud popping sound from inside. As you enter the
server room, you notice an electrician lying on the floor with an
electrical cord in his hand. What should you do first?
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 107
220-801 Practice Exam C
85
✓
Quick Check
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Call 911.
Call the building supervisor.
Pull the electrician away from the cord.
Turn off the electrical power at the source.
20. You have been asked to load a copy of the company’s purchased
software on a personal computer. What should you do first?
❍
A. Verify that the install is allowed under the company’s
licensing agreements.
❍
❍
B. Notify the company’s owner of the breach.
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 107
C. Advise the individual that downloading unlicensed
software is illegal.
❍ D. Leave the premises and call local law enforcement.
21. After removing malware/spyware from a customer’s PC for the
third time, what should you do?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 107
Tell him you can’t fix the system again.
Do nothing; the customer pays every time.
Show him how to avoid the problem.
Change his user permissions.
22. A PC has the memory configuration listed below. Assuming RAM
is the same price per MB, which of the following answers would
be the least expensive when upgrading the PC to 12 GB of RAM?
Memory Slots:
2
DRAM Frequency:
667 MHz
Slot 1
Capacity:
4096 MB
Memory Type:
DDR3 (PC3-10600)
Speed:
667 MHz (DDR3-1333)
Slot 2
Capacity:
2048 MB
Memory Type:
DDR3 (PC3-10600)
Speed:
667 MHz (DDR3-1333)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
A single 6 GB DDR3 PC3-12800 memory module
A single 8 GB DDR3 PC3-12800 memory module
A single 10 GB DDR3 PC3-10600 memory module
Two 6 GB DDR3 PC3-10700 memory modules
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 107
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Quick Check
23. A user calls and complains that he cannot get onto the Internet,
although he could just minutes before. What should you say to the
user?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 108
What is your IP address?
Wait 10 minutes, and then try it again.
Do you remember the last thing that you did?
Let me get my supervisor.
24. Which of the following multimeter settings should be used only
when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested?
(Select the two best answers.)
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 108
A. Continuity
B. Wattage
C. Voltage
❍ D. Amps
❍ E. Resistance
25. You need to set up a server system that will run in a VM. It will
have the bulk of the network computers’ resources and will supply
much of the resources necessary to the client computers that will
connect to it. You are also required to set up the client computers.
What two types of systems (server and client) will you be implementing?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 108
A. CAD/CAM workstation and PCs
B. Virtualization workstation and thin clients
❍ C. Home server PC and thick clients
❍ D. AV workstation and laptops
26. Your boss can receive e-mail but can’t seem to send e-mail with
the installed e-mail client software. Which protocol is not configured properly?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
SMTP
POP3
FTP
HTTP
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 108
220-801 Practice Exam C
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Quick Check
27. A customer’s laptop LCD needs replacement. Which tool should
you use to open the case?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 108
Pliers
Plastic tweezers
Flathead screwdriver
Plastic shim
28. A customer is having a hard time describing a computer problem.
You are not sure what the problem is or where it is occurring.
What should you do?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 108
A. Offer various different repair options
B. Use computer jargon to help relax the customer
C. Ask the customer to slowly repeat what the problem is
❍ D. Tell the customer that you have to leave and that the
problem will be fixed soon
29. Which component requires a “burn-in” period?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
CPU
Power supply
Motherboard
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 109
CMOS chip
BIOS setup
POST
Bootstrap loader
31. What controls the data transfer between the CPU, RAM, and PCIe
devices on motherboards that support Intel Core 2 CPUs?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 109
Hard drive
30. When a PC is first booted, which of the following tests the processor, RAM, video card, disk controllers, disk drives, and keyboard?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
ICH
MCH
FSB
DMI
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 109
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Quick Check
32. It seems someone has spilled a large amount of coffee in the
break room and has not cleaned it up. It is seeping into the server
room next door. What should you do first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Notify the network administrator
Start mopping up the mess
Reference the MSDS
Puts a uniform negative charge on the drum
Detailed Answer: 109
Puts the toner on the drum
Removes static electricity
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 109
BIOS
CMOS
CR2032
Setup
35. Which of the following is the fastest?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Puts a uniform positive charge on the drum
34. What device on the motherboard retains variable information such
as the time and date?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 109
Fill out an accident report
33. A laser printer’s primary corona wire does which of the following?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
A. Bus speed
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 110
B. External clock speed
❍ C. Internal clock speed
❍ D. Expansion bus speed
36. Which of the following can be used to verify settings between the
computer and a connected modem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 110
AT&V
IRQ
MBR
QPI
37. Tim wants to use a wireless mouse with short-range communications. Which of the following is the best?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Cellular
Bluetooth
USB
Ethernet
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 110
220-801 Practice Exam C
89
✓
Quick Check
38. Which of the following cables connects the parallel port of the
computer to the printer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
IEEE 1394
IEEE 1284
IEEE 802.11
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 110
Another computer system
BIOS setting
Windows
POST card
40. When explaining a technical concept to a customer, which of the
following is not permissible?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 110
IEEE 802.3
39. What tool is used to test all computer hardware prior to installing
an operating system?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 110
Using analogies
Using visual aides
Using jargon
Limiting the amount of information to what is
necessary for the user to know
41. What tool would you use to test the voltage of a power supply?
(Select the two best answers.)
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 110
❍ A. Multimeter
❍ B. Loopback plug
❍ C. Cable tester
❍ D. Antistatic mat
❍ E. PSU tester
42. One of your customers is running Windows 7 on a PC that has a
2 GHz CPU, 2 GB RAM, and a 64 MB video card. The customer
tells you that performance is slow when Aero is enabled. How can
you increase performance on the computer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Increase system RAM
Upgrade the video card
Increase the hard drive capacity
Upgrade the CPU
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 111
90
Chapter 4
✓
Quick Check
43. Why do some computers share RAM with the video card?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
To make the computer faster
To lower cost
To reduce temperature
775
Detailed Answer: 111
1155
1366
1000 Mbps
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 111
20 Gb/s
3.0 Gb/s
5 Gbps
46. You are building an HTPC. Which form factor and video output
should you select?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
940
45. What is the data transfer rate of DMI version 2.0?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 111
To make the computer run more quietly
44. Which socket replaces the Intel 1156 socket?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 111
A. ATX and DVI
B. Mobile-ITX and HDMI
C. Pico-ITX and RG-6
❍ D. microATX and HDMI
47. Which of the following would you configure in the BIOS? (Select
the four best answers.)
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 111
❍ A. Time and Date
❍ B. The registry
❍ C. Boot sequence
❍ D. Passwords
❍ E. USB drivers
❍ F. WOL
48. You have selected a motherboard for your new audio workstation.
You have opened the computer case and are ready to install. What
are the first and last things you should do? (Select the two best
answers.)
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 111
220-801 Practice Exam C
91
✓
Quick Check
❍ A. Select a motherboard
❍ B. Install the CPU
❍ C. Test the motherboard
❍ D. Put on an antistatic strap
❍ E. Connect the main power cable
49. You want to test whether IPv4 and IPv6 are working properly on a
computer. Which commands should you issue?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Ping 127.0.0.0 and Ping :1
Ping 127.0.0.1 and Ping ::1
ipconfig 127.0.0.1 and Ping 127::1
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 112
1 GHz
333 MHz
666 MHz
1333 MHz
51. Which of the following measurements is the typical latency of a
SATA hard drive?
❍
Detailed Answer: 112
ipconfig ::1 and ping ::1
50. Jim has a Core 2 Quad CPU in his desktop computer. If the base
clock of his motherboard is 333MHz, what would the front side
bus (FSB) be?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 112
A. 300 MB/s
❍ B. 7200 RPM
❍ C. 16 MB
❍ D. 4.2 ms
52. The marketing printer has been used for 4 years. What should you
do for the printer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 112
Clean the printer
Install a maintenance kit
Clear the counter
Print a test page
53. Which PC Card slot can manage all the various PC Cards?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 112
92
Chapter 4
✓
Quick Check
54. What should you never expose the drum of a laser printer to?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Airflow
Detailed Answer: 112
Cold temperature
A strong light source
Toner dust
55. Which tool should you use to determine why a computer fails to
boot?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 112
Cable tester
Loopback plug
PSU tester
Tone and probe kit
56. You just installed a customer’s printer and tested it. What should
you do next?
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 112
❍ A. Recheck all connections
❍ B. Bill the customer
❍ C. Turn the printer on and off
❍ D. Show the customer the printer’s basic functionality
❍ E. Install a maintenance kit
57. Which of the following are AMD CPU sockets? (Select the three
best answers.)
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 113
A. AM3
❍ B. 1155
❍ C. FM1
❍ D. 775
❍ E. G34
58. How much L1 cache does a Core i5 CPU with four cores contain
in total?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
32 KB
64 KB
128 KB
256 KB
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 113
220-801 Practice Exam C
93
✓
Quick Check
59. Which type of cache memory is shared by all cores of a CPU?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
L1
Detailed Answer: 113
L2
L3
DRAM
60. Which technology calculates two independent sets of instructions
simultaneously, simulating two CPUs?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 113
Hyper-threading
HyperTransport
TurboBoost
Multi-core
61. How is TDP measured?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Volts
Watts
Ohms
Amps
62. You are tasked with plugging a network patch cable into an
inactive drop within a user’s cubicle. Which tool enables you
to find the correct network drop in the wiring closet so that
you can make the port hot?
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 113
A. PSU tester
❍ B. Multimeter
❍ C. Cable tester
❍ D. Tone and probe kit
63. You think that the power supply in your PC might be failing,
causing issues with a SATA drive. You decide to test the SATA
drive. What are the standard voltages of a SATA connection on
an ATX power supply?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
3.3 V, 5 v, 12 V
-3.3 V, 5 V, –12 V
-5 V, 5 V, 12 V
5 V and 12 V
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 113
94
Chapter 4
✓
Quick Check
64. You just installed a maintenance kit to a laser printer. What should
you do next?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Print a test page
Refill the paper trays
Restart the printer
IEEE 1394a
1000BASE-T
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 114
FireWire
IEEE 1284
Bluetooth
IEEE 1394
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 114
Reroute the cables using a protective material
Secure the cables to the floor with tape
Install a wireless network
Move the computers closer to the server
68. You’ve opened a CRT. Before working on the CRT, what should
you do?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 114
eSATA
67. A company has Category 5e cabling lying on the floor in several
locations. Which of the following is the most appropriate action
to take?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
USB 2.0
66. What is the best solution for making a direct wireless connection
between a laptop and a printer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 114
Restore the printer to factory settings
65. Which type of external connection allows for the fastest hard drive
data rate?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Discharge the monitor
Clean the monitor
Degauss the monitor
Unplug the monitor
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 114
220-801 Practice Exam C
95
✓
Quick Check
69. You are on a service call and receive an urgent phone call. What
action should you take?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 114
A. Leave the site and take the call.
B. Talk with the person while working.
C. Ask to be excused, and after determining the urgency
of the call, go back to work.
❍ D. Ask to be excused, and after determining that it is not
a truly urgent call, get right back to work while talking
on the phone.
70. Which of the following is defined as the movement of electric
charge?
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 114
A. Voltage
❍ B. Wattage
❍ C. Amperage
❍ D. Impedance
71. What are the standard voltages in the United States for a home
and for the internal workings of a PC?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
120 V AC, 240 V DC
240 V AC, 5 V DC
120 V AC, 12 V DC
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 115
Soap and water
WD-40
Isopropyl alcohol
A moist cloth
73. One of your customers wishes to have broadband Internet access
set up in her home office. She is on a tight budget and doesn’t
want to pay for additional equipment. Which of the following
technologies would be the best solution?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 115
240 V AC, 12 V DC
72. Which of the following should be used to clean a laser printer’s
rubber rollers?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
ISDN
T-3
Cable modem
T-1
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 115
96
Chapter 4
✓
Quick Check
74. An administrator cannot connect to a network volume. Which of
the following is the best path for the administrator to use?
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 115
❍ A. \\computername\C$
❍ B. \\ipaddress\sharename
❍ C. //computername/C$
❍ D. http://computername/C
❍ E. \\computername\sharename
75. A co-worker at a satellite office reports that a new replacement
shared workgroup printer has arrived. It is the same model as the
old one. Your co-worker replaced the old printer and connected all
the cables to the new printer. What is the easiest way to ensure that
all the client computers can connect to the new printer via IPP?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Allow the printer to acquire a DHCP address
In DHCP, set a reservation by MAC address
Have your co-worker print the configuration page
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 115
ipp://10.10.1.5/printer1
https://10.1.1.5/printer1
//10.10.1.5/printer1
http:\\10.10.1.5\printer1
77. Which of the following communications protocols is used to
connect to websites over secure communications links?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 115
Name the new printer with the old printer name
76. A user cannot connect to a printer with the following UNC path:
\\10.10.1.5\printer1. Which of the following paths is the best
solution?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 115
SSH
SFTP
HTTPS
Kerberos
78. Which of the following protocols can be used to configure and
monitor network printer device status?
❍ A. SMTP
❍ B. SNMP
❍ C. TCP/IP
❍ D. IPP
❍ E. DNS
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 116
220-801 Practice Exam C
97
✓
Quick Check
79. Your co-worker Jake is planning on using an extension magnet to
pick up a screw that dropped inside a computer case. What
should you recommend he do before attempting this?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 116
A. Make sure the extension magnet is rubber coated
B. Back up the computer to prevent any potential loss
of data
❍ C. Turn on the computer to prevent shorts
❍ D. Unplug the power cord to prevent shorts
80. Which of the following are descriptions or examples of unicast
IPv6 addresses? (Select the two best answers.)
❍
A. An address assigned to a group of interfaces where
the packets are delivered to all interfaces
❍
❍
B. An address assigned to one interface
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 116
C. An address assigned to a group of interfaces where
the packets are delivered to the first interface only
❍ D. A loopback address of ::1
81. Which of the following symptoms would indicate to you that there
is a power supply issue?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 116
The CPU is overclocking.
Wi-Fi range is reduced.
Frequent failure of hard drives.
Your CD burner takes longer to write than usual.
82. Which of the following custom PC configurations require powerful
CPUs? (Select the three best answers.)
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 116
❍ A. CAD/CAM workstation
❍ B. Audio/Video editing workstation
❍ C. Virtualization workstation
❍ D. Gaming PC
❍ E. Home theater PC
❍ F. Home server PC
83. You need to install a device that can read groupings of parallel
lines. Which device should you select?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Biometric scanner
Image scanner
Barcode reader
Touchpad
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 117
98
Chapter 4
✓
Quick Check
84. You are building a new PC and want to select a motherboard that
will support the Scalable Link Interface (SLI) technology so that
you can install two SLI video cards connected by a bridge. Which
of the following expansion slots should the motherboard have for
your two video cards?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 117
Two AGP slots
Two PCIe slots
A PCI and PCIe slot
An AGP and PCIe slot
85. You are building a new PC for a customer. Which of the following
is the most valid reason why you would select SATA 3.0 over the
original SATA 2.0?
❍
A. You are installing an external SATA drive.
❍
B. You are attempting to implement hot-swapping
functionality.
❍
C. You are trying to optimize the system for audio and
video.
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 117
❍ D. You do not want to use jumpers.
86. Which of the following is the best tool to use to reach a screw that
has fallen into a computer case and out of reach?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 102
Detailed Answer: 117
A. Pliers
B. Wrist strap
C. Tweezers
❍ D. Extension magnet
87. You need to replace RAM in a customer’s PC that currently uses
PC3-10600 memory. Unfortunately, you do not have any RAM
meeting that exact specification. Which RAM should you install?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 117
PC3-6400
PC3-8500
PC3-12800
DDR3-1066
88. Which of the following RAID arrays is fault tolerant and allows you
to do striping?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 102
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 10
Quick Answer: 103
Detailed Answer: 117
220-801 Practice Exam C
99
✓
Quick Check
89. Which of the following are components of dealing with prohibited
content? (Select the three best answers.)
Quick Answer: 103
Detailed Answer: 118
❍ A. First response
❍ B. Maintaining a positive attitude
❍ C. Preserving data
❍ D. Creating a chain of custody
❍ E. Avoiding distraction
90. Which of the following are two possible reasons that an optical
mouse cursor erratically jumps around the screen? (Select the
two best answers.)
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 103
Detailed Answer: 118
A. It’s using an incorrect mouse driver.
B. The mouse trackball needs to be removed and
cleaned.
❍ C. There’s a conflict with the keyboard.
❍ D. It’s on an uneven surface.
❍ E. The mouse needs to be charged.
91. If you are dealing with a power issue, what should you check
first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 118
Input devices
Cabling
Wall outlet
Power supply
92. If a computer receives the IP address 169.254.127.1, what has
failed?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 103
Quick Answer: 103
Detailed Answer: 118
DHCP
DNS
WINS
APIPA
93. An older Core 2 Duo computer is overheating because there is very
little open space within the computer case. What are two things you
can do to increase proper airflow? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A. Drill holes in the computer case to increase airflow
❍ B. Install a passive hard drive cooler
❍ C. Install an additional case fan
❍ D. Install a liquid cooling system
❍ E. Install rounded IDE cables
Quick Answer: 103
Detailed Answer: 119
100
Chapter 4
✓
Quick Check
94. Emergency! Your boss forgot the password to the BIOS on a
computer. Which of the following methods helps you to reset the
password?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 119
Remove the RAM from the motherboard
Remove the CMOS battery from the motherboard
Remove the RAM jumper from the motherboard
Remove the main power connection from the
motherboard
95. When dealing with difficult customers, what should you do?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 103
A. Do not minimize a customer’s problems
Quick Answer: 103
Detailed Answer: 119
B. Report through proper channels
C. Track evidence through documentation
❍ D. Tell the customer to remove confidential documents
96. In a RAID 5 array of eight hard drives, how many can fail without
losing the entire array?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
1
2
5
Quick Answer: 103
Detailed Answer: 120
Remove the LCD
Clean it thoroughly
Remove the hard drive
Remove the WLAN card
98. Which of the following are the Intel and AMD names for CPU
virtualization? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 119
0
97. What should you do first before shipping a user’s laptop to the
manufacturer for repair?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 103
VT-x
AMD-Vi
VT-d
AMD-V
Quick Answer: 103
Detailed Answer: 119
220-801 Practice Exam C
101
✓
Quick Check
99. At 12x speed, how much data can a Blu-ray drive read per
second?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 120
50 GB
432 Mb/s
4.5 MB/s
150 KB/s
100. Which of the following video connectors accepts digital and
analog video signals only?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 103
DVI-D
DVI-A
DVI-I
HDMI Type B
Quick Answer: 103
Detailed Answer: 120
102
Chapter 4
Quick-Check Answer Key
1. C
30. C
59. C
2. D
31. B
60. A
3. A
32. B
61. B
4. B
33. A
62. D
5. D
34. B
63. A
6. A
35. C
64. B
7. B
36. A
65. B
8. C
37. B
66. C
9. A
38. C
67. A
10. D
39. D
68. A
11. A
40. C
69. C
12. D
41. A and E
70. C
13. B
42. B
71. D
14. D
43. C
72. D
15. D
44. C
73. C
16. C
45. B
74. A
17. A
46. D
75. C
18. C
47. A, C, D, and F
76. A
19. D
48. C and D
77. C
20. A
49. C
78. B
21. C
50. D
79. D
22. B
51. D
80. B and D
23. C
52. B
81. C
24. A and E
53. C
82. A, C, and D
25. B
54. C
83. C
26. A
55. C
84. B
27. D
56. D
85. C
28. C
57. A, C, and E
86. D
29. C
58. C
87. C
220-801 Practice Exam C
88. C
93. C and E
98. A and D
89. A, C, and D
94. B
99. B
90. A and D
95. A
100. C
91. C
96. B
92. A
97. C
103
104
Chapter 4
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: C. The default bus speed (without overclocking) for a Core i5 3.1 GHz CPU is
100 MHz. The maximum multiplier is 31 times that, or 3.1 GHz. But that is only if the
processor requires it. Often, a CPU such as this will hover at around 1600 MHz (1.6
GHz), for a multiplier of 16. The multiplier is variable and will only increase if the
system runs more applications and requires more CPU power. Of course, many Intel
CPUs also have TurboBoost technology, which allows the CPU to be raised by 10%
beyond the maximum; in this case it would be up to 3.4 GHz when needed. This is a
basic and fairly safe type of overclocking. Many motherboards also let you increase
the system bus speed. Some boards will stop you at say 105 MHz; others let you
overclock the system bus to as high as 300 MHz (not recommended). Treat overclocking with extreme caution—the increased voltage and ensuing heat can easily cause the
CPU to overheat and cause damage to the CPU and other devices in the system, as
well as possibly corrupt data stored on the hard drive.
2. Answer: D. PCI Express (PCIe) version 3.0 can transmit 1 GB/s per lane. That
means it can send and receive 1 GB of data every second. And PCIe x16 slots, since
they have 16 lanes, can send and receive 16 GB/s simultaneously. PCIe is the only
technology listed that uses lanes. AGP maxes out at 2,133 MB/s. PCI has a maximum
of either 133 or 266 MB/s. USB 3.0 sends 5 Gbps, or 480 MB/s. Neither AGP, PCI,
nor USB use lanes. AGP and PCI are parallel technologies. PCIe and USB are serial
technologies.
3. Answer: A. Thermal expansion and contraction happen when humidity changes
quickly. This can lead to what some technicians refer to as “chip creep” or “card
creep.” Although there might have been chip creep, the direct cause of the problem
was most likely thermal expansion/contraction. POST errors would not be the cause
of the error but in some cases could give you diagnostic information leading to the
cause. Thermal sublimation deals with a specific type of printing process and is not
involved in the problem. While in the computer, you might want to check other adapter
cards in case they were affected by this phenomenon as well.
4. Answer: B. You should recommend configuring the laptop power option to power
saver plan. The power saver plan will dim the display, shut down the display and hard
drives after 10 minutes or so, and put the computer to sleep soon after that. This will
help to conserve battery power. You can also suggest that the user close applications
when not in use and turn off Bluetooth and Wi-Fi while they are not being used.
Disabling special video effects in Windows can also conserve battery power. Keeping
the device stored in a dry cool area out of direct sunlight also helps. Finally, tell the
user that he should charge the battery often! As for the other answers: Restoring
power usage when the laptop is unattended would seem like the opposite of conserving battery power. Removing the battery will definitely conserve battery power, but at
the cost of not using it anymore. Only fully discharge the battery if it will not hold a
charge anymore. If that doesn’t help, replace the battery. The question’s scenario says
nothing about the battery not charging; it simply says that the battery is often low on
power.
220-801 Practice Exam C
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5. Answer: D. The most important consideration when installing any 64-bit operating
system is the processor type. The CPU needs to be 64-bit to run 64-bit Windows.
32-bit CPUs will not run 64-bit Windows. Yes, Windows 7 requires a 1 GHz CPU,
but honestly, if you don’t have that speed, then you don’t have much of a computer.
Memory type doesn’t really matter much; if it’s a PC, then the memory type should be
fine. But the amount of memory is important. 1 GB is necessary for 32-bit systems,
but once again, the 64-bit consideration becomes important again; 64-bit versions of
Windows 7 require 2 GB RAM.
6. Answer: A. The technician should repeat the problem back to the customer to make
sure that everyone is talking about the same thing and that both parties understand
each other. Always clarify! Having the customer call back later is just delaying the
problem. Asking a person with an accent to stop speaking with an accent is like
telling a dog to stop wagging its tail; it probably will be futile. A technician needs
to be culturally sensitive. If you seriously cannot understand the customer even
after attempting to listen several times and repeating the problem back, you will
have to get someone else involved who can help you or attempt to communicate
with the person through e-mail.
7. Answer: B. Most likely, repetitive flashing lights on a keyboard will indicate the
presence of a hardware error, probably internal to the computer. If nothing comes
up on the display, and all you have to go by are flashing lights on the keyboard, you
can probably ascertain that the POST has failed and that the problem lies within the
big four (as I like to call them): CPU, RAM, video, or motherboard. Software errors
can’t occur until the operating system attempts to boot, and without the POST finishing successfully, that won’t happen. Passwords are required when you see a repetitive
flashing light on the screen, not on the keyboard—and even then, only if you are
attempting to access the BIOS or if someone configured a user password in the BIOS.
External peripherals don’t need to post properly for the computer to boot to the OS.
Even the keyboard isn’t necessary. The POST is more interested in the guts of the
computer, especially the big four and the hard drive.
8. Answer: C. Fiber-optic networks use fiber-optic cables that have a core of plastic or
glass fibers. These are much more difficult to eavesdrop on than any copper cable.
Satellite connections and cable Internet use RG-6. DSL uses a standard phone line
or other twisted-pair cable.
9. Answer: A. The only real difference listed between cellular WAN cards and WLAN
cards is that a cellular WAN card requires a subscription to a cellular provider, while a
WLAN card can work without provider payment. There are plenty of free Wi-Fi (WLAN)
networks out there. It is cellular WAN cards that are more proprietary. You would have
to get a WAN card that matches your service: AT&T, Verizon, and so on. On to the
other answers: It is the WAN card that has a range of miles, whereas the WLAN card
will be limited to 820 feet outdoors (if 802.11n less for other WLAN standards).
Finally, both WLAN and WAN cards can be external or internal. Remember that
Wireless LAN (WLAN) technologies that are ratified by the IEEE such as 802.11n and
802.11g are commonly referred to as Wi-Fi. However, remember that Wi-Fi is a registered trademark, and the actual technologies you are using are technically known as
WLAN.
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10. Answer: D. The port numbers 21, 22, 25, 53, 443, and 3389 correspond to the protocols FTP, SSH, SMTP, DNS, HTTPS, and RDP. The Telnet protocol uses port 23. Telnet
is deprecated, insecure, and outdated; plus it isn’t even enabled or installed on newer
versions of operating systems. Use SSH in its place for a more secure connection.
HTTP uses port 80. POP3 uses port 110. Know your port numbers!
11. Answer: A. The key here is what you ask the customer first. You should first ask the
customer to describe the steps taken so far. By asking this, you will probably elicit a
lot of the other listed answers from the customer. Remember, you are not accusing
the user of anything; you are simply asking what the customer did so far. You don’t
even know if the device is USB or not. Plus, some devices are not turned on and off.
They simply plug into the computer and either work or don’t. And when you ask what
the customer has done so far, the person will probably tell you that she plugged the
device in. The moral of this question is to get the whole story before asking questions
that are arbitrary—and possibly unnecessary.
12. Answer: D. RIMMs are designed by a company called Rambus. The RIMM is a competitor of DDR; it is also known as RDRAM as opposed to SDRAM. Rambus also
makes RAM for game consoles known as XDR RAM. EEPROM stands for electrically
erasable programmable read-only memory; it is used by BIOS chips and is not a RAM
stick. PC2-6400 is a DDR2 module name that transmits 6,400 MB/s; its standard
name is DDR2-800 because it can perform 800 MT/s.
13. Answer: B. The process order for installing a new hard drive controller card is to: 1.
Apply system updates; 2. Update the BIOS; 3. Install the card physically; 4. Install the
driver; and finally 5. Upgrade the card’s firmware. That’s the smartest list of steps for
any hardware upgrade. You want to update the BIOS before installing the card, so that
the BIOS will have a better chance of recognizing it. Of course, you should have made
sure that the card is compatible with the motherboard and your version of Windows
before purchasing. Update the controller card’s firmware last. All of the other listed
orders have anomalies that could lead to errors. For example, applying the system
updates last would cause Windows to recognize the card properly too late. It might
also cause Windows to attempt to install a Microsoft driver when you really want the
manufacturer’s driver. When upgrading, think this way: Windows updates, BIOS
updates, physical install, driver install, special firmware upgrades. Then test it, and if it
tests true, sit back and whistle your favorite tune. All PC techs do that, right?
14. Answer: D. The main power connection should have 24 pins. Just about all PCs you
will see will have a 24-pin power cable. So the question was more of a tricky one. It’s
not asking for the video power connection, which could be a single 6-pin, a double 6pin, or a single 8-pin; that will depend on the type of video card. You have to remember that powerful video cards will require more powerful power supplies. Older systems used the 20-pin main power connector, but those are rare nowadays, even if you
are upgrading an older computer. 40 pins is the amount of pins an IDE hard drive’s
data cable has. You might ask “Who cares about IDE?” The answer: CompTIA. It’s on
the objectives so you should know it. But also, you will still be dealing with IDE drives,
whether it is on older computers or on systems that you are upgrading (or restoring
data from).
15. Answer: D. The operating system should be contained within the master drive. By
setting the jumper to master on the old drive and setting the jumper to slave on the
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new drive, Russ will accomplish that. Selecting any other setting listed might result in
problems booting to the operating system. Another option is to use the cable select
jumper setting that will attempt to automatically configure the new drive as a slave.
Note that this can be done only if the drive is equipped with that jumper setting.
16. Answer: C. Eight USB cables minimum are required for this configuration—one for
the USB mouse, one for the USB keyboard, and six for the PCs that are connecting
to the KVM switch (two each). A KVM switch allows you to control two or more computers with a single keyboard and mouse. The device also needs only one display. Of
course, you can look at only one computer’s video display at a time. This kind of
device is great for training purposes and lab and testing environments.
17. Answer: A. If a motherboard supports it at all, the board will support PC3-10600
running at 1,333 megatransfers per second (MT/s) and at 1066 MT/s. A PC3-10600
module is DDR3-1333. The default data rate is 1333 MT/s, but it can be underclocked
to 1066 MT/s. You might see this referred to as 1333 and 1066 MHz, respectively, but
that is not accurate. DDR3-1333 actually has an I/O bus clock rate of 667 MHz; it’s the
data rate that is 1333 MT/s. Most motherboards can underclock a RAM module by at
least one step if necessary. For example, if you have a motherboard that can normally
only handle DDR3-1066 memory modules, you could still install DDR3-1333 memory
modules, but they would be automatically underclocked to 1066. If you were to see
this question expressed as the I/O bus clock rate, then PC3-10600 would run at 667
MHz (the default) and 533 MHz (underclocked). Some RAM modules and motherboards support underclocking even further; for example, in this scenario as low as
400 MHz (800 MT/s.)
Of course, another option (though not recommended) would be to overclock the
motherboard to meet the data rate of the new RAM. The key in this question is to
know the various data rates of DDR. To sum up: Any particular memory module will
usually run at least one step slower than its default rate.
18. Answer: C. It’s the surface area of the heat sink that has the greatest effect on heat
dispersion. The more solid the bond between the heat sink and CPU cap, the better the
transition of heat out of the CPU. To aid in this, thermal compound must be used.
19. Answer: D. If the electrician is being electrocuted, you do not want to touch him.
Because it appears that the power is still on, turn it off at the source (if it is not near
the sparking wire). This will usually be the circuit breaker. Then call 911. Do not move
the cord or the electrician; you could be next.
20. Answer: A. You should first verify that the installation is allowed under a company’s
licensing agreement. It probably isn’t, but you should check first. Most organizations
will not allow purchased software to be installed on an employee’s home computer. If
it is against organization policy, then you should notify your supervisor.
21. Answer: C. Teach the user how to avoid this problem. The customer will then be more
likely to come back to you with other computer problems. ‘Nuff said.
22. Answer: B. The best answer here is to select a single 8 GB DDR3 PC3-12800 memory
module. Even though it is faster than the current RAM, it can be underclocked automatically by most PC motherboards to match the PC3-10600 speed. Note that the
question stated that RAM is assumed to be the same price per MB. The current 2 GB
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memory module in Slot 2 would be removed, and the new 8 GB module would replace
it. When finished, that and the current memory module in Slot 1 would equal 12 GB
total. The 6 GB module wouldn’t work because there would be no way to achieve 12
GB mathematically (we are limited to two slots). The 10 GB module would work mathematically (if we removed the current module in Slot 1) but would be more expensive
as opposed to an 8 GB module (more GB, more money). Finally, two 6 GB modules
would work if we removed both current modules, but it would be even more expensive.
Compatibility is quite important, but in some situations you might actually purchase a
faster type of RAM to save money!
23. Answer: C. Questioning the user can often lead to what caused the issue. Of course,
you do not want to accuse the user of anything; instead, just ask what the user did last
on the computer.
24. Answers: A and E. Of the listed answers, continuity and resistance are the settings that
should be used when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested, and you
want to be sure that there is no electrical flow when doing these tests! Examples of
continuity or resistance tests include testing a fuse’s impedance (measured in ohms)
and testing a network cable for continuity. In each example, you don’t want any electricity flowing through the device or line. It would give erratic results and could possibly cause damage to your testing equipment, and even you. When testing for watts,
volts, and amps, you need to have electricity flowing through the item you want to test.
25. Answer: B. You will be implementing a virtualization workstation and thin clients. The
virtualization workstation will run virtual software that will allow you to install the server software to a virtual machine (VM). This server will provide most of the resources
for the clients on the network—the thin clients. Thin clients normally have very limited
resources of their own and rely on the server (be it a regular or virtual server) for the
additional resources they need. A CAD/CAM workstation is used for computer-aided
design and manufacturing. PCs have plenty of their own resources and do not need a
server supplying those resources. A home server PC is a possibility in this scenario, if
it runs in a virtual environment. However, thick clients don’t meet the requirements of
this scenario. Thick clients have plenty of resources and are often used as another
name for PCs. An AV workstation is an audio/video workstation, not a server, and laptops are not thin clients; they also have plenty of internal resources.
26. Answer: A. The Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) is not configured properly.
That is the protocol used to send mail. POP3 receives e-mail. FTP enables two computers to upload and download files. HTTP is the protocol used by web browsers to surf
the Internet.
27. Answer: D. Use a plastic shim to open the display or remove the bezel that surrounds
it. Pliers have many uses but could cause damage to the plastic that surrounds the
display of a laptop. Plastic tweezers are used to remove hard-to-reach parts such as
screws from the inside of a PC. Flathead screwdrivers are not recommended because
the metal can damage the plastic case of the laptop.
28. Answer: C. If the customer is having a hard time describing the problem, leaving you
at a loss as to what to fix, ask the person to slowly repeat what the problem is. Try to
relax him and be understanding, and especially patient. The more patient you appear,
the more chance the customer will paint you a good picture of what the problem is.
You should not offer any repair options until you know exactly what the problem is.
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Computer jargon never helps the situation; if you start using terms the customer is
unfamiliar with, then you risk alienating the customer and making things more difficult. Never abruptly leave the customer. Persevere, find out what the problem is, and
repair it as soon as possible.
29. Answer: C. Power supplies are easily damaged in transit. Because of this, it is wise to
run them for a while (burn them in) as part of your final checklist when working on or
building a PC. This way you will be sure that the power supply is functional.
30. Answer: C. The Power-on Self Test (POST) checks the CPU, memory, video card, and
so on when the computer first boots and displays any error messages if any errors
occur. The POST is a part of the BIOS. The CMOS chip retains settings that the BIOS
records during the POST. The Bootstrap loader is within the ROM ship as well. When
the computer is turned on, it automatically reads the hard disk drive boot sector to
continue the process of booting the operating system.
31. Answer: B. The Memory Controller Hub (MCH) makes the connection between,
and controls the data transfer of, the CPU, RAM, and x16 PCIe devices on older
Intel motherboards that support Core 2 CPUs. This device is also referred to as the
northbridge. On newer Intel systems (such as Core i5 or i7 systems), the northbridge
functionality is embedded within the CPU. The ICH (I/O Controller Hub) makes the
connections to secondary systems such as USB and SATA. This device is also referred
to as the southbridge. The FSB (front side bus) connects the CPU to the MCH (northbridge) in motherboards that support Core 2 CPUs. The Direct Media Interface (DMI)
makes the connection between the chipset and the CPU on motherboards that support
Core i3, i5, and i7 CPUs. It is somewhat of a replacement for the FSB. AMD systems
still use the northbridge/southbridge concept; however, like Intel, any memory controlling functionality is built in to the CPU. Be sure to understand both Intel architectures
as well as how AMD fits into the whole scheme of things!
32. Answer: B. If anything is going to disturb the server room or other equipment rooms,
notify the network administrator immediately. It’s coffee—no need to fill out an accident report. After you notify the admin, you might choose to mop up the mess; that’s
your prerogative, but I would hope the person who made the mess had a hand in
cleaning it up. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) are available for anything that has
a chemical within it. I’ve had some terrible coffee in my day, but nothing that required
an MSDS.
33. Answer: A. The primary corona wire places a negative charge on the photosensitive
drum. A positive charge is applied to the paper by the transfer corona wire later in the
laser printing process. Toner is placed on the drum from the toner hopper. The toner
is attracted to the areas that have a lesser negative charge. Static electricity is
removed by a static eliminator strip.
34. Answer: B. The complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) retains (stores)
changing or variable information such as the time and date. It is volatile, so a lithium
battery (usually a CR2032) is used to power the CMOS when the computer is off. The
BIOS or setup can locate and identify devices but does not store the variable information mentioned. The term “Setup” is usually associated with the file (setup.exe) which
installs Windows and programs to be installed to Windows.
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35. Answer: C. The internal clock speed is the frequency of the CPU—for example, 3.1
GHz. It is normally faster than the external clock speed (FSB on older Intel systems). It
is also faster than the bus speed (otherwise known as the base clock speed)—for
example, 100 MHz.
36. Answer: A. The AT&V modem diagnostic command is used to verify connectivity and
display settings between a computer and a connected dial-up modem. Most modem
commands begin with AT. IRQ stands for Interrupt ReQuest, a number assigned to a
device that allows it to initiate communication with the CPU. The MBR is the master
boot record. A boot sector on PCs, it is 512 bytes in size and is within the first sector
of the hard drive. It often holds the partition table and/or bootstrapping information.
QPI stands for QuickPath Interconnect, an Intel technology that connects the chipset to
the CPU. It is a more powerful version of the Direct Media Interface (DMI).
37. Answer: B. Bluetooth works well as a short-range wireless communication technology.
Cellular is longer range and actually for sending data (for example, an ExpressCard
GPRS cellular data card). USB and Ethernet are wired! And there are no Ethernet mice,
except for the ones that crawl around the network looking for the exit, but they are of
no consequence.
38. Answer: C. IEEE 1284 is the ratified standard for printer cables that connect to the
parallel port (LPT1) of the computer on one end and the Centronics connector of
the printer on the other end. IEEE 1284 also sets the specifications for Extended
Capabilities Port (ECP). While the parallel printer connection is an older technology, it
is still on the A+ objectives, and you never know when you will see a question on it or
when you might stumble upon one in the field! IEEE 802.3 is the standard for Ethernet.
IEEE 1394 is the PC equivalent standard of FireWire, used for external drives and AV
equipment. IEEE 802.11 is the collective standard of wireless technologies.
39. Answer: D. A power-on self-test (POST) card can be used to test all hardware on a
computer prior to installing an operating system. More often, it is used to troubleshoot
computer boot-up problems. The BIOS employs its own POST, but this is limited compared to what a POST adapter card can do. If an OS hasn’t been installed yet, we can’t
use Windows to test hardware (and probably wouldn’t want to rely on that anyway).
40. Answer: C. Keep away from the jargon. Customers can be confused by it, intimidated
by it, and sometimes even frightened by it. This means to stay away from mentioning
computer acronyms, the latest technology names, TCP/IP in general, and anything
more technical than “reboot the computer”. Analogies and visual aids can be great
when explaining technical concepts to a customer. Think along their lines and paint a
picture that they can understand. You should definitely limit what the customer needs
to know. For example, there is no reason for the customer to know that 802.3z is the
IEEE standard for 1000BASE-X: Ethernet over fiber optic transmissions at 1000 Mbps
on the LAN. In fact, there’s no reason you should know it for the A+ exam, but then
again, you are a techie and the customer is not.
41. Answers: A and E. Use a multimeter or a power supply unit (PSU) tester to test the
voltage of a power supply. The multimeter will test one wire at a time, whereas the PSU
tester will test the entire main power connection all at once. Loopback plugs are used
to test RJ45 ports on network adapters and COM1 serial ports. Cable testers are used
to test networking cables. An antistatic mat is used to reduce ESD when working on a
computer.
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42. Answer: B. The only solution listed is to upgrade the video card. This is the only way
that computer performance can be increased while Aero is running. The CPU and RAM
can make the system faster when dealing with applications and calculations of many
kinds, but when it comes to the video configurations, a 64 MB video card is just too
weak. No matter how much RAM you add or what CPU you put in, the video will still
perform like an actor on the late, late, late movie—badly. Increasing the hard drive
capacity will have no effect on video but can definitely help in other areas of system
performance such as pagefile access and general data access.
43. Answer: C. By sharing the RAM, motherboards can have integrated video cards, thus
making for a cheaper system in general. This will not be satisfactory if you need to
design a custom PC such as a gaming PC or a CAD/CAM workstation, but it will work
just fine if you are building a PC that will have the primary function of accessing the
Internet. To make the computer run faster, upgrade the CPU and possibly the hard
drive. To make the computer run quieter, install quieter fans and solid-state drives and
consider a quieter case. To reduce temperature, install more case fans and RAM heat
sinks or consider a liquid cooling system.
44. Answer: C. The LGA 1155 socket is the replacement for the LGA 1156 socket. Even
though it is one number less, it is the newer socket type. It is commonly used with
Core i3, i5, and i7 CPUs. LGA 775 is used by Intel Core 2 Duo and similar CPUs. The
940 is an AMD socket, used with Opteron and Athlon 64 FX CPUs. The LGA 1366 is
used with Intel Core i7 CPUs exclusively.
45. Answer: B. The Direct Media Interface (DMI) connection has a data transfer rate
of 20 Gb/s or 2.5 GB/s. The DMI is the high-speed point-to-point interconnection
mechanism between the CPU and the chipset. 1000 Mbps is the data transfer rate of
gigabit Ethernet. 3.0 Gb/s is the data rate of SATA revision 2.0. 5 Gbps is the data rate
of USB 3.0.
46. Answer: D. You should select the microATX form factor and the HDMI video output
for an HTPC. ATX is acceptable but won’t fit in most HTPC designed cases. Mobile-ITX
and Pico-ITX are used by ultra-mobile PCs (UMPCs) and smartphones. DVI is the
standard video connector for regular PCs, but for a true multimedia experience you
want HDMI—not only for its capabilities with HD formats, but also because it carries
HD audio signal as well. RG-6 is the network connection on a cable modem or set-top
box (STB).
47. Answers: A, C, D, and F. The time/date, boot priority (boot sequence), passwords,
and Wake-on-LAN (WOL) can all be configured in the BIOS. However, the registry and
USB drivers are configured in Windows.
48. Answers: C and D. The first thing you should do is put on your antistatic strap. The
last thing you should do is test the motherboard. Always remember to test! You
already selected the motherboard. Technically, installing the CPU isn’t really part of the
motherboard installation process. But you can’t really test the motherboard without it.
Either way, the CPU would be installed before testing. Cables need to be connected
during the installation and prior to testing. But anything that deals with power or circuit boards should not be touched unless you are wearing an antistatic strap.
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49. Answer: C. To test IPv4, use the command ping 127.0.0.1. To test IPv6, use the
command ping ::1. You don’t run ipconfig commands to particular IP addresses.
There is no Ping :1 or Ping 127::1 commands.
50. Answer: D. The front side bus (FSB) is usually four times the base core clock of a
motherboard that supports Core 2 CPUs. That would be 1333 MHz in this case.
Remember that newer Intel motherboards do not use the FSB; it has effectively been
supplanted by the DMI (on lesser Intel boards) and QPI (on more powerful Intel
boards).
51. Answer: D. 4.2 ms (milliseconds) is the typical latency of a SATA hard drive. When
dealing with magnetic drives, latency is the delay in time before a particular sector on
the platter can be read. It is directly linked to rotational speed. A hard drive with a
rotational speed of 7200 RPM has an average latency of 4.2 ms. 300 MB/s is the data
transfer rate of a SATA revision 2.0 hard drive; it is also expressed as 3.0 Gb/s. 16 MB
is a common amount of cache memory on a hard drive; it is usually DRAM.
52. Answer: B. A maintenance kit includes a new fuser assembly, rollers, and more.
Installing a maintenance kit is like changing a car’s oil (although it isn’t done as often).
You could also sing Happy Birthday, but that would just be silly. Cleaning the printer
might not be necessary. If you have a toner spill or work in a dirty environment, it
might be a good idea. Clearing the counter is something you might do on an inkjet
printer; it clears the counter of how much ink goes through the cartridge. Printing a
test page is important when first installing a printer and when you finish installing a
maintenance kit.
53. Answer: C. The Type III PC Card slot can handle Type I, Type II, or Type III PC Cards,
also referred to as PCMCIA cards. Type I cards are often flash memory cards. Type II
cards might be network adapters or modems. Type III cards are usually hard drives.
Type IV cards can support all of the devices mentioned as well. They are bigger than
Type III cards: 16 mm as opposed to 10.5 mm thick. PC Cards generally max out at
133 MB/s. A faster solution for laptops, the ExpressCard can go as fast as 250 MB/s,
if used in PCI Express mode.
54. Answer: C. Because light is what affects the drum, the drum should remain sealed in
the toner cartridge. Keep the cartridge away from magnets, too. If a toner cartridge
breaks or forms a crack, recycle it and install a new toner cartridge.
55. Answer: C. Use a power supply unit (PSU) tester to determine why a computer fails to
boot. One of culprits could be a faulty power supply. A cable tester will check network
cables only to see if they are wired correctly and have continuity. Loopback plugs are
used to test network cards and serial ports. The tone and probe kit is used to test
phone lines. So, the rest of the answers are all tools that are used externally from the
computer, whereas the PSU tester is the only one used inside the computer.
56. Answer: D. After installing something for a customer, teach the customer how to use
it (at least the basics). If you tested it, then there is no reason to recheck connections
or turn the printer on and off. Unless you are an independent contractor or consultant,
you probably won’t bill the customer yourself. Even if that is your responsibility, you
shouldn’t do so until you have shown the basics of the new printer to the customer.
Maintenance kits are not necessary for new printers. They are required when the printer reaches approximately 200,000 pages printed.
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57. Answers: A, C, and E. The AM3, FM1, and G34 are all AMD CPU sockets. The AM3 is
used to house Phenom II, Sempron, and Athlon II CPUs. The FM1 is used with the
Llano CPU. G34 is a replacement of the F socket and is used with Opteron CPUs.
These are all Pin Grid Array (PGA) sockets. The Intel LGA1155 works with Core i3, i5,
i7, and Xeon CPUs. The older LGA775 works with Core 2 Duo, Core 2 Quad, and older
Xeon CPUs.
58. Answer: C. 128 KB total. Every core of a Core i5 CPU contains 32 KB of L1 cache.
There are two core Core i5 CPUs; they have a total of 64 KB of L1 cache. And like in
the question, there are four core Core i5 CPUs, with 128 KB total L1 cache.
59. Answer: C. L3 cache is shared by all of the cores of the CPU. L1 cache (often 32 KB
per core) is built in to the CPU. L2 cache (often 256 KB per core) is built on to the
CPU; it is also known as on-die. DRAM is the memory modules you install into the
slots in the motherboard. DRAM is not cache memory. Some people consider DRAM
to be L4 cache, but there is an actual CPU cache known as L4 used by Xeon and other
high-end processors.
60. Answer: A. Hyper-threading (for example, Intel HT) calculates two independent sets
of instructions simultaneously, simulating two CPUs. HyperTransport is a high-speed
link between various devices such as the CPU and northbridge on AMD systems.
TurboBoost is a basic form of overclocking that Intel allows with many of their
processors. Multi-core is the technology where a CPU physically contains two or
more processor cores. Newer Intel CPU designs combine multi-core technology
with hyper-threading to allow for even more processing.
61. Answer: B. The thermal design power (TDP) of a CPU is measured in watts. For
example, a typical Core i5 CPU might be rated at 95 watts. Older single-core CPUs
were rated as high as 215 watts. The less the wattage rating, the less the computer’s
cooling system needs to dissipate heat generated by the CPU.
62. Answer: D. The tone and probe kit allows you to find the network drop in the wiring
closet. How this would work is you would take the tone generator portion of the tone
and probe kit and connect it via RJ45 to the network port in the user’s cubicle. Switch
it on so it creates tone. Then go to the wiring closet (or network room or server room)
and use the probe (an inductive amplifier) to find the tone. You do this by pressing the
probe against each of the cables. This is an excellent method when there are dozens,
or hundreds, of cables in the wiring closet. Once you find the right cable, plug it into
the patch panel or directly to a network switch. When you return to the user’s cubicle,
the RJ45 jack should be hot, meaning it can be used to send and receive data. As for
the other answers: A PSU tester tests the power supply of a computer. A multimeter
can test any wire’s voltage or AC outlets. Cable tester is somewhat of a vague term,
but it usually either means a network patch cable tester or a LAN tester, which checks
the individual wires of longer network cable runs.
63. Answer: A. SATA power connections have 3.3, 5, and 12-volt wires. There are no negative voltage wires on SATA power connections. Molex power connections use 5 V and
12 V only, but SATA includes the 3.3 volt line. In this scenario you should test the
SATA power connector and the main power connector from the power supply with
your trusty PSU tester. (Most PSU testers will have an SATA power port in addition to
the main 24-pin power port.)
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64. Answer: B. Print a test page after doing preventative maintenance to a laser printer.
Normally when you maintenance a laser printer, you will power it down and unplug it
before any work begins. So there is no need to restart the printer; when you finish,
you simply start it. There is also no need to restore a printer to factory settings unless
it fails. Your preventative maintenance will hopefully stave off that dark day. The paper
trays probably still have paper in them, and regardless, part of preventative maintenance is to fill the trays. But printing the test page should be last.
65. Answer: B. As of the writing of this book, external SATA (eSATA) runs at 3.0 Gbps,
which is the fastest of the listed answers. 6.0 Gbps eSATA is unquestionably on the
horizon. USB 2.0 is limited to 480 Mbps. IEEE 1394a is limited to 400 Mbps.
1000BASE-T is a networking connection that offers 1000 Mbps. However, if you had
USB 3.0, your data rate would be 5.0 Gbps, and that would be the winner. And
although typical IEEE 1394b devices run at 800 Mbps, the full specification calls for a
maximum of 3.2 Gbps, slightly edging out eSATA. But that is only if you can find an
IEEE 1394 device that complies with that speed. Plus, as I mentioned, technologies are
always coming out with newer versions that are faster and faster.
66. Answer: C. Bluetooth works best for a direct wireless connection; in fact, it is the only
wireless connection listed. FireWire and IEEE 1394 are effectively the same (IEEE 1394
is the equivalent PC standard), and IEEE 1284 is the standard for wired parallel port
printing.
67. Answer: A. Your local municipality’s electrical and safety code requires that all cables
be installed properly. No cables can be left hanging or lying on the floor. Rerun the
cables through the walls and ceiling, or use a special conduit to run the cables in a
way that is safe. This in a nutshell is known as cable management.
68. Answer: A. The CRT holds a lethal charge and needs to be discharged before working
on it. Of course, you should have unplugged the monitor before you opened it. In the
strange case that you get a question like this, only a person trained on the repair of
monitors should be opening them and even they should be discharging them before
commencing work. Why would you clean a monitor before working on it? I don’t
know, seems something to do after the work is complete. Degaussing CRT monitors
eliminates stray magnetic fields; most CRTs come with a built-in onscreen degaussing
utility.
69. Answer: C. Everyone has urgent calls sometimes. But, are they actually urgent?
Determine this, and then get back to work as quickly as possible. Don’t text, e-mail, or
use the phone while at the job site.
70. Answer: C. Amperage can be defined as electric current or the movement of electric
charge. It is measured in amps (A). You should know your circuits in your office. The
more you know, the less chance of overloading them. For example, a standard 15-amp
circuit might be able to handle three or four computers and monitors. But a 20-amp
circuit can handle a computer or two more. Circuit breakers, electrical cable, and outlets all must comply with a certain amount of amps. If you connect a power strip or
surge protector, make sure that it is specified to work with your circuit’s amp rating.
Voltage is a representation of potential energy, measured in volts (V). Wattage is electric power, the rate of electric energy in a circuit, measured in watts (W). Impedance
is the amount of resistance to electricity, measured in ohms (Ω).
220-801 Practice Exam C
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71. Answer: D. Homes in the United States are wired for 120 volts alternating current
(AC). The wires inside a PC might be 12 volts direct current (DC), 5 volts, or 3.3 volts.
72. Answer: D. Use a simple moist cloth, not too wet; you don’t want to get any liquid
inside the printer. Alcohol will be too strong, and WD-40 will cause damage in the long
run. Soap and water can be used to clean the outside of a computer case.
73. Answer: C. Installing cable Internet would be the best solution given the parameters
of this scenario. It is the cheapest of the four technologies listed above, and it is a
broadband Internet solution. ISDN is generally known as a narrowband technology.
Although there is a type of Broadband ISDN, that is designed to handle high-bandwidth
applications and is quite expensive. T-1 and T-3 lines are dedicated high-speed connections that will not fit the customer’s tight budget.
74. Answer: A. The universal naming convention (UNC) \\computername\C$ or
\\ipaddress\C$ would be the best option. This allows the administrator to connect
to the hidden share for the root of C. If the administrator has issues connecting to
a network volume with a particular share name, they should use the hidden share.
This can be done by computer name or by IP address. It would not be necessary
to connect utilizing HTTP. Also, it is not wise to share the C: drive with a share
name called “C.”
75. Answer: C. In DHCP, set a reservation by MAC address. In this scenario it is most
likely that the clients are connecting to the printer by IP address. The Internet Printing
Protocol (IPP) will often be used in this manner. By default, the moment the new
printer is connected to the network, it will acquire an IP address from the DHCP server—a new IP address, different from the one used by the old printer. This will cause
the clients to fail when attempting to connect, and print, to the new printer. To prevent
this, we go to the router (or other DHCP device) and configure a MAC address reservation. The MAC address of the printer (which might be on a label or can be accessed
from the onscreen display) can be plugged into the DHCP server and reserved to a
specific IP address. Of course, a better option would be to simply configure the printer
to use a static IP address. As to the other answers, renaming the printer with the old
name won’t help because the client computers are most likely connecting by IP, not by
name. Printing the configuration page is great and might help you to figure out what
the problem could be, but it doesn’t actually solve the problem!
76. Answer: A. IPP stands for the Internet Printing Protocol. It is a common standard used
for remote printing. IPP paths are similar to HTTP paths, but instead they begin with
the letters ipp. IPP supports access control, authentication, and encryption enabling
secure printing. Some organizations prefer to use IPP instead of UNC paths. Although
answer B could be a possibility, it would be more likely to use IPP instead of HTTPS.
However, the IP address in answer B is also incorrect; the second octet is a 1 instead
of a 10. Answer C isn’t correct syntax; two slashes should be preceded by some kind
of protocol such as IPP or HTTP. Or if this was meant to be a UNC, the slashes should
be backslashes; however, a UNC was the original path that failed, so it is incorrect
either way. Answer D is showing backslashes in the path instead of the proper slashes.
77. Answer: C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is used to make secure
connections to websites. It uses the Secure Socket Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer
Security (TLS) protocols to encrypt the connection and make it safe for logins,
purchases, and so on. HTTPS relies on port 443. SSH stands for Secure SHell; this is
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used to make secure remote connections between computers for the purposes of
command execution and remote control, and it replaces the deprecated Telnet protocol. It uses port 22. SFTP is the SSH File Transfer Protocol, a more secure version
of FTP that is built on SSH. Kerberos is a network authentication protocol used by
various systems including Microsoft domains. It uses port 88.
78. Answer: B. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) can be used to monitor remote computers and printers. This requires the installation of SNMP on the
appropriate hosts. SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which deals with the
sending of e-mail. TCP/IP is the entire suite of protocols that we use when we connect
to an IP network. IPP is the Internet Printing Protocol, which allows hosts to print
documents to a remote printer without the need for UNC paths. DNS is the Domain
Name System, which resolves domain names to their corresponding IP addresses.
79. Answer: D. You should recommend to your co-worker that he unplug the power cord
to prevent shorts. Always unplug the computer before working on it. There are other
tools that you can use as well—for example, the 3-prong parts grabber or, for something nonmetallic, the plastic tweezers. You could also try turning the computer upside
down and letting gravity do its thing (if the computer is light enough). Backing up the
computer’s data is not necessary if you take the right precautions. Definitely do not
turn on the computer. Make sure the computer is off and unplugged.
80. Answers: B and D. Unicast IPv6 addresses are addresses assigned to one interface on
a host. Examples of unicast IPv6 addresses include Global unicast addresses that
begin at 2000, link-local addresses that begin at FE80::/10, and the loopback address
::1. Addresses assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are delivered to all
interfaces are known as multicast addresses. Addresses assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are delivered to the first interface only are known as anycast
addresses.
81. Answer: C. An indication of a power supply issue is frequent failure of hard drives. If
the power supply fails to provide clean power to the 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V lines to the
hard drives, then they will fail frequently. These are often the first devices to fail when
a power supply starts having intermittent problems. You should test this with a power
supply tester or multimeter. If the power supply fails, the CPU would not overclock—
quite the reverse, it might lose power and turn the computer off altogether.
Overclocking is controlled in the BIOS, and there are thresholds in place to stop the
CPU from overclocking too far. The wireless adapter would either work or not work.
Reduced range could be due to obstruction or distance from the wireless access point.
If the CD burner takes longer to write data than usual, it could be because the system
is busy doing other tasks, or perhaps the burn rate setting was lowered.
82. Answers: A, C, and D. CAD/CAM workstations, virtualization workstations, and gaming
PCs all require powerful CPUs with multiple cores—as many cores as possible. The
other custom PCs are not nearly as reliant on CPUs. Audio/Video editing workstations
rely most on specialized audio and video cards, dual monitors, and fast hard drives.
Home theater PCs (HTPCs) require surround sound audio, HDMI output, compact
form factors, and possibly TV tuners and video capture cards. Home server PCs rely
on RAID arrays and powerful network cards.
220-801 Practice Exam C
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83. Answer: C. You should select a barcode reader. This will read barcodes such as UPC
barcodes that have groupings of parallel lines of varying widths. A biometric scanner
authenticates individuals by scanning physical characteristics such as fingerprints.
There are many types of image scanners; multifunction printers have these and allow
you to scan in photos or make copies of documents. The touchpad is a device that
takes the place of a mouse. It is often used in laptops but can be purchased as an
external peripheral for PCs as well.
84. Answer: B. For SLI to work properly, you will need two identical PCIe (PCI Express)
slots. Although older SLI cards were available for PCI, the technology cannot span
different expansion slots.
85. Answer: C. SATA Revision 3.0 (maximum transfer rate of 6 Gb/s or 600 MB/s) can
send and receive twice as much data as SATA Revision 2.0 (maximum transfer rate of
3 Gb/s or 300 MB/s). This makes it the better choice for audio and video applications
and would be the most valid reason why you would select it for a new computer.
When building a new computer, you would most likely start with an internal drive. You
might add an external drive later, but regardless, just having an external drive is not a
reason to use SATA 3.0 over SATA 2.0. In fact, as of the writing of this book, most
eSATA drives are limited to 3.0 Gb/s data rates. SATA drives are not hot-swappable by
default, whether they are internal or external. Special drive enclosures can be purchased to make a SATA drive hot-swappable, however. Neither SATA 2.0 nor SATA 3.0
uses jumpers. IDE drives are the most well-known for their use of jumpers.
86 Answer: D. The extension magnet is the best of the listed answers. Just remember to
turn off power and disconnect the power cable before attempting this. Pliers are too
big and bulky a tool to use in this situation. They can too easily damage components
on a motherboard or other device. The antistatic wrist strap should always be worn,
but it is not meant to pick up items. Because it is not specified, we have to assume
that the answer “Tweezers” means metal tweezers. It is better to use an extension
magnet—a tool more conforming to the job—than a metal object. However, if you
have plastic tweezers or a three-prong pickup tool, you should use those before the
extension magnet.
87. Answer: C. You should install a PC3-12800 memory module. If you don’t have the
exact speed RAM, go with a memory module that is one step higher. That RAM should
underclock to match the motherboard. However, the best thing to do is to get the closest compatible RAM to the motherboard! Anyways, it’s better to go up one level first.
If the PC works without any errors, then all is good. If you install slower RAM such as
PC3-8500 (which is DDR3-1066 by the way) or PC3-6400, the customer will end up
with a slower computer than they originally started with.
88. Answer: C. RAID 5 is fault tolerant and allows for striping with parity (given you have
three disks minimum to dedicate to the array). It’s the parity information that makes it
fault tolerant. RAID 0 is simply striping of data. It is not fault tolerant, meaning that it
cannot recreate data after a failure or continue to function after a failure. RAID 1 is
mirroring; it requires two disks and is fault tolerant. (An advanced version of RAID 1
is called disk duplexing when each hard drive in the mirror is connected to its own
hard drive controller.) RAID 10 is a stripe of mirrors. It requires fours disks and is
fault tolerant.
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89. Answers: A, C, and D. When dealing with prohibited content, there will always be a
first responder who is required to identify the issue, report through proper channels,
and preserve data and possibly devices used. This person will be in charge of starting
the documentation process which includes a chain of custody, the tracking of evidence
and maintaining a chronological log of that evidence.
90. Answers: A and D. The mouse can move erratically due to an incorrect driver or an
uneven surface. Remember to visit the manufacturer of the device to get the latest and
greatest driver. That should fix the problem. But optical mice are very sensitive and
need to be on an even, flat surface. Also, it helps if that surface is nonreflective.
Optical mice don’t have a trackball. Older ball mice had these, and they would have to
be cleaned to fix this problem. The mouse should not conflict with the keyboard. Older
PS/2 mice would not because they used a separate IRQ from the PS/2 keyboard.
Newer USB mice won’t either. Every USB device gets its own resources; this is taken
care of by the USB controller. Finally, if the mouse needs to be charged, it should simply stop working. Some mice use double AA batteries that simply need to be replaced.
91. Answer: C. You should check the wall outlet first if you are dealing with a power issue.
Since power comes from the AC outlet, it should be foremost on your mind. Now, if
you already deduced that the wall outlet is not causing a problem, check the power
supply next. Input devices won’t often cause a power issue unless they are active
devices, meaning they plug into an AC outlet. But once again, you would unplug them
and check the AC outlet that they are plugged into. Phone and network cabling can
carry power surges and spikes, especially if they are not installed or grounded properly. However, it is less likely that the power issue emanates from a cable. After checking
the wall outlet and power supply, unplug these from the computer when troubleshooting power issues.
92. Answer: A. If a computer is attempting to obtain an IP address automatically and it
receives the IP address 169.254.127.1, or any other IP address starting with 169.254,
then DHCP has failed either at the client or the server. When this happens, Windows
will automatically assign an APIPA address. The computer will be able to communicate
only with other computers on the 169.254 network, which is pretty worthless if that is
not your main network number. What went wrong? It could be one of several things.
Perhaps the DHCP client service on the client computer needs to be restarted. Or
maybe the computer is not connected to the right network. Still yet it could be a problem with the server: lack of IP addresses, the DHCP service failed, the DHCP server is
down, and so on. DNS deals with resolving domain names to IP addresses; it doesn’t
affect DHCP address assignment. The Windows Internet Naming Service is an older
Microsoft service that resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses; like DNS, it doesn’t
affect DHCP. Both DNS and WINS could fail and a computer could still obtain an IP
address from a DHCP server. If APIPA failed, then the computer wouldn’t be able to
get an address on the 169.254 network. If DHCP and APIPA were both to fail, the
client computer would effectively have an IP address of 0.0.0.0. (or nothing would be
listed in the ipconfig screen) placing the computer in the twilight zone.
220-801 Practice Exam C
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NOTE
If you did not understand any of the acronyms used in that explanation, or you are having
any trouble with any of the concepts listed (besides the twilight zone), then it is a strong
indicator that you need to study more.
93. Answers: C and E. You should install an additional case fan and rounded IDE cables.
The liquid cooling system answer might have jumped out at you, but the question
states that there is very little open space within the computer case. Liquid cooling systems require space for their various components. Regardless, liquid cooling is a pretty
advanced solution, where cheaper and easier solutions will probably suffice. An additional case fan almost always fixes the problem of overheating, especially if there was
no case fan installed besides the power supply exhaust fan. By default, IDE data cables
are flat ribbon cables that take up a lot of space. By using rounded cables for IDE and
for other equipment, you can create some open space. The IDE cables are a cheap
solution. However, newer power supplies use rounded power cables for other devices
as well, but this would require more time, effort, and money. Drilling holes in a case is
never a good idea. In fact, the more holes you drill, the tougher it will be for hot air to
exhaust out of the case properly. A passive hard drive cooler is basically a heat sink.
While it might help a little bit, it would be better to create more open space around the
hard drive—for example, with the rounded cables.
94. Answer: B. Remove the CMOS battery from the motherboard. Normally, this will reset
any variable settings in the BIOS such as the password and time/date. Some systems
also have a BIOS configuration jumper that must be moved to another position in
addition to removing the battery. Removing the RAM doesn’t do anything. When the
computer is turned off, RAM contents are emptied. There are usually no RAM jumpers
on today’s motherboards. Removing the main power connection from the motherboard will have no effect if the computer was already turned off and unplugged. By the
way, RAM and power connections should not be removed unless the power has been
shut off and the AC cable has been unplugged.
95. Answer: A. Not minimizing a customer’s problems is one way to deal with a difficult
customer. Other ways include avoid arguing, avoid being judgmental, and clarify customer statements. As for the other answers, reporting through proper channels is part
of the fundamentals of first response. Tracking evidence and documenting is part of
the concept of chain of custody. Finally, you should ask the customer to remove confidential documents; this is one method of dealing with customers’ confidential materials appropriately.
96. Answer: B. One hard drive can fail in a RAID 5 array, and the array will be able to
rebuild that drive’s data from the remaining drives. However, if a second drive fails, the
array is toast. That is because the array requires the parity information from all the
other disks. Now, if you had a RAID 6 array (which includes another parity stripe), you
could lose as many as two disks and still continue to function.
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97. Answer: C. Remove the hard drive before releasing a computer to a third party. There
could very well be confidential company data on the drive. Store the drive in a locking
cabinet. Don’t worry, the manufacturer of the laptop has plenty of hard drives to make
it work! There is no need to remove the LCD or WLAN card because these do not contain confidential information. You could clean it if you want, but do you really have
time for that?
98. Answers: A and D. Intel CPU virtualization is named VT-x. AMD CPU virtualization is
named AMD-V. AMD-Vi is the name for AMD chipset virtualization. VT-d is the name
for Intel chipset virtualization.
99. Answer: B. 432 Mb/s is the answer at 12x speed. The default 1x speed of Blu-ray
allows a data rate of 36 Mb/s (4.5 MB/s). 50 GB is the maximum storage capacity of a
standard size dual layer Blu-ray disc. 150 KB/s is the 1x data rate of a CD-ROM drive.
100. Answer: C. DVI-I accepts analog and digital video signals. All DVI ports are video only.
DVI-D is digital only as you would guess from the D, and DVI-A is analog only. HDMI
can accept video and audio signals. HDMI type B is known as double bandwidth; it
supports higher resolutions.
5
CHAPTER FIVE
Review of the 220-801
Exams
Phew! That was a lot of questions. But if you are reading this,
you survived. Great work!
Now that you have completed the three practice exams, let’s
do a little review of the 220-801 domains, talk about your next
steps, and give you some test-taking tips.
Review of the Domains
Remember that the 220-801 is divided into five domains, as
shown in Table 5.1.
TABLE 5.1 220-801 Domains
Domain
Percentage of Exam
1.0 PC Hardware
40%
2.0 Networking
27%
3.0 Laptops
11%
4.0 Printers
11%
5.0 Operational Procedures
11%
Total
100%
PC hardware has the majority of questions on the exam, but
remember there are so many kinds of PC hardware: motherboards, CPUs, RAM, power supplies and cases, hard drives
and optical drives, input/output devices, and peripherals. So,
for example, you will get more networking questions than you
will questions about just CPUs. But PC hardware questions in
general should outweigh any of the other domains. Laptops,
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printers, and operational procedures collectively make up a third of the exam.
That comes to 33 questions you will see on those subjects. This is what really
can make or break a test score. Many technicians are great with PC hardware
and networking. But if a tech is weak in the other three areas, the final exam
score could be in jeopardy. Study all the concepts in each of the domains!
Everyone who takes the exam gets a different group of questions. Because it is
randomized, one person may see more questions on, say, printers than the next
person. Or one person might see more questions on laptops. It differs from person to person. To reduce your risk, be ready for any question from any domain,
and study all of the objectives.
In general, this exam deals with installation and configuration methods, and it
is hardware-based. The bulk of troubleshooting and Windows is reserved for
the 220-802 exam, as is security and mobile devices.
Review What You Know
At this point you should be pretty well versed when it comes to the 220-801
exam. But I still recommend going back through all of the questions and making sure there are no questions, answers, concepts, or explanations you are
unclear about. If there are, then additional study is probably necessary. If something really just doesn’t make sense, is ambiguous or vague, or doesn’t appear to
be technically correct, feel free to contact me at my website (www.davidlprowse.com), and I will do my best to clarify.
Here are a couple great ways to study further:
. Take the exams in flash card mode—Use a piece of paper to cover up
the potential answers as you take the exams. This helps to make you
think a bit harder and aids in committing everything to memory.
. Download the A+ 220-801 objectives—You can get these from
www.comptia.org. Go through them one-by-one and checkmark each
item that you are confident in. If there are any items in the objectives
that you are unsure about, study them hard. That’s where the test will
trip you up. There are 20 pages of objectives, so this will take a while.
But it really helps to close any gaps in your knowledge and gives that
extra boost for the exam.
. Take the CompTIA A+ Practice Exam—This can also be found at
www.comptia.org. Re-take that exam until you get 100% correct. If any
questions give you difficulty, contact me at my website so that I can help
you understand them.
Review of the 220-801 Exams
123
. Study the 220-802 questions, and then return to the 220-801
tests!—This might sound a bit crazy, but I have found that if an A+
candidate has a strong grasp of all A+ topics, he or she is more likely to
pass either one of the exams. My recommendation is for you to go
through the 220-802 practice exams, then return to the 220-801 exams
for a review, and then go take the actual 220-801 test. It’s a big extra
step, but it has proven very effective with my students and readers.
More Test-Taking Tips
The majority of questions have four multiple-choice answers, but some have
more. These answers are usually connected within the same concept. For example, a question about video connectors might provide four answers—DVI,
HDMI, DisplayPort, and VGA—all of which are video ports. But some of the
questions are not as synergistic; they might have a group of answers that seem
at odds with each other. For example, a question about hard drive technologies
might provide four answers: SATA, PATA, DVD-ROM, and solid-state. While
SATA and PATA are definitely hard drive technologies, DVD-ROM is not and
solid-state is a type of long-term memory storage that might be used as a hard
drive technology. This will be true on the real exam as well.
Regardless of the type of question, there is often one answer that is just totally
wrong. Learn to identify it; once you have, you will automatically improve to at
least a 33% chance of getting the answer right, even if you have to guess.
No single question is more important than another. Approach each question
with the same dedication, even if you are not interested in the topic or don’t like
how the question is worded. Remember that the CompTIA tests are designed
and double-checked by an entire panel of experts.
NOTE
You may also see hands-on, scenario-oriented questions that test your knowledge by asking you to click on items, click and drag, or navigate through a system. These scenariobased questions are new to CompTIA exams and will probably be limited in quantity, but
you should be ready and know how to do these things hands-on!
When you take the exam, remember to slowly read through the questions and
each of the answers. Don’t rush it. Let’s list a couple more smart methods you
can use when presented with difficult questions:
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. Use the process of elimination.
. Be logical in the face of adversity.
. Use your gut instinct.
. Don’t let one question beat you!
. If all else fails, guess.
I’ll expand on these points in the final chapter. If you finish the exam early, use
the time allotted to you to review all of your answers. Chances are you will have
time left over at the end, so use it wisely. Make sure that everything you have
marked has a proper answer that makes sense to you. But try not to overthink!
Give it your best shot and be confident in your answers.
Taking the Real Exam
Do not register until you are fully prepared. When you are ready, schedule the
exam to commence within a day or two so that you won’t forget what you
learned! Registration can be done online. Register at Pearson Vue
(www.vue.com). They accept payment by major credit card for the exam fee.
First-timers will need to create an account with Pearson Vue.
Here are some good general practices for taking the real exams:
. Pick a good time for the exam
. Don’t over-study the day before the exam
. Get a good night’s rest
. Eat a decent breakfast
. Show up early
. Bring earplugs
. Brainstorm before starting the exam
. Take small breaks while taking the exam
. Be confident
I’ll embellish on these concepts in the final chapter.
Well, that’s about it for the 220-801 portion of this book. Good luck on your
exams!
6
CHAPTER SIX
Introduction to the
220-802 Exam
The CompTIA A+ 220-802 exam covers Windows operating
systems, computer and network security, mobile devices such
as tablets and smartphones, and troubleshooting. The largest
percentage of the exam will focus on troubleshooting: repairing Windows, fixing computer hardware problems, mending
networking issues, and repairing printers.
In this chapter I briefly discuss how the exam is categorized,
give you some test-taking tips, and then prepare you to take
the four 220-802 practice exams that follow this chapter.
Exam Breakdown
The CompTIA A+ 220-802 exam is divided by domain. Each
domain makes up a certain percentage of the test. The four
domains of the A+ 220-802 exam and their respective percentages are listed in Table 6.1.
TABLE 6.1 220-802 Domains
Domain
Percentage of Exam
1.0 Operating Systems
33%
2.0 Security
22%
3.0 Mobile Devices
9%
4.0 Troubleshooting
36%
Total
100%
Chances are that when you take the real CompTIA exam, you
will see approximately 33 questions on Operating Systems, 22
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questions on Security, 9 questions on Mobile Devices, and a whopping 36 questions on Troubleshooting. So it stands to reason that troubleshooting should be
the most important subject of your studies, due to the sheer bulk of the questions you will see. Without good troubleshooting skills and experience, you
have very diminished hopes of passing the exam.
Each domain has several or more objectives. There are far too many to list in
this book (20 pages or so), but I do recommend you download a copy of the
objectives for yourself. You can get them from:
http://www.comptia.org
Let’s talk about each domain briefly.
Domain 1.0: Operating Systems (33%)
We’ve hardly talked about Windows up until this point. But now that we’re
here, you’ll see lots of questions on Windows—I guarantee it. Domain 1.0 deals
with Windows 7, Vista, and XP, in all their forms and versions. It covers how
the operating systems can be installed, how they are configured, and how they
are utilized. You should understand how to: configure Windows networking
technologies such as HomeGroup, create shares, map network drives, and work
with firewalls. This domain also covers how to maintain the computer, user
accounts and groups, permissions, and virtualization. It’s a lot of information to
cram into one domain, but remember that this domain does not cover Windows
troubleshooting—that is left for Domain 4.0.
Domain 2.0: Security (22%)
Security takes on a bigger role every year. This domain deals with common
security threats, physical and digital prevention methods, how to secure a workstation, how to dispose of hard drives properly, and how to secure a small
office/home office (SOHO) network. Basically, nowadays careful consideration
for security should be applied to anything technology-oriented.
Domain 3.0 Mobile Devices (9%)
Mobile devices such as tablets and smartphones have become so popular that
they earned themselves a spot in the 220-802 exam. You should know the differences between Android and iOS operating systems and understand the basics
when it comes to navigating those systems. This domain expects you to demonstrate how to configure wireless and Bluetooth connections, synchronize data,
and of course secure the devices.
Introduction to the 220-802 Exam
127
Domain 4.0: Troubleshooting (36%)
Here it is: we left the best for last. It’s the troubleshooting methodologies that
make the ultimate computer tech. And it’s those skills that will make you or
break you on this exam. Many people agree that the 802 exam is more difficult
than the 801 exam, and a lot of that can be attributed to this domain. CompTIA
has its own six-step troubleshooting process that you should know. I’d like you
to try to incorporate this six-step process into your line of thinking as you read
through the practice exams, and whenever you troubleshoot a PC, mobile
device, or networking issue:
Step 1:
Identify the problem.
Step 2:
Establish a theory of probable cause. (Question the obvious.)
Step 3:
Test the theory to determine cause.
Step 4:
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement
the solution.
Step 5:
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures.
Step 6:
Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
This domain covers it all: from troubleshooting PC hardware and networking
issues, to troubleshooting Windows, malware, and printers. It’s the most difficult section and, unfortunately in the IT field, the most insidious. Issues can
look or act like one thing, yet be another. Stay really focused when dealing with
troubleshooting questions. You’ll know them when you see them—they include
real-world scenarios and often end in a phrase such as “what should you do to
fix the problem,” or “how can this be resolved,” and so on.
Master this domain, and you will be well on your way to passing the A+
220-802 exam, attaining your A+ certificate, and becoming a true expert at troubleshooting.
Test-Taking Tips
Just like with the 220-801 exams, I recommend you take it slow. Carefully read
through each question. Read through all of the answers. Look at each answer and
think to yourself whether it is right or wrong. And if it is wrong, define why it is
wrong. This will help you to eliminate wrong answers in the search for the correct answer. When you have selected an answer, be confident in your decision.
128
Chapter 6
Be ready for longer questions. On the average, a reader needs 60 minutes to
take a 220-801 exam but 90 minutes to take a 220-802 exam. This is due to the
complexity of some of the scenarios. You will need to imagine yourself within
the situation and think how you would approach the problem step-by-step. Be
prepared to write things down as you look at the question. This can help you to
organize your thoughts. It’s allowed on the real exam as well.
Finally, don’t get stuck on any one question. You can always mark it and return
to it later. I’ll have more tips as we progress through the book, and I summarize
all test-taking tips at the end of this book.
Getting Ready for the Practice Tests
The following four chapters (Ch 7–10) have practice tests based on the 220-802
exam. The first exam (Practice Exam A) is categorized by domain to help you
study the concepts in order. It is also designed to be an easier exam than the
other three. The other exams (Practice Exam B, Practice Exam C, and Practice
Exam D) are freestyle: questions are mixed up to better simulate the real exam.
Each exam is followed by in-depth explanations. Be sure to read them carefully. Don’t move on to another exam until you have mastered the first one by
scoring 90% or higher. Be positive that you understand the concepts before
moving on to another exam. This will make you an efficient test-taker and allow
you to benefit the most from this book.
Consider timing yourself. Give yourself 90 minutes to complete each exam.
Write down your answers on a piece of paper. When you are finished, if there
is still time left, review your answers for accuracy.
Each exam gets progressively more difficult. Don’t get overconfident if you do
well on the first exam because your skills will be tested more thoroughly as you
progress. And don’t get too concerned if you don’t score 90% on the first try.
That just means you need to study more and try the test again later. Keep studying and practicing!
After each exam is an answer key, followed by the in-depth answers/explanations. Don’t skip the explanations, even if you think you know the concept. I
often add my two cents, which can add insight to the nature of the question, as
well as help you to answer other similar questions correctly.
Ready yourself: prepare the mind, and then go ahead and begin the first
220-802 exam!
7
CHAPTER 7
220-802 Practice
Exam A
Welcome to the first 220-802 practice exam. This practice
exam is categorized in order of the domains. You will see 33
questions on Operating Systems, 22 questions on Security, 9
questions on Mobile Devices, and 36 questions on
Troubleshooting, for a total of 100 questions. This is the easiest of the four 220-802 exams. The other three will get progressively harder.
Take this first exam slowly. The goal is to make sure you
understand all of the concepts before moving on to the next
test.
Write down your answers and check them against the answer
key, which immediately follows the exam. After the answer key
you will find the explanations for all of the answers. Good
luck!
130
Chapter 7
✓
Quick Check
Practice Questions
Domain 1.0: Operating Systems
1. Which of the following are Microsoft operating systems? (Select
all correct answers.)
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 152
❍ A. Windows XP
❍ B. iOS
❍ C. Vista
❍ D. Android
❍ E. Linux
❍ F. Windows 7
2. Of the following, which is not a method of installing Windows 7?
❍ A. Over the network
❍ B. CD-ROM
❍ C. DVD-ROM
❍ D. USB flash drive
❍ E. Image
3. What is the default file system used by Windows 7?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
FAT32
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 152
NTFS
FAT
In the System Properties dialog box
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 152
In the System32 folder
On the Taskbar
Within the Start menu
5. Windows service packs are ___________.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 152
CDFS
4. Where is the Notification Area located in Windows 7?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
A new version of the operating system
Resource Kit utilities
Compilations of software updates and patches
Driver updates
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 152
220-802 Practice Exam A
131
✓
Quick Check
6. What is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install Windows
Vista?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
256 MB
512 MB
1 GB
Detailed Answer: 152
512 MB
1 GB
2 GB
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 152
Applets
Files
Directories
Snap-ins
9. Which file is the boot loader in Windows XP?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 150
256 MB
8. In Windows 7/Vista, an MMC is blank by default. What would you
add to the MMC to populate it with programs?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 152
128 MB
7. What is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install Windows
7? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
A. Ntdetect.com
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 153
B. Boot.ini
❍ C. ntldr
❍ D. Ntoskrnl.exe
10. Which file is the boot loader in Windows 7/Vista?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Winload.exe
Detailed Answer: 153
BCD
Setup.exe
Ntoskrnl.exe
11. What tool enables you to create a partition in Windows?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Disk Administrator
Disk Management
Computer Management
Disk Cleanup
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 153
132
Chapter 7
✓
Quick Check
12. Which type of partition should an operating system be installed to?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Primary
Volume
Logical drive
Detailed Answer: 153
128 MB
256 MB
32 MB
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 153
Msconfig
Task Manager
Chkdsk
System Information
15. Where would you go to start, stop, or restart services?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 150
64 MB
14. Which tool enables you to find out how much memory a particular
application is using?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 153
Extended
13. What is the minimum requirement of RAM for Windows XP
Professional?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
A. Computer Management
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 153
B. Task Manager
C. Performance Monitor
❍ D. MMC
16. Where is the Windows Update feature located in Windows?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Start > All Programs > Accessories
Detailed Answer: 154
Start > All Programs
Start > All Programs > Control Panel
Start > All Programs > Administrative Tools
17. Which user account permissions are needed to install device
drivers on Windows Vista?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
User
Guest
Administrator
Power user
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 154
220-802 Practice Exam A
133
✓
Quick Check
18. Which of the following commands creates a new directory in the
Windows Command Prompt?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
MD
RD
SD
Detailed Answer: 154
HELP DIR
DIR /?
DIR ?
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 154
Command Prompt
Control Panel
MMC
Task Manager
21. A customer’s computer is using FAT32. Which file system can you
upgrade it to when using the convert command?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 150
DIR HELP
20. Which interface should you use to launch the command
IPCONFIG?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 154
CD
19. To learn more about the DIR command, what would you enter at
the command line? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 154
A. NTFS
B. HPFS
❍ C. exFAT
❍ D. NFS
22. Which of the following answers can be used to keep disk drives
free of errors and ensure that Windows runs efficiently? (Select
the two best answers.)
❍ A. Disk Management
❍ B. Disk Defragmenter
❍ C. Check Disk
❍ D. System Restore
❍ E. Task Scheduler
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 154
134
Chapter 7
✓
Quick Check
23. What is Windows 7’s recovery environment known as? (Select the
two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Recovery Console
Advanced Boot Options
System Recovery Options
Detailed Answer: 155
setuperr.log
unattend.xml
setuplog.txt
32 GB
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 155
64 GB
128 GB
192 GB
26. A customer’s Device Manager shows an arrow pointing down over
one of the devices. What does this tell you?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 150
setupact.log
25. What is the RAM limitation of Windows Vista?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 154
WinRE
24. Which log file contains information about Windows 7/Vista setup
errors?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 155
A. The device’s driver has not been installed.
B. The device is not recognized.
❍ C. The device is disabled.
❍ D. The device is in queue to be deleted.
27. Which of the following is not an advantage of NTFS over FAT32?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
NTFS supports file encryption.
Detailed Answer: 155
NTFS supports larger file sizes.
NTFS supports larger volumes.
NTFS supports more file formats.
28. Which of the following switches (options) copy all files, folders,
and subfolders, including empty subfolders in the TEST folder?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
xcopy *.* c:\test /T /S
xcopy *.* c:\test /S
xcopy *.* c:\test /E
xcopy *.* c:\test /S /T
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 155
220-802 Practice Exam A
135
✓
Quick Check
29. A co-worker just installed a second hard disk in his Windows 7
computer. However, he does not see the disk in Windows Explorer.
What did he forget to do? (Select the three best answers.)
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 155
❍ A. Format the drive
❍ B. Partition the drive
❍ C. Run FDISK
❍ D. Initialize the drive
❍ E. Set up the drive in the BIOS
30. Which of the following Windows editions do not include Aero?
(Select the two best answers.)
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 155
A. Windows 7 Starter
B. Windows 7 Ultimate
❍ C. Windows XP Professional
❍ D. Windows Vista Business
❍ E. Windows Vista Home
31. To create a restore point in Windows 7, what must you do?
❍
❍
❍
A. Run Disk Defragmenter from the MMC
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 155
B. Run NTBackup from the Control Panel
C. Run the System Restore program from the System
Tools menu
❍ D. Run the Disk Cleanup program from the System
Tools menu
32. Which of the following can you not do from the Printer Properties
screen?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 155
Modify spool settings
Add ports
Pause printing
Enable sharing
33. You are setting up auditing on a Windows Vista Business computer. If it’s set up properly, which log should have entries?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Application log
System log
Security log
Maintenance log
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 155
136
Chapter 7
✓
Quick Check
Domain 2.0: Security
34. Which type of virus propagates itself by tunneling through the
Internet and networks?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 156
Macro
Phishing
Trojan
Worm
35. Which component of Windows 7/Vista enables users to perform
common tasks as non-administrators and, when necessary, as
administrators without having to switch users, log off, or use
Run As?
❍
Quick Answer: 150
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 156
A. USMT
❍ B. UAC
❍ C. USB
❍ D. VNC
36. What can you do to secure your WAP/router? (Select all that
apply.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 156
Change the default SSID name
Turn off SSID broadcasting
Enable DHCP
Disable DHCP
37. When you connect to a website to make a purchase by credit card,
you want to make sure the website is secure. What are two ways
you can tell whether a site is secured? (Select the two best
answers.)
❍
A. Look for the padlock (in the locked position) toward
the top or bottom of the screen
❍
B. Look for the padlock (in the unlocked position) toward
the top or bottom of the screen
❍ C. Look for the protocol HTTP in the address or URL bar
❍ D. Look for the protocol HTTPS in the address or
URL bar
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 156
220-802 Practice Exam A
137
✓
Quick Check
38. Which type of software helps protect against viruses that are
attached to e-mail?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Antivirus software
Windows Defender
Hardware firewall
Asking for a username and password over the phone
Detailed Answer: 157
Hacking into a router
A virus
On routers
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 157
On servers
On clients
On every computer
41. Making data appear as if it is coming from somewhere other than
its original source is known as what?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 150
Using someone else’s unsecured wireless network
40. Where are software-based firewalls usually located?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 156
Firewall software
39. Which of these is an example of social engineering?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 157
A. Hacking
B. Phishing
C. Cracking
❍ D. Spoofing
42. A fingerprint reader is which type of security technology?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Biometrics
Detailed Answer: 157
Smart card
Barcode reader
SSID
43. Which of these is the most secure password?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
marquisdesod
Marqu1sDeS0d
MarquisDeSod
Marqu1s_DeS0d
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 157
138
Chapter 7
✓
Quick Check
44. Which shortcut key combination immediately locks Windows?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Ctrl+Alt+Del
Windows+M
Windows+L
Detailed Answer: 157
FTP
VLAN
HTTP
FAT
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 157
FAT16
NTFS
FAT32
47. Which of the following is the most secure for your wireless
network?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 150
VPN
46. Which is the most secure file system in Windows?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 157
Windows+R
45. You are required to set up a secure connection between two
offices over the Internet. Which technology should you select?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 158
A. WEP
B. WPA2
C. TKIP
❍ D. WPA
48. Which term refers to when people are manipulated into giving
access to network resources?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 158
Hacking
Social engineering
Phishing
Cracking
49. A customer’s Windows Vista computer needs a new larger, faster
hard drive. Another technician in your company installs the new
drive and then formats the old drive before delivering it to you for
disposal. How secure is the customer’s data?
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 158
220-802 Practice Exam A
139
✓
Quick Check
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Completely unsecure
Very unsecure
Secure
Completely secured
50. Which type of malicious software types will create multiple popups on a computer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Spyware
Worms
Adware
NTFS
Encrypted passwords
HTTP
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 158
SSL
Putty
Kerberos
Use of RAID
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 158
Password length
Router passwords
Use of a password to log in
54. Which of the following can a limited account not perform?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 158
Strong passwords
53. Which of the following is a common local security policy?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Smart card
52. Which protocol encrypts transactions through a website?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 158
Grayware
51. Which of the following offers hardware authentication?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Connect to the Internet with a browser
Send e-mail with Outlook
Log on to Instant Messenger
Install programs
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 158
140
Chapter 7
✓
Quick Check
55. A co-worker downloads a game that ends up stealing information
from the computer system. What is this?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 158
Worm
Spam
Trojan
Spyware
Domain 3.0: Mobile Devices
56. Which of the following is an open-source operating system?
❍
❍
A. Android
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 159
B. iOS
❍ C. Windows CE
❍ D. Windows Mobile
57. What is a common CPU for a tablet computer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Core i5
ARM
FX
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 159
Standard A USB
Mini-A USB
Standard B USB
Micro-B USB
59. Which of the following does a laptop have, yet a tablet does not?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 159
Phenom II
58. Which of the following is a common charging port on an Android
smartphone?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Mouse
Display
Keyboard
Wireless network adapter
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 159
220-802 Practice Exam A
141
✓
Quick Check
60. Where can you obtain applications for mobile devices? (Select all
that apply.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
App Store
Google Play
iTunes
Gyroscope
Detailed Answer: 159
Accelerometers
Geotracking
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 159
GPS
Screen orientation
Passcode locks
Gmail
63. Which kinds of data would you synchronize on a smartphone?
(Select the two best answers.)
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 150
Lock Rotation
62. You need to locate a mobile device that was stolen. Which technology can aid in this?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 159
Android Market
61. Which of the following makes use of the X, Y, and Z axes?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 159
A. Contacts
B. Word docs
❍ C. E-mail
❍ D. Databases
64. Which of the following are wireless connections to the Internet
that you would commonly make use of on a smartphone? (Select
the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
GSM
Bluetooth
Wi-Fi
Fiber optic
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 159
142
Chapter 7
✓
Quick Check
Domain 4.0: Troubleshooting
65. At the beginning of the workday, a user informs you that the computer is not working. When you examine the computer, you notice
that nothing is on the display. What should you check first?
❍
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 160
A. Check whether the monitor is connected to the
computer
❍ B. Check whether the monitor is on
❍ C. Check whether the computer is plugged in
❍ D. Reinstall the video driver
66. What is the second step of the A+ troubleshooting methodology?
❍
❍
A. Identify the problem
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 160
B. Establish a probable cause
❍ C. Test the theory
❍ D. Document
67. Bob is having an issue with his display. He guesses that a problem
exists with the video driver. How should he boot his Windows XP
system to bypass the video driver?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Press F6
Press Ctrl, and then select Safe Mode
Press F1
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 160
Back up the important data
Reinstall the operating system
Open the laptop and analyze the components inside
Modify the Registry
69. You successfully modified the Registry on a customer’s PC. Now
the customer’s system gets onto the Internet normally. What
should you do next?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 160
Press F8, and then select Safe Mode
68. A user hands you her laptop in the hopes that you can repair it.
What should you do first before making any changes?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Bill the customer
Move on to the next computer
Document your solution
Run Disk Defrag
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 160
220-802 Practice Exam A
143
✓
Quick Check
70. A customer reports that when his computer is turned on the
screen is blank except for some text and a flashing cursor. The
customer also tells you that there are numbers counting upward
when the computer beeps and then freezes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 160
Computer has faulty memory.
There is a corrupt MBR.
The OS is corrupted.
The computer is attempting to boot off of the network.
71. Which of these is part of step five of the CompTIA A+
troubleshooting process?
❍
Quick Answer: 150
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 160
A. Identify the problem
❍ B. Document findings
❍ C. Establish a new theory
❍ D. Implement preventative measures
72. You start a new computer and nothing seems to happen. Upon
closer inspection, you can hear the hard drive spinning; however,
nothing is coming up on the monitor. Which of the following
would not be a reason for this?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
The video card is not properly seated.
The monitor is not connected to the PC.
The PC is not connected to the AC outlet.
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 160
MSCONFIG.EXE
SYSEDIT.EXE
IPCONFIG /RELEASE
Task Manager
74. Buzz gets an error that says “Error log full.” Where should you go
to clear his Error log?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 160
The monitor is not on.
73. Jake’s Windows Vista computer has several programs running in
the system tray that take up a lot of memory and processing
power. He would like you to turn them off permanently. Which tool
should you use to do this?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Device Manager
System Information
Recovery Console
Event Viewer
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 161
144
Chapter 7
✓
Quick Check
75. What would you need to access to boot the computer into Safe
Mode?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 161
WinRE
Recovery Console
Advanced Boot Options
System Restore
76. A customer is trying to use a laptop with a video projector and
cannot get the projector to display the computer screen. Which of
the following should you attempt first?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 150
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 161
A. Replace the video cable to the projector
B. Toggle the function key for the display
C. Put a new bulb in the projector
❍ D. Check the power to the projector
77. Which tool checks protected system files?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Chkdsk
Scandisk
SFC
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 161
The computer cannot access the DHCP server.
The computer cannot access the POP3 server.
The computer cannot access the DNS server.
The computer cannot access the WINS server.
79. Which of the following commands pings the loopback address?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 161
Xcopy
78. Joey’s computer was working fine for weeks, and suddenly it cannot connect to the Internet. Joey runs the command ipconfig
and sees that the IP address his computer is using is
169.254.50.68. What can he conclude from this?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
PING 127.0.0.1
PING 10.0.0.1
PING 1.0.0.127
PING \\localhost
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 161
220-802 Practice Exam A
145
✓
Quick Check
80. A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor
is not booting from the internal drive. Power has been verified and
the battery is fully charged. However, the laptop appears to be
stopping after the POST. Which of the following will aid you while
troubleshooting?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 161
Turn off the external monitor
Disconnect the external monitor
Remove the laptop battery
Format the external USB hard drive
81. After installing a new hard drive on a Windows computer, Len
tries to format the drive. Windows does not show the format
option in Disk Management. What did Len forget to do first?
❍
Quick Answer: 150
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 161
A. Run CHKDSK
❍ B. Partition the drive
❍ C. Defragment the drive
❍ D. Copy system files
82. How can a paper jam be resolved? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Clear the paper path.
Check for damaged rollers.
Check for a damaged primary corona wire.
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 162
Transfer corona wire
Primary corona wire
Pickup rollers
Photosensitive drum
84. Mary installed a new sound card and speakers; however, she cannot get any sound from the speakers. What could the problem be?
(Select all that apply.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 161
Use the right type of paper.
83. What could cause a ghosted image on the paper outputted by a
laser printer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Speaker power is not plugged in.
Sound card driver is not installed.
Sound card is plugged into the wrong slot.
Speaker connector is in the wrong jack.
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 162
146
Chapter 7
✓
Quick Check
85. A laptop with an integrated 802.11 n/g card is unable to connect
to any wireless networks. Just yesterday the laptop was able to
connect to wireless networks. What is the most likely the cause?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 162
The wireless card drivers are not installed.
The wireless card is disabled in bios.
The wireless card firmware requires an update.
The wireless hardware switch is turned off.
86. When you reboot a computer, you get a message stating “No OS
present, press any key to reboot.” What is the most likely problem?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 150
Quick Answer: 150
Detailed Answer: 162
A. The hard drive is not jumpered properly.
B. The hard drive is not getting power.
C. There is no active partition.
❍ D. The hard drive driver is not installed.
87. After you install Windows, the computer you are working on displays a blue screen of death (BSOD) when rebooting. Which of the
following are possible causes? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
IRQ conflict.
Virus in the MBR.
Incompatible hardware device.
Quick Answer: 151
Detailed Answer: 162
The device is disabled.
The device isn’t on the hardware compatibility list.
The device is malfunctioning.
The device is infected with malware.
89. The IP address of Davidprowse.com is 63.25.148.73. You can
ping the IP address 63.25.148.73 but cannot ping
Davidprowse.com. What is the most likely cause?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 162
BIOS needs to be flashed to the latest version.
88. Ray’s computer is running Windows. In the Device Manager, you
notice that the NIC has a black exclamation point. What does this
tell you?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 150
Davidprowse.com is down.
The DHCP server is down.
The DNS server is down.
THE ADDS server is down.
Quick Answer: 151
Detailed Answer: 163
220-802 Practice Exam A
147
✓
Quick Check
90. In which troubleshooting step should you perform backups?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Identify the problem
Verify a full system functionality
Document findings actions and outcomes
Detailed Answer: 163
Startup repair
Complete PC Restore
Recovery Console
Quick Answer: 151
Detailed Answer: 163
Identify the problem
Establish a theory of probable cause
Establish a plan of action
Document findings
93. A newly built computer runs through the POST, but it doesn’t
recognize the specific CPU that was just installed. Instead, it recognizes it as a generic CPU. What is the first thing to check?
❍
Quick Answer: 151
System Restore
92. What is the fourth step of the CompTIA 6-step troubleshooting
process?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 163
Test the theory to determine cause
91. Which Windows Vista System Recovery Option attempts to automatically fix problems?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 151
Quick Answer: 151
Detailed Answer: 163
A. Whether the CPU is seated properly
❍ B. The version of the firmware for the motherboard
❍ C. Whether it is the correct CPU for the motherboard
❍ D. The version of Windows installed
94. Which command displays a network interface card’s MAC
address?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Ping
Ipconfig/all
Ipconfig
Ipconfig/release
Quick Answer: 151
Detailed Answer: 163
148
Chapter 7
✓
Quick Check
95. A customer reports that print jobs sent to a local printer are printing as blank pieces of paper. What can help you to determine the
cause?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 163
Reload the printer drivers
Stop and restart the print spooler
Replace the printer cable
Print and internal test page
96. Signal strength for a laptop’s wireless connection is low (yellow in
color and only one bar). The laptop is on the first floor of a house.
The wireless access point (WAP) is in the basement. How can the
signal strength be improved? (Select the two best answers.)
❍
Quick Answer: 151
Quick Answer: 151
Detailed Answer: 163
A. Use a WAP signal booster
❍ B. Move the WAP from the basement to the first floor
❍ C. Download the latest driver for the NIC
❍ D. Download the latest BIOS for the laptop
97. A computer cannot get on the Internet; what is the first thing you
should check?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Disk defrag
Patch cable
Firewall settings
Quick Answer: 151
Detailed Answer: 163
Registry
Event Viewer
Windows Update
Recovery Console
99. A blue screen is most often caused by ____________.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 163
NIC driver
98. Which utility enables you to troubleshoot an error with a file such
as NTOSKRNL.EXE?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 151
Driver failure
Memory failure
Hard drive failure
CD-ROM failure
Quick Answer: 151
Detailed Answer: 164
220-802 Practice Exam A
149
✓
Quick Check
100. A technician is installing a program on a Windows 7 computer
and the installation fails. Which of the following is the next step?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Run the installer as an administrator
Contact the program’s manufacturer
Reinstall Windows XP on the computer
Upgrade to Windows 7
Quick Answer: 151
Detailed Answer: 164
150
Chapter 7
Quick-Check Answer Key
1. A, C, and F
30. A and C
59. A
2. B
31. C
60. A, B, C, and D
3. C
32. C
61. C
4. C
33. C
62. A
5. C
34. D
63. A and C
6. C
35. B
64. A and C
7. C and D
36. A, B, and D
65. B
8. D
37. A and D
66. B
9. C
38. B
67. A
10. A
39. A
68. A
11. B
40. C
69. C
12. A
41. D
70. A
13. A
42. A
71. D
14. B
43. D
72. D
15. A
44. D
73. A
16. B
45. A
74. D
17. C
46. C
75. C
18. B
47. B
76. B
19. B and C
48. B
77. D
20. A
49. B
78. A
21. A
50. D
79. A
22. B and C
51. B
80. B
23. A and D
52. B
81. B
24. B
53. B
82. A, B, and C
25. C
54. D
83. D
26. C
55. C
84. A, B, and D
27. D
56. A
85. D
28. C
57. C
86. C
29. A, B, and D
58. D
87. A and D
220-802 Practice Exam A
88. C
93. B
98. B
89. C
94. B
99. A
90. A
95. D
100. A
91. B
96. A and B
92. C
97. C
151
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Chapter 7
Answers and Explanations
Domain 1.0: Operating Systems
1. Answers: A, C and F. Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7 are all Microsoft
operating systems that you should know for the exam. iOS is the operating system
Apple uses on its mobile devices. Android is the competitor of iOS and is an opensource operating system used on many other manufacturers’ mobile devices. Android
is developed from Linux. The original Linux was made for PCs with the goal of being a
freely accessible, open-source platform. Okay, that was an easy one…moving on!
2. Answer: B. The only answer listed that is not an option for installing Windows 7 is
CD-ROM. If you wish to install Windows 7 by disc, it would be by DVD-ROM.
Windows 7 can be installed over the network, deployed as an image, and installed
from USB flash drive if you really want to!
3. Answer: C. The New Technology File System (NTFS) is the default file system used
by Windows 7. FAT and FAT32 are older, less desirable file systems that offer less
functionality and less security and access smaller partition sizes. CDFS is the file
system used by an optical disc.
4. Answer: C. The Notification Area (also known as the system tray) is the area toward
the bottom-right of your screen within the taskbar. It contains the time and any applications (shown as icons) currently running in memory. The System Properties dialog
box contains configuration tabs for the computer name and network, hardware, system restore, and more. You can access any of the tabs in that dialog box quickly by
going to Start > Run and typing systempropertiescomputername.exe, systempropertiesadvanced.exe, and so on. The System32 folder resides within the Windows folder;
it contains the critical Windows system files such as ntoskrnl.exe as well as applications such as cmd.exe. The Start menu gives access to most programs and configurations in Windows.
5. Answer: C. Microsoft releases many patches for its operating systems and normally
bundles these bug fixes and security patches together as service packs. New versions
of operating systems are just that: Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Windows 8 are
different “versions”. And they cost money. Service packs are updates, which are free.
Windows Resource Kits are usually a combination of a book and disc that offer
advanced technical guidance for the operating system. Service packs might include
driver updates, but that is only a small portion of what they do.
6. Answer: C. Windows Vista requires a minimum of 512 MB of RAM for installation.
Microsoft recommends 1 GB of RAM.
7. Answers: C and D. Windows 7 32-bit requires 1 GB of RAM. Windows 7 64-bit
requires 2 GB of RAM. The 32-bit version can run on a 32-bit or 64-bit CPU. The
64-bit version runs on a 64-bit CPU only.
8. Answer: D. The MMC (Microsoft Management Console) is a blank shell until you
add snap-ins (such as Computer Management or the Performance Monitor) for functionality. Some people refer to each program in the Control Panel as an applet; the
term was made famous by Apple. You don’t add actual files or directories (folders) to
220-802 Practice Exam A
153
the MMC; you add other programs within Windows. The MMC acts as an index for
your programs and remembers the last place you were working (if you save it).
9. Answer: C. In Windows XP, ntldr is the first file to be loaded from the hard drive when
the computer is started and is known as the boot loader. NTdetect.com detects hardware installed on the system. Boot.ini contains a menu of operating systems that can
be selected and booted to. Ntoskrln.exe is the core operating system file of Windows
XP, Vista, and 7.
10. Answer: A. Winload.exe is the Windows boot loader program for Windows 7 and
Vista. It works in conjunction with the Bootmgr file (Windows Boot Manager) to take
the place of ntldr. Bootmgr is the first file to load in Windows 7/Vista. It reads the
BCD and displays an OS menu (if there is more than one OS). The BCD is the Boot
Configuration Data store; it is the successor to boot.ini. Setup.exe is the default name
of the file that starts installations of Windows and many other programs. Ntoskrnl.exe
is the main system file of Windows—without it, the system would crash and the file
would have to be replaced or repaired.
11. Answer: B. Disk Management is a tool found in Computer Management and allows
for the creation, deletion, and formatting of partitions and logical drives. To view this
application, right-click Computer and select Manage. Then click the Disk Management
icon. Disk Administrator is a much older version of this program used in older, unsupported versions of Windows. Disk Cleanup is a built-in Windows program that can
remove temporary files and other data that you probably won’t use.
12. Answer: A. Primary partitions are the first partitions created on a disk. An OS should
always be installed to a primary partition, but before installing the OS, the primary
partition should be set to active. If you are installing to a new hard disk, Windows
will automatically set the partition to active for you. A hard disk can have four primary
partitions maximum, each with its own drive letter. If you need to subdivide the hard
drive further, you can also use an extended partition, which is then broken up into
logical drives. Any drive that you click on in Windows that has a drive letter is known
as a volume.
13. Answer: A. Windows XP Home and Professional versions need only 64 MB to be
installed. Microsoft recommends more, but 64 is the bare minimum needed to run the
system. Windows XP Media Center, however, requires 256 MB of RAM.
14. Answer: B. The Task Manager enables you, via a click of the Processes tab, to view
all current processes that are running and see how much memory each of them uses.
The Task Manager can be opened by right-clicking the Taskbar and selecting Start
Task Manager, going to Run and typing taskmgr, pressing Ctrl + Shift + Esc, or pressing Ctrl + Alt + Del and selecting Task Manager. Msconfig is a utility in Windows that
allows you to enable and disable applications and services and boot Windows in different modes. Chkdsk is a Command Prompt utility that will search for errors and fix
them (with the /F or /R switches). The System Information tool gives a summary of
hardware resources, components, and the software environment; it can be opened by
going to Run and typing msinfo32.
15. Answer: A. You can start, stop, and restart services within Computer Management >
Services and Applications > Services. From there, right-click the service in question
and configure it as you wish. You can also open Services from Start > All Programs >
Administrative Tools or by going to the Run prompt and typing services.msc. The Task
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Chapter 7
Manager is a tool that allows you to see which applications and processes are running
and analyze the performance of the CPU, RAM, and the networking connection.
Performance Monitor analyzes the computer in much more depth than the Task
Manager. The MMC is the Microsoft Management Console, which is the index that can
store other console windows such as Computer Management.
16. Answer: B. Windows Update is simply located in Start > All Programs. Depending on
the version of Windows, it might be in a slightly different location within All Programs,
but that is the default for Windows 7, Vista, and XP. You can also access it from the
Control Panel if you have the Control Panel configured as Large icons, Small icons, or
Classic view. By the way, that is what the CompTIA A+ objectives calls for you to
know: each of the individual programs in the icons view of Control Panel.
17. Answer: C. The administrator is the only account level that can install device drivers.
Standard user, and especially guest, accounts cannot install drivers or programs. The
Power User group is an older group from the Windows XP days that was carried over
to Windows 7/Vista, but it has no real power in those operating systems.
18. Answer: B. MD is short for make directory and is the command to use when creating
directories in the Command Prompt. CD is change directory. RD is remove directory,
and SD deals with memory cards and is not a valid command in the Command
Prompt.
19. Answers: B and C. To learn more about any command, type the command and then
/?, or type HELP DIR. DIR HELP would attempt to find the file ‘HELP’ within the
current directory. DIR ? would attempt to find information about ?.
20. Answer: A. Use the Command Prompt to launch the command IPCONFIG.
IPCONFIG is a networking command that will display the configuration of your
network adapter. You can open the Command Prompt in a variety of ways. However,
many commands require you to open the Command Prompt as an administrator.
You can open the default Command Prompt by going to Run and typing cmd.exe or
by going to Start > All Programs > Accessories. At this point, to run it as an administrator, right-click it and select Run as Administrator. Or, you could type CMD in the
search field and then press Ctrl + Shift + Enter.
21. Answer: A. Convert is used to upgrade FAT and FAT32 volumes to NTFS without
loss of data. HPFS is the High Performance File System developed by IBM and is not
used by Windows. exFAT (FAT64) is especially designed for flash drives. NFS is the
Network File System, something you might see in a storage area network.
22. Answers: B and C. Disk Defragmenter keeps Windows running more efficiently by
making the files contiguous, lowering the amount of physical work the hard drive has
to do. Check Disk checks the hard drive for errors. Both tools can be found in Start >
All Programs > Accessories > System Tools. Disk Management is used to partition and
format drives. System Restore allows you to take a snapshot of the OS, enabling you
to revert to older settings if something goes wrong. The Task Scheduler (previously
Scheduled Tasks), as the name implies, enables you to set what time you want particular tasks to run.
23. Answers: A and D. The Windows 7 (and Vista) recovery environment (WinRE) is also
known as System Recovery Options. From here you can restore the system, fix file
220-802 Practice Exam A
155
errors, and work in an unprotected Command Prompt. The Recovery Console is the
predecessor of WinRE, available in Windows XP. Advanced Boot Options is the menu
that can be accessed by pressing F8, which is available in 7/Vista/XP. It is also referred
to as ABOM.
24. Answer: B. Setuperr.log contains information about setup errors during the installation
of Windows 7/Vista. Start with this log file when troubleshooting. A file size of 0 bytes
indicates no errors during installation. Setupact.log contains the events that occurred
during the installation. Unattend.xml is the answer file used by Windows 7/Vista during unattended installations. Setuplog.txt records events that occurred during the text
portion installation of Windows XP. Windows 7/Vista does not have a text portion during installation.
25. Answer: C. 128 GB is the limit of RAM that Windows Vista can access. This is a software limitation, not a hardware limitation. Even though 64-bit CPUs can address a
realistic maximum of 256 terabytes (TB), software is always far more limited. There
are some versions of Windows 7 that can access a maximum of 192 GB of RAM.
26. Answer: C. The arrow pointing down tells you that the device is disabled in Windows
7 and Vista. In Windows XP it is indicated with a red X. In many cases, it can easily be
enabled by right-clicking it and selecting Enable. If the driver had not been installed,
the device would most likely be sitting in a category called Unknown Devices. If the
device is not even recognized by Windows, it will not show up on the list or will show
up under Unknown Devices. There is no queue to be deleted.
27. Answer: D. NTFS and FAT32 support the same number of file formats. This is the only
listed similarity between the two. Otherwise, NTFS has the advantage: it supports file
encryption in the form of EFS and BitLocker, supports larger file sizes, and supports
much larger volumes.
28. Answer: C. /E is needed to copy the files, directories, subdirectories, including empty
subdirectories. /S will copy files, directories, and subdirectories, but not empty subdirectories. If you add /T on to the end, you get the directory structure but no files are
copied. Be sure to check out the xcopy help file for more on its switches. And remember that *.* means all the files within a particular directory.
29. Answers: A, B, and D. For secondary drives, you must go to Disk Management and
initialize, partition, and format them. FDISK is an older DOS command. Today’s computers’ BIOS should see the drive automatically with no configuration needed. In special cases a hard disk might require special drivers.
30. Answers: A and C. Windows 7 Starter and Windows XP Professional. Windows 7
Starter is a very basic, and 32-bit only, OS. Aero was released with Windows Vista, so
no version of Windows XP had it. All the rest of the listed answers include Aero.
31. Answer: C. System Restore is the tool used to create restore points. In Windows 7 it
can be found in Start > All Programs > Accessories > System Tools. The disk defragmenter is used to fix hard drives that have become slow with fragmentation.
NTBackup is the backup program included with Windows XP. Disk Cleanup removes
unwanted junk from the system such as temporary files.
32. Answer: C. Pausing printing in general and pausing individual documents is done by
double-clicking on the printer in question and making the modifications from the
ensuing window. All the others can be modified from the Printer Properties screen.
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Chapter 7
33. Answer: C. After Auditing is turned on and specific resources are configured for auditing, you need to check the Event Viewer’s Security log for the entries. These could be
successful logons or misfired attempts at deleting files; there are literally hundreds of
options. The Application log contains errors, warnings, and informational entries about
applications. The System log deals with drivers and system files and so on. A system
maintenance log can be used to record routine maintenance procedures; it is not
something that is included in Windows.
Domain 2.0: Security
34. Answer: D. Worms travel through the Internet and through local area networks
(LANs). They are similar to viruses but differ in that they self-replicate. Macros are
viruses that attach to programs like Microsoft Word and Word files. Trojans are
viruses that look like programs and often seek to gain backdoor access to a system.
Phishing is an attempt to fraudulently acquire information, often by e-mail or phone.
35. Answer: B. With User Account Control (UAC) enabled, users perform common tasks
as nonadministrators and, when necessary, as administrators without having to switch
users, log off, or use Run As. If the user is logged in as an administrator, a pop-up
window will appear verifying that the user has administrative privileges before action
is taken; the user need only click Yes. If the user is not logged on as an administrator,
clicking Yes will cause Windows to prompt the user for an administrative username
and password. USMT stands for User State Migration Tool, which is used to move
files and user settings from one system (or systems) to another. USB is the Universal
Serial Bus and has little to do with this question except to serve to confuse the unwary
with another acronym. VNC stands for Virtual Network Computing; it’s a type of program that allows a person at a computer to remotely take control of another computer
or device. Examples include RealVNC and TightVNC.
36. Answers: A, B, and D. A multifunction network device that acts as both a wireless
access point (WAP) and router comes with a standard, default SSID name (that everyone knows). It is a good idea to change it. After PCs and laptops have been associated
with the wireless network, turn off SSID broadcasting so that no one else can find
your WAP (with normal means). Disabling DHCP and instead using static IP addresses
removes one of the types of packets that are broadcast from the WAP, making it more
difficult to hack, but of course less functional and useful! Other ways to secure the
wireless access point include changing the password; incorporating strong encryption
such as Wi-Fi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2) with Advanced Encryption Standard
(AES); and initiating MAC filtering, which only allows the computers with the MAC
addresses you specify access to the wireless network.
37. Answers: A and D. The padlock in the locked position tells you that the website is
using a secure certificate to protect your session. This padlock could be in different
locations depending on the web browser used. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure
(HTTPS) also defines that the session is using either the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
protocol or the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol. HTTP by itself is enough for
regular web sessions when you read documents and so on, but HTTPS is required
when you log in to a site, purchase items, or do online banking. HTTPS opens a
secure channel on port 443 as opposed to the default, insecure HTTP port 80.
220-802 Practice Exam A
157
38. Answer: B. Antivirus software (such as McAfee or Norton) updates automatically so
as to protect you against the latest viruses, whether they are attached to e-mails or are
lying in wait on removable media. Firewalls protect against intrusion but not viruses.
They could be hardware-based, such as the ones found in most SOHO multifunction
network devices, or software-based, such as the Windows Firewall. Windows Defender
is free Microsoft software that protects against spyware/malware.
39. Answer: A. Social engineering is the practice of obtaining confidential information by
manipulating people. Using someone else’s network is just plain theft. Hacking into a
router is just that, hacking. And a virus is a program that spreads through computers
and networks (if executed by the user) that might or might not cause damage to files
and applications.
40. Answer: C. Software-based firewalls, such as the Windows Firewall, normally run on
client computers. It is possible that they will run on servers, especially if the server is
acting as a network firewall, but otherwise the servers will usually rely on a hardwarebased network firewall and/or an IDS/IPS solution. Hardware-based firewalls are also
found in multifunction network devices. Some people might refer to these devices as
routers, but the router functionality is really just one of the roles of the multifunction
network device—separate from the firewall role. Plus, higher-end routers for larger
networks are usually not combined with firewall functionality.
41. Answer: D. Spoofing is when a malicious user makes web pages, data, or e-mail
appear to be coming from somewhere else. Hacking is a general term that describes
an attacker trying to break into a system. Phishing is when a person fraudulently
attempts to gain confidential information from unsuspecting users. Cracking is a term
that is used to describe breaking passwords.
42. Answer: A. Biometrics is the study of recognizing humans. A fingerprint reader falls
into this category as a biometric device. Smart cards are often the size of credit cards
and store information that is transmitted to a reader. A barcode reader is a device that
scans codes made up of different-width parallel lines, and SSID is a form of device
identification that is broadcast from a wireless access point.
43. Answer: D. A password gets more secure as you increase its length and then add
capital letters, numbers, and finally special characters. Note that Marqu1s_DeS0d has
a capital M, a 1 in the place of an I, an underscore, a capital D, a capital S, and a zero.
The only thing that this password lacks to make it a super password is the length.
Fifteen characters or more is an industry standard for highly secure passwords.
44. Answer: D. Windows+L automatically and immediately locks the computer. Only the
person who locked it or an administrator can unlock it. (Unless, of course, another
user knows your password.) Ctrl+Alt+Del brings up the Windows Security dialog box.
From there, you can lock the computer, too, but with an extra step. Windows+M minimizes all open applications, and Windows+R brings up the Run prompt.
45. Answer: A. You should install a virtual private network (VPN). This enables a secure
connection between two offices using the Internet. It utilizes one of two tunneling
protocols to make the secure connection: Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
or Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). FTP is the File Transfer Protocol; by default
it is not secure. VLAN stands for virtual local area network; a VLAN is confined within
a single office but does offer some security in the form of compartmentalization.
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Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is used to make connections to websites but is
not secure by itself; that would require HTTPS.
46. Answer: C. NTFS is Windows’ New Technology File System. It secures files and folders
(and in fact, the whole partition) much better than any FAT system does. EFS, BitLocker,
and NTFS permissions are just a few of the advantages of an NTFS partition. FAT is just
another name for FAT16, which you will rarely see. FAT32 is also uncommon, though
you might see removable media formatted to this file system.
47. Answer: B. WPA2 is superior to WPA, and WEP and takes much longer to crack
(if crackable at all). It works best with AES. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is deprecated (outdated) and is considered insecure. It should be avoided unless it is the only
encryption option you have; even then, you should consider new hardware and software. TKIP stands for Temporal Key Integrity Protocol; it is a deprecated encryption
protocol used with WEP and WPA. The replacement is CCMP.
48. Answer: B. Social engineering is when fraudulent individuals try to get information
from users through manipulation. Compare this to hacking, which is attempting to
break into a system with technology, and cracking, which is breaking passwords with
software. Phishing is a type of social engineering; it is implemented via e-mail or over
the phone (vishing).
49. Answer: B. Many tools can recover data from a drive after it is formatted. Many
companies will low-level format the drive and keep it in storage indefinitely.
50. Answer: D. Adware creates those pesky pop-up windows. All of the listed answers
are types of malicious software (malware). Grayware is a classification of malware
that behaves in an annoying manner but is not necessarily detrimental to the computer
system. Spyware is software that tracks a user’s actions on the Internet, without the
user’s knowledge. A worm is a piece of code that infects files and systems; it selfreplicates and spreads throughout networks on its own.
51. Answer: B. Smart cards are actual physical cards that you use as authentication tools.
They are sometimes referred to as tokens and have built-in processors. Examples of
smart cards include the Personal Identity Verification (PIV) card used by U.S. government employees and the Common Access Card (CAC) used by Department of Defense
personnel. All of the other answers are software related and are logical in their implementations.
52. Answer: B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and the newer Transport Layer Security (TLS)
encrypt the transactions through the website. These SSL certificates are often accompanied by the protocol HTTPS. HTTP by itself is not secure. Putty is a tool used for
secure text-based connections to hosts and does not involve the website. Kerberos is
the protocol used on a domain to encrypt passwords.
53. Answer: B. Common local security policies include password length, duration, and
complexity. Just the use of a password doesn’t constitute a password policy. An
example of a password policy would be when an organization mandates that passwords be 15 characters in length with at least 1 capital letter, 1 number, and 1 special
character.
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159
54. Answer: D. Part of the point of the limited account is to limit it to doing everyday
tasks only and not installing (possibly malicious) programs. Limited accounts are used
in Windows XP. The equivalent of this in any Windows system is the standard user
account.
55. Answer: C. A Trojan is a disguised program that is used to gain access to a computer
and either steal information or take control of the computer. A worm is code that
infects a system and self-replicates to other systems. Spam is the abuse of e-mail and
the bane of mankind. Spyware is software unwittingly downloaded from the Internet
that tracks a user’s actions while surfing the Web.
Domain 3.0: Mobile Devices
56. Answer: A. Android is an open-source OS. It is freely downloadable and can be modified by manufacturers of mobile devices to suit their specific hardware. Apple’s iOS
and Microsoft’s two mobile OSes—Windows CE and Windows Mobile—are closedsource; a company would have to pay a fee for every license of the OS.
57. Answer: C. Tablets and other mobile devices will often use Advanced RISC Machine
(ARM) CPUs. These are designed for simplicity and low-power usage compared to
desktop computer CPUs such as the Intel Core i5 and AMD Phenom II and FX CPUs.
58. Answer: D. The micro-B USB port is a common charging/data port for Android
devices. Some manufacturers modify the design to create a proprietary micro-B USB
port. Mobile devices do not use the standard size USB ports that desktop computers
do, and it is uncommon for them to use mini-USB ports.
59. Answer: A. Tablets do not have a mouse; instead you use your finger(s) or a stylus to
tap on the display (known as a touchscreen). Tablets have displays and wireless network adapters. They also have an onscreen keyboard. The question did not specify
physical or virtual keyboard. Be ready for vagaries such as those on the real exam.
60. Answers: A, B, C, and D. Android users download applications (apps) from the
Android Market (now known as Google Play). Apple users download apps from the
App Store or from within iTunes.
61. Answer: C. Accelerometers are combinations of hardware and software that measure
velocity on the X axis (left to right), the Y axis (up and down), and the Z axis (back to
front). This aids in screen orientation on mobile devices. The gyroscope adds the
measurements of pitch, roll, and yaw, which are necessary for today’s mobile games
and other apps. Lock Rotation is a setting (and a switch) on Apple iPad devices that
stops the screen from reorienting as you rotate it. Geotracking is the practice of tracking and recording the location of a mobile device.
62. Answer: A. The Global Positioning System (GPS) technology can be instrumental in
locating lost or stolen mobile devices. Many devices have this installed; others rely on
geotracking or Wi-Fi hotspot locating techniques. (You are being watched!) Screen
orientation is how the screen is displayed depending on how you hold the device: vertical or horizontal (or upside down). It can be calibrated on Android devices with the
G-Sensor calibration tool. Passcode locks are sets of numbers that are required to be
entered when a mobile device is turned on or taken out of sleep mode. Gmail is a webbased e-mail service by Google. It is incorporated into the Android operating system.
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63. Answers: A and C. Some of the things you might synchronize on a smartphone
include contacts, e-mail, programs, pictures, music, and videos. However, mobile
devices (as of the writing of this book) do not run Microsoft Office, so you would have
no need to back up Word documents. Databases are not often backed up; they are
often not even run on mobile devices, but the mobile device might make connections
to databases.
64. Answers: A and C. The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) and the
general packet radio service (GPRS) are used to connect to the Internet at 2G, 3G,
and 4G speeds. Wi-Fi connections also allow connections to the Internet given there
is a hotspot available. They work the same way Wi-Fi does with PCs and laptops.
Bluetooth is used to connect wireless devices to the mobile device—for example,
headsets. Fiber optic is not wireless, and mobile devices do not make use of it.
Domain 4.0: Troubleshooting
65. Answer: B. When troubleshooting a computer system, always look for the most likely
and simplest solutions first. The fact that the user might not have turned her monitor
on when she first came in is a likely scenario. Afterward, you could check whether the
computer is on, if the computer and monitor are plugged into the AC outlet, and
whether the monitor is plugged into the computer. Reinstalling the video driver is
much further down the list.
66. Answer: B. The second step is to establish a theory of probable cause. You are looking for the obvious or most probable cause for the problem. This comes after identifying the problem and before testing your theory. Documentation is last.
67. Answer: A. When Windows XP is first starting, pressing F8 brings up the Windows
Advanced Boot Options Menu (ABOM), which includes several options for Safe mode
(among other options). This is similar to the ABOM in Windows 7/Vista. Ctrl brings up
a special menu that contains only the Safe mode options (not available in Windows
7/Vista/XP). When you enter Safe mode, the video driver is bypassed and only a simple VGA driver is loaded, allowing Bob to troubleshoot his video driver. (F5 also brings
up the Windows Advanced Boot Options menu on some systems.)
68. Answer: A. Back up data before making any changes to the computer. This way, if
your changes affect the functionality of the system, you can always restore the data
later. You should do this before making any changes to the software or OS and before
opening the computer.
69. Answer: C. Documentation is the final step in the troubleshooting process. This helps
you to better understand and articulate exactly what the problem (and solution) was.
If you see this problem in the future, you can consult your documentation for the solution. Plus, others on your team can do the same. In addition, it is common company
policy to document all findings as part of a trouble ticket.
70. Answer: A. Chances are that the computer has faulty memory or memory that needs
to be reseated properly. The flashing cursor on the screen tells you that the system is
not posting properly. The numbers counting up are the system checking the RAM. If
the system beeps and freezes during this count-up, then the RAM has an issue. It
could also be incompatible with the motherboard. A corrupt MBR would either give a
220-802 Practice Exam A
161
message stating “missing OS” or “the MBR is corrupt”. If the OS was corrupted, you
would get a message to that effect. If the computer attempts to boot off of the network, you will see gray text and a spinning pipe sign as it attempts to find a DHCP
server.
71. Answer: D. Implement preventative measures as part of step 5 to ensure that the
problem will not happen again. The entire step is “Verify full system functionality and
if applicable implement preventive measures.” It comes just after establishing a plan
of action and just before documenting findings.
72. Answer: D. If the PC is not connected to the AC outlet, the hard drive will not spin,
so it isn’t a possible reason for why nothing is coming up on the monitor, given the
question’s scenario. All other answers are possible reasons for why nothing is showing up on the display. Also, the monitor might not be plugged in.
73. Answer: A. MSCONFIG can turn programs on and off in the Startup tab. By modifying
this, you effectively create a selective startup. Task Manager can turn off programs,
but only temporarily; when the system restarts, those programs will run again.
74. Answer: D. The Event Viewer contains the error logs; they are finite in size. You could
either clear the log or increase the size of the log. The other three do not contain error
logs.
75. Answer: C. The Advanced Boot Options menu has many options, including Safe Mode.
This menu can be accessed by pressing F8 when the computer first boots up. Know
those ABOM options!
76. Answer: B. Try pressing the video toggle button or combination key on the laptop’s
keyboard first. If that doesn’t work, check all cables and power. Finally, you might try
changing the bulb in the projector, though you can usually tell if the bulb is working by
accessing the menu buttons on the projector.
77. Answer: D. System File Checker (SFC) checks protected system files and replaces
incorrect versions. None of the other options check system files. Chkdsk can check
for and repair errors, but just regular files. Xcopy is used to copy entire directories of
information. Scandisk is an older command-line scanning tool that today’s versions
of Windows don’t use. It is replaced by Chkdsk.
78. Answer: A. If you get any address that starts with 169.254, it means the computer
has self-assigned that address. It is known as an APIPA address (Automatic Private IP
Addressing). Normally, DHCP servers will not use this network number. A simple
ipconfig/release and ipconfig/renew might fix the problem, if a DHCP
server is actually available. The POP3 server is for incoming mail, the DNS server is
for resolving domain names to IP addresses, and the WINS server is for resolving
NETBIOS names to IP addresses.
79. Answer: A. 127.0.0.1 is the built-in loopback IP address for every computer with
TCP/IP installed. Alternatively, you could ping any number on the 127 network or ping
localhost without the double backslash. This helps you determine if TCP/IP works on
the local computer’s network adapter, but it doesn’t indicate if you have a working network connection.
80. Answer: B. Disconnect the external monitor. You might also choose to disconnect the
USB hard drive. External devices and peripherals could cause conflicts in a computer
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system that stops it from posting properly and booting. Turning off the monitor doesn’t change the fact that it is connected to the laptop’s port. Removing the battery will
only tell you if the system will still work on AC power only. Formatting the external
USB drive will wipe out all data stored on it and probably won’t fix the problem, unless
the laptop’s BIOS was incorrectly set to boot from the external drive instead of the
internal drive, and if the external drive had an OS installed to it.
81. Answer: B. You must partition the drive before formatting. Copying files can be done
only after formatting is complete. CHKDSK has little value on an unformatted drive as
it checks files for errors and integrity. Something else not mentioned here is that a
second drive would have to be initialized in Windows before use.
82. Answers: A, B, and C. There are several possible reasons a paper jam might occur.
The paper could be stuck somewhere in the paper path, the paper could be too thick,
or the rollers could be damaged. However, the primary corona wire doesn’t cause
paper jams; instead, a damaged primary corona wire might cause lines or smearing.
83. Answer: D. Ghosted images or blurry marks could be a sign that the drum has some
kind of imperfection or is dirty, especially if the image reappears at equal intervals.
Replace the drum (or toner cartridge). Another possibility is that the fuser assembly
has been damaged and needs to be replaced.
84. Answers: A, B, and D. Always make sure that the speaker power (if any) is plugged
into an AC outlet and that the speakers are on (if they have a power button). When a
sound card is first installed, Windows should recognize it and either install a driver
through plug-and-play or ask for a driver CD. For best results, use the manufacturer’s
driver, the latest of which can be found on its website. Make sure that you plug the
speakers into the correct 1/8" RCA jack. The speaker out is the one with concentric circles and an arrow pointing out. Or you might have 5.1 surround sound; in which case,
you would use the standard front speaker jack, which is often a green jack. Finally, it’s
quite hard to plug a sound card into a wrong slot. For example, if you have a PCI 32bit sound card (a common standard), you can then plug that sound card into any of
the available PCI slots on your motherboard and it will be recognized. (Word to the
wise, if you ever remove the sound card when upgrading, make sure you put it back in
the same slot.) PCI cards will not fit in ISA, AGP, or PCIe slots.
85. Answer: D. The wireless hardware switch (or button) is turned off. Always check that
Wi-Fi switch. If it is enabled, then make sure that the wireless adapter is enabled in
Windows. Check if the laptop is within range of the wireless access point. The drivers
and the firmware should not be an issue because the laptop was able to connect yesterday. However, you never know what might have happened, so check those later on
in your troubleshooting process.
86. Answer: C. The primary partition must be set to active to boot to the operating system. If there is only one drive, the jumper setting probably won’t matter, and if it is
wrong, the drive simply won’t be seen by the BIOS. The same holds true for power; if
the drive does not get power, the BIOS will not recognize it. Finally, hard drives do not
need drivers to simply be recognized.
87. Answers: A and D. Older PCs might need the BIOS to be upgraded before an installation. Always flash the latest BIOS before performing an upgrade or a fresh install.
Always check the hardware on the HCL before performing an install or upgrade. If the
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163
CPU or RAM is not compatible or if you have a corrupt driver file, a blue screen could
occur. The blue screen is technically referred to as a Stop Error. IRQ conflicts will not
cause BSODs, but they will render the affected devices inoperable. Viruses in the MBR
could cause the computer to simply not boot.
88. Answer: C. A black exclamation point on a yellow field tells you that the device is in a
problem state and is probably malfunctioning. The device might need to be replaced or
reseated, or the firmware might need to be upgraded. (This can be displayed as a yellow exclamation point in Windows XP.) If the device was disabled, it would show an
arrow pointing down (Windows 7/Vista) or a red X (Windows XP). The device might
not be on the HCL, but the Device Manager doesn’t have an icon to tell you that
specifically. Also, the Device Manager won’t tell you if a system is infected with malware. Individual devices generally don’t get infected with malware anyway; normally
the operating system does.
89. Answer: C. The purpose of a DNS server is to resolve (convert) hostnames and
domain names to the IP address. Computers normally communicate via IP address,
but it is easier for humans to type in names. If Davidprowse.com is down, you cannot
ping the corresponding IP address at all. As to the incorrect answers: If the DHCP
server is down, your workstation will probably not have an IP on the network and
again will not ping the corresponding IP address. ADDS is Active Directory Directory
Services, meaning a domain controller, which doesn’t have much to do with this,
except that in many smaller companies, the domain controller and DNS server are one
and the same.
90. Answer: A. You should perform backups during the first step: Identify the problem.
The idea is that you back up the data before you actually do anything to the computer.
Testing theories is step 3. Verifying full functionality is step 5. Documenting findings is
step 6.
91. Answer: B. Startup repair attempts to fix issues automatically. This is available in
Windows 7/Vista’s WinRE System Recovery Options.
92. Answer: C. The fourth step of the CompTIA six-step troubleshooting process is:
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. Identify
the problem is step 1. Establish a theory of probable cause is step 2. Document findings is step 6.
93. Answer: B. You must have the correct firmware to recognize the latest CPUs. If the
CPU is not seated properly or if you have an incorrect CPU, the system simply won’t
boot. Windows does not affect the POST at all. In some cases, you might purchase a
motherboard that says it can support a specific new processor. However, the firmware
might not have been written yet to actually work with that processor!
94. Answer: B. IPCONFIG/ALL shows a lot of information, including the MAC address.
Plain old IPCONFIG shows only the IP address, subnet mask, and gateway address.
Ping tests whether other computers are alive on the network. Ipconfig/release
is used to troubleshoot DHCP-obtained IP addresses. It is often used in conjunction
with ipconfig/renew.
95. Answer: D. First try printing an internal test page, meaning from the printer’s onscreen
display. If that doesn’t work, you need to start troubleshooting the printer; perhaps the
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toner cartridge is empty, or maybe a corona wire is malfunctioning. If the test page
prints fine, you can check the printer drivers and other settings at the computer that
uses the printer. Restarting the spooler should not help in this situation. If the spooler
stalled, then no paper should come out of the printer. Likewise, the printer cable
should not have to be replaced.
96. Answers: A and B. The easiest and (probably) cheapest way is to move the WAP.
Basements are usually the worst place for an access point because of concrete foundations and walls, electrical interference, and so on. Signal boosters might also work,
but often the cost of a signal booster is the same as buying a newer, more powerful
WAP! Unfortunately, new drivers and firmware usually will not help the situation.
97. Answer: C. The simplest solution is often the most common. Check cables and see
whether the power is on for your devices and computers.
98. Answer: B. The Event Viewer logs all errors that occur on a system. Particularly, the
System log would contain the information useful in troubleshooting this error.
99. Answer: A. The most common reason for a BSOD (blue screen of death, otherwise
known as a stop error) is driver failure. Second on the list is memory/processorrelated errors. Hard drives and CD-ROMs themselves should not cause stop errors,
but their drivers might.
100. Answer: A. Run the installer as an administrator. Programs cannot be installed by
standard users or guests. You must have administrative rights to do so.
8
CHAPTER EIGHT
220-802 Practice
Exam B
The previous 220-802 exam was the introduction. This next
test will take it to the next level and could be considered an
intermediate practice test. I’ll be blending in some more difficult questions this time. Unlike the first exam, this one is
freestyle, meaning the questions are randomized. You can
expect questions from any of the four domains, in any order.
The main goal of this practice exam is to make sure you understand all of the concepts before moving on to the next test. If
you didn’t already, I suggest taking a break between exams. If
you just completed the first exam, give yourself a half-hour or
so before you begin this one. If you didn’t score 90% or higher on exam A, go back and study; then retake exam A until you
pass with 90% or higher.
Write down your answers and check them against the answer
key, which immediately follows the exam. After the answer key
you will find the explanations for all of the answers. Good
luck!
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✓
Quick Check
Practice Questions
1. In which step of the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting process would
you question the user?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 189
Identify the problem
Establish a theory
Establish a plan of action
Document findings
2. Which tool would you be using if you were setting the computer
to boot with the Selective Startup feature?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 189
A. Task Manager
B. Recovery Console
❍ C. Safe Mode
❍ D. Msconfig
3. You have been given the task of installing a new hard drive on a
server for a customer. The customer will be supervising your
work. What should you ask the customer first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Are there any current backups?
Do you want me to shut down the server?
Which version of Windows Server is this?
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 189
Access the Recovery Console
Boot into Safe mode and roll back the driver
Reinstall the operating system
Boot into Directory Services Restore mode
5. Which tool is used to analyze and diagnose a video card?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 189
What is the administrator password?
4. You just upgraded the president’s computer’s video driver. Now,
the Windows XP system will not boot. Which of the following
should you try first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Device Manager
DxDiag
Services.msc
USMT
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 189
220-802 Practice Exam B
167
✓
Quick Check
6. Which of the following is a feature of Windows 7 but not Windows
Vista?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Aero
Application dock
Sidebar
\%systemroot%\Windows
Detailed Answer: 190
\%systemroot%\System32
\%systemroot%\System32\Config
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 190
RAM
CD-ROM
Video card
CPU
9. What is the default initial size of virtual memory in Windows?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
\%systemroot%\Windows\System32\Config
8. You just built a PC, and when it first boots you hear some beep
codes. If you don’t have the codes memorized, what are the best
devices to examine first? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 189
UAC
7. Where is registry hive data stored?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
A. 1.5 times RAM
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 190
B. 3 times RAM
❍ C. 6 times RAM
❍ D. The same as the amount of RAM on the system
10. A co-worker needs to print to a printer from a laptop running
Windows 7. The printer has a USB and an Ethernet connector.
What is the easiest way to connect the printer to the laptop?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Use the parallel port
Use the network connection
Use the USB connector
Use the Ethernet connector
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 190
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Chapter 8
✓
Quick Check
11. How can you restart the Print Spooler service? (Select the two
best answers.)
❍
A. Enter net stop spooler and then net start
spooler in the command line
❍
B. Enter net stop print spooler and then net
start print spooler in the command line
❍
C. Go to Computer Management > Services and restart
the Print Spooler service
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 190
❍ D. Go to Computer Management > Services and
Applications > Services and restart the Print Spooler
service
12. Clinton needs a more secure partition on his hard drive. Currently,
the only partition on the drive (C:) is formatted as FAT32. He
cannot lose the data on the drive but must have a higher level
of security, so he is asking you to change the drive to NTFS.
What is the proper syntax for this procedure?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 190
Change C: /FS:NTFS
Change C: NTFS /FS
Convert C: /FS:NTFS
Convert C: NTFS /FS
13. You work in an Internet cafe that has publicly used desktop computers. The computers need to be accessible by anyone. Which
type of password should you set in the BIOS?
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 190
A. User
❍ B. Administrator
❍ C. Supervisor
❍ D. Guest
14. What is a common risk when installing Windows drivers that are
unsigned?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
System stability may be compromised.
Files might be cross-linked.
The drive might become fragmented.
Physical damage to devices might occur.
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 191
220-802 Practice Exam B
169
✓
Quick Check
15. Which of the following utilities can be used to view the startup
programs?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 191
Ipconfig
Ping
Regedit
DxDiag
16. Tom has a 30 GB hard disk partition (known as C:) on a Windows
Vista computer. He has 1.5 GB free space on the partition. How
can he defrag the partition?
❍
A. He can run the Disk Defragmenter in Computer
Management.
❍
❍
B. He can run DEFRAG.EXE –f in the command line.
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 191
C. He can run DEFRAG.EXE –v in the command line.
❍ D. He can run DEFRAG.EXE –A in the command line.
17. If you get a Code 1 message about a particular device in the
Device Manager, what should you do?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Disable the device
Update the driver
Reinstall the driver
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 191
The brand of access point
The wireless standard used
The encryption standard used
The SSID of the access point
19. Which Windows utility is used to prepare a disk image for duplication across the network?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 191
Close applications and install RAM
18. Which of the following settings must be established if you want to
make a secure wireless connection? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
XCOPY
SYSPREP
Ghost
Image Clone
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 191
170
Chapter 8
✓
Quick Check
20. You have had several support requests for one PC located in a
school cafeteria kitchen. You have already reseated the PCIe
and PCI cards and replaced the hard drive in the PC. Computers
located in the business office or the classrooms have not had
this issue. What most likely causing the issue?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 191
Excessive heat
Faulty RAM
240 V outlets
Power brownouts
21. In Windows Vista, when will a computer dump the physical
memory?
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 192
A. When the wrong processor is installed
❍ B. When a device is missing drivers
❍ C. When the computer was shut down improperly
❍ D. When the computer detects a condition from which it
cannot recover
22. If a person takes control of a session between a server and a
client, it is known as which type of attack?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 192
DDoS
Smurf
Session hijacking
Malicious software
23. The message “The Windows Boot Configuration Data File Is
Missing Required Information” appears on the screen. Which
command would you type to repair this issue?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 192
bootrec /fixboot
bootrec /fixmbr
bootrec /rebuildbcd
boot\bcd
Quick Answer: 187
24. What can be described as a mobile device sharing its Internet
connection with other Wi-Fi capable devices?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
USB tethering
Wi-Fi sharing
Internet pass-through
Wi-Fi tethering
Detailed Answer: 192
220-802 Practice Exam B
171
✓
Quick Check
25. Which of the following should be performed during a hard drive
replacement to best maintain data privacy?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 192
A. Completely erase the old drive prior to disposal
B. Format the new hard drive twice prior to installation
C. Only use FAT32 file systems when formatting the new
drives
❍ D. Install antivirus software on the computer before
removing the old hard drive
26. You are utilizing WSUS and are testing new updates on PCs. What
is this an example of?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 192
A. Host-based firewall
B. Application baselining
C. Patch management
❍ D. Virtualization
27. In Windows XP, how do you fix the “NTLDR is missing or corrupt”
error?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 193
Run the System Restore utility
Restore the registry
Restart in Safe Mode
Run the Recovery Console utility
28. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is next after determining the cause?
❍
❍
A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes
❍
C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and
implement the solution
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 193
B. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable,
implement preventative measures
❍ D. Question the user and identify user changes
29. Which tool would you use to back up data on the C: drive in
Windows Vista?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
NTBackup
Backup Status and Configuration
Task Manager
ASR
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 193
172
Chapter 8
✓
Quick Check
30. What is the minimum processor requirement for Windows Vista?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
133 MHz
800 MHz
1 GHz
800 MHz
Detailed Answer: 193
2 GHz
2 GB
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 193
System Tools
System Properties
Windows Compatibility Center
Resource Monitor
33. You create an answer file to aid in installing Windows 7. Which
type of installation are you performing? (Select the best answer.)
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
1 GHz
32. Where would you go to find out if the hardware in your system is
compatible with Windows 7?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 193
233 MHz
31. What is the minimum processor requirement for Windows 7?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 194
A. Disk image installation
B. USB installation
C. Multiboot installation
❍ D. Unattended installation
34. How much free disk space is required to install Windows Vista?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
20 GB
Detailed Answer: 194
2 GB
4 GB
15 GB
35. How much free disk space is required to install Windows 7?
(Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
8 GB
10 GB
16 GB
20 GB
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 194
220-802 Practice Exam B
173
✓
Quick Check
36. A user with a laptop frequently goes into the office to work.
However, the laptop only has two USB ports and the user is
unable to connect the keyboard, mouse, monitor, and scanner at
the same time. What would resolve this problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 194
KVM switch
IEEE 1394 connection
Docking station
Bluetooth adapter
37. Which component of the Windows GUI includes the clock and
other programs that run in the background?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 194
A. Quick Launch
B. Task bar
C. Notification Area
❍ D. Desktop
38. How can the Command Prompt be opened as an administrator
(known as elevated mode) in Windows 7/Vista? (Select all that
apply.)
❍
A. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories; then
right-click Command Prompt and select Run as
Administrator.
❍
B. Click Start > All Programs >Accessories; then
right-click Command Prompt and select Run in
elevated mode.
❍
C. Click Start and type cmd in the search field, and
instead of pressing Enter, press Ctrl+Shift+Enter.
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 194
❍ D. Click Start and type cmd in Run prompt, and instead
of pressing Enter, press Ctrl+Shift+Enter.
39. Which version of Windows 7 does not include Windows XP
Mode?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Home Premium
Professional
Ultimate
Enterprise
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 195
174
Chapter 8
✓
Quick Check
40. Which version of Windows Vista does not include remote desktop
connection functionality?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Business
Ultimate
Enterprise
Change the toner cartridges
Add memory to the printer
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 195
The drum needs replacing.
The printer is offline.
There’s an incorrect driver.
There’s a dirty primary corona wire.
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 195
Replace the laptop battery
Reinstall the operating system
Reseat in the docking station
Remove and reseat the battery
44. One of your customers reports that there is a large amount of
spam in her e-mail inbox. What should you recommend the
user do?
❍
❍
Detailed Answer: 195
Replace the communications cable
43. A co-worker notices that the battery light on a laptop is flashing
when the laptop is in a docking station. Which of the following
should you try first to fix the problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Check if the correct type of paper is being used
42. You print an image to your printer, but the page shows a ghosted
image. What could be the problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 195
Home Premium
41. What should you do first if a printer fails to print very large documents but still prints smaller documents without a problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
A. Tell the user to create a new e-mail account
B. Tell the user to add the senders to the junk e-mail
sender list
❍ C. Tell the user to find a new ISP
❍ D. Tell the user to reply to all spam and opt out of future
e-mails
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 195
220-802 Practice Exam B
175
✓
Quick Check
45. In Windows Vista, where can devices like the display and hard
drives be configured to turn off after a certain amount of time?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 195
Power plans
Display Properties
Computer Management
Power Options Properties window
46. How can you find out which type of connection the printer is using?
❍
A. Right-click the printer, select Properties, and click the
Sharing tab
❍
B. Right-click the printer, select Properties, and click the
Advanced tab
❍
C. Right-click the printer, select Properties, and click the
Separator Page button
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 196
❍ D. Right-click the printer, select Properties, and click the
Ports tab
47. Your customer is having problems printing from an application.
You attempt to send a test page to the printer. Why should a test
page be used to troubleshoot the issue?
❍
❍
A. It allows you to see the quality of the printer output.
❍
C. It verifies the connectivity and illuminates possible
application problems.
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 196
B. The output of the test page allows you to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer.
❍ D. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory.
48. A computer’s CPU overheats and shuts down the system intermittently. What should you check to fix the problem? (Select the two
best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 196
Check if the heat sink is secure.
Check the BIOS temperature threshold.
Check if the fan is connected.
Check if the RAM needs to be reseated.
49. Which programs can you use to test your RAM? (Select the two
best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Task Manager
System Information
Chkdsk
CPU-Z
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 196
176
Chapter 8
✓
Quick Check
50. A user’s hard drive seems very slow in its reaction time when
opening applications. What could be causing this?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 196
The drive needs to be initialized.
The temporary files need to be deleted.
The drive is fragmented.
The drive’s SATA data connector is loose.
51. A tablet device is having trouble accessing the wireless network.
What should you do to troubleshoot the problem? (Select the
three best answers.)
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 196
A. Power cycle the device
B. Use GPRS instead
C. Check if the SSID was correct
❍ D. Set up a static IP
❍ E. Forget the network and reconnect to it
52. Which of the following will not secure a functioning computer
workstation?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 197
Setting a strong password
Changing default usernames
Disabling the guest account
Sanitizing the hard drive
53. A user recently purchased a new wireless 802.11n router. After
connecting a laptop to the wireless network, he notices that the
signal strength on the laptop is poor and only connects at 11
Mbps. The user moved the laptop next to the WAP and is still
experiencing the same issue. Which of the following is most likely
the cause?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 197
A. The cable modem is faulty.
B. The laptop is connecting to the incorrect wireless
network.
❍ C. The router’s wireless card drivers are faulty.
❍ D. The wireless antennas on the router need to be
replaced.
54. Which utility enables you to implement auditing on a single
Windows computer?
❍
❍
A. Local Security Policy
B. Group Policy Editor
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 197
220-802 Practice Exam B
177
✓
Quick Check
❍ C. ADDS
❍ D. Services.msc
55. Which file contains ARC paths like the one shown here:
default=multi(0)disk(0)rdisk(0)partition(1)\WINDOWS?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 197
NTLDR
Boot.ini
Ntdetect.com
Ntbootdd.sys
56. What does a device driver do?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
A. Modifies applications
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 197
B. Works with memory more efficiently
❍ C. Improves device performance
❍ D. Allows the OS to talk to the device
57. After installing Windows 7 successfully, what should you do next?
(Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Connect to WLANs
Enable the Windows Firewall
Run Windows Update
The Recycler folder
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 198
The System32 folder
The %systemroot% folder
The System Volume Information folder
59. Which of the following are types of social engineering? (Select the
two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 197
Create policies
58. Where are restore points stored after they are created?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Malware
Shoulder surfing
Tailgating
Rootkits
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 198
178
Chapter 8
✓
Quick Check
60. This is the service that controls the printing of documents in a
Windows computer.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Print server
Print pooling
Print spooler
Detailed Answer: 198
Format the drive
FDISK the drive multiple times
Convert the drive to NTFS
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 198
Supervisor
Administrator
Power User
Backup operator
63. A burning smell comes from the computer. What is the most likely
source?
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Magnetically erase the drive
62. Which user group permission level has the highest amount of
access on a Windows computer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 198
Printer
61. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that a hard drive
is secure for disposal?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 198
A. Thermal compound
❍ B. Keyboard
❍ C. Power supply
❍ D. AC outlet
64. A month ago, you set up a wireless access point/router for a small
business that is a customer of yours. Now, the customer calls and
complains that Internet access is getting slower and slower. As
you look at the WAP/router, you notice that it was reset at some
point and is now set for open access. You then guess that neighboring companies are using the service connection. How can you
restrict their access to your customer’s wireless connection?
(Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Configure the wireless access point to use WPA
Configure MS-CHAP on the WAP/router
Disable SSID broadcasting
Move the WAP/router to another corner of the office
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 198
220-802 Practice Exam B
179
✓
Quick Check
65. A first-level help desk support technician receives a call from a
customer and works with the customer to resolve the call for several minutes unsuccessfully. Which of the following should the
technician do next?
❍
A. Explain to the customer that he will receive a callback
when someone more qualified is available
❍
❍
B. Escalate the call to another technician
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 199
C. Explain to the customer that the problem cannot be
resolved and end the call
❍ D. Continue working with the customer until the problem
is resolved
66. A customer complains that there is nothing showing on the
display of his laptop. What should you attempt first on the
computer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 199
Replace the inverter
Reinstall the video drivers
Boot into Safe mode
Check whether the laptop is in Standby or Hibernate
mode
67. Which of the two following components can affect the POST from
completing successfully? (Select the two best answers.)
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 199
A. Hard drive
B. USB hub
❍ C. CPU
❍ D. RAM
❍ E. CD-ROM
68. You just installed a new floppy drive into a computer you use for
testing. When the computer boots, you notice that the light for the
floppy stays on. What does this mean?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
The BIOS needs to be reconfigured.
The cable is connected backward.
The floppy drive has failed.
There is too much voltage to the floppy.
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 199
180
Chapter 8
✓
Quick Check
69. During an installation of Windows 7, you are given an opportunity
to load alternative third-party drivers. Which device are you most
likely loading drivers for?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 199
CD-ROM
SCSI drive
USB mouse
BIOS
70. A computer in a Windows workgroup can have how many concurrent connections?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 200
A. 10 or fewer
B. 15 or fewer
C. 20 or fewer
❍ D. 25 or fewer
71. You get a message upon booting the system that says “No Hard
Disk.” What should you check? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
That there is no controller cable connected to the drive
That the CD-ROM is jumpered correctly
That the hard drive driver is installed
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 200
Spanned volume
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 5
73. Megan’s laptop runs perfectly when at work, but when she takes it
on the road, it cannot get on the Internet. Internally, the company
uses static IP addresses for all computers. What should you do to
fix the problem?
❍
❍
❍
Detailed Answer: 200
That there is power to the hard drive
72. Which of the following disk arrays provides for fault tolerance?
(Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
A. Tell Megan to get a wireless cellular card and service
B. Tell Megan to use DHCP
C. Tell Megan to configure the alternate configuration tab
of TCP/IP properties
❍ D. Configure a static IP address in the Alternate
Configuration tab of the user’s TCP/IP properties and
enable DHCP in the General tab
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 200
220-802 Practice Exam B
181
✓
Quick Check
74. Which command will show you the current network sessions from
a PC to the Internet?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Ping
Netstat
Nbtstat
Detailed Answer: 200
Perform a system backup
Test the solution
Document the solution
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 200
Standby
Suspend
Hibernate
Shutdown
77. John’s computer has two hard drives, each 300 GB. The first is
the system drive and is formatted as NTFS. The second is the data
drive and is formatted as FAT32. Which two of the following statements are true? (Select the two best answers.)
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 187
Determine what has changed
76. Which power-saving mode enables for the best power savings,
while still allowing the session to be reactivated later?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 200
Ipconfig
75. Before implementing a solution to a problem, which of the following should be done?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 201
A. Files on the system drive can be secured.
B. Larger logical drives can be made on the data drive.
C. The cluster size is larger, and storage is more efficient
on the system drive.
❍ D. The cluster size is smaller, and storage is more
efficient on the system drive.
78. When using the command-line, a switch ______.
❍
A. Enables the command to work across any operating
system
❍
❍
B. Is used in application icons
C. Changes the core behavior of a command, forcing the
command to perform unrelated actions
❍ D. Alters the actions of a command, such as widening or
narrowing the function of the command
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 201
182
Chapter 8
✓
Quick Check
79. To connect a Bluetooth headset to a smartphone, what do you
need to do? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 201
Pair the device to the phone
Install Bluetooth drivers
Enter a passcode
Disable Wi-Fi
80. A co-worker was installing a new program when the computer suddenly restarted. Now, when the computer starts, it gets partially
through the boot process and then reboots. Which of the following
is the quickest method to get the computer running without losing
any of the user’s data?
❍
A. Reinstall the OS
❍
❍
B. Boot using Last Known Good configuration
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 201
C. Boot into Safe Mode and perform a Windows System
Restore
❍ D. Perform a factory restore
81. In the Recovery Console, what will the command fixmbr do?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Delete all viruses from the floppy disk
Delete all viruses from the boot sector
Delete all viruses from the CD-ROM
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 201
Event Viewer
Local Security Policy
Msconfig
SFC /SCANNOW
83. Which of the following commands can help you modify the startup environment?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 201
Delete all viruses from the hard drive
82. You need to view any application errors that have occurred today.
Which tool should you use?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Msconfig
Ipconfig
Boot Config Editor
Registry Editor
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 201
220-802 Practice Exam B
183
✓
Quick Check
84. You need to find out which router within the nine steps between
you and another computer has failed. Which tool should you use?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Tracert
Ipconfig
Net
Application log
Setuperr.log
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 202
Clear the print spooler
Unplug the printer
Reset the printer
Turn off the printer
Quick Answer: 187
Detailed Answer: 202
ipconfig /release
ipconfig /flushdns
ipconfig /all
ipconfig /renew
88. You are troubleshooting a co-worker’s computer. When you ping
the loopback address, you receive no response. What does this
most likely indicate?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 202
System log
87. Which troubleshooting command enables you to determine
connectivity problems on a Windows XP computer that cannot
connect to the Internet?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
Security log
86. Mary’s printer is printing hundreds of pages, and she can’t get it
to stop. She has tried to delete the job by double-clicking the
printer and deleting the print job. What is the best way to stop the
printer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 201
Ping
85. Which of the following log files would reference third-party software error messages?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 187
The LAN is unresponsive.
The DHCP server is down.
The Ethernet cable needs to be replaced.
The TCP/IP protocol is not functioning.
Quick Answer: 188
Detailed Answer: 202
184
Chapter 8
✓
Quick Check
89. You have connected several Bluetooth devices together in an
ad-hoc network. Which type of network have you created?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 202
LAN
WAN
PAN
MAN
90. Which of the following provides the lowest level of wireless
security protection?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 188
Quick Answer: 188
Detailed Answer: 202
Disable the SSID broadcast
Use RADIUS
Use WPA2
Enable WEP on the wireless access point
91. A customer uses an unencrypted wireless network. One of
the users has shared a folder for access by any computer. The
customer complains that files sometimes appear and disappear
from the shared folder. What can you do to fix the problem?
(Select the two best answers.)
❍
❍
A. Enable encryption on the router and the clients
❍
C. Increase the level of security on the NTFS folder by
changing the permissions
Quick Answer: 188
Detailed Answer: 202
B. Encrypt the disk that has the share using EFS
(Encrypting File System)
❍ D. Change the share-level permissions on the shared
folder
92. A customer is having difficulties with his hard drive, and the system won’t boot. You discover that the operating system has to be
reloaded. What is the best way to explain this to the customer?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 188
Detailed Answer: 203
A. “I need to rebuild the computer.”
B. “I need to format the hard drive and reload the
software.”
❍ C. “I need to FDISK the computer.”
❍ D. “I need to restore the system; data loss might occur.”
93. Which of these commands makes a duplicate of a file?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Move
Copy
Dir
Edit
Quick Answer: 188
Detailed Answer: 203
220-802 Practice Exam B
185
✓
Quick Check
94. You are troubleshooting a Bluetooth connection that is malfunctioning. What should you attempt? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 188
Detailed Answer: 203
Verify that WLAN is enabled
Check if you are in range
Unpair the devices
Turn Bluetooth off and on
95. Which of the following is the correct sequence to install a
keyboard layout in Windows 7?
❍
❍
A. Start > Control Panel> Display
❍
C. Start > Control Panel> Languages and Region>
Personalization
Quick Answer: 188
Detailed Answer: 203
B. Start > Control Panel > Region and Language >
Keyboards and Languages > Change Keyboard
❍ D. Start > Control Panel> Region and Language> Change
Keyboard
96. The Windows Vista sidebar contains _____________.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Gadgets
Bracelets
Icons
Quick Answer: 188
Detailed Answer: 203
System Information Tool
Registry
Task Manager
Performance Console
98. Windows 7 was installed on a computer with two hard drives: a C:
drive and a D: drive. Windows is installed to C:, and it works
normally. The user of this computer complains that his applications are disk intensive and that they slow down the computer.
How can you resolve the problem?
❍
❍
Detailed Answer: 203
Widgets
97. Which tool in Windows enables a user to easily see how much
memory a particular process uses?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 188
A. Move the paging file to the D: drive
B. Reinstall Windows on the D: drive rather than on the
C: drive
❍ C. Defrag the D: drive
❍ D. Decrease the paging file size
Quick Answer: 188
Detailed Answer: 203
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✓
Quick Check
99. You have installed a new maintenance kit for a laser printer with
multiple trays that were having paper jam issues. What should you
do to ensure that the problem has been resolved?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 203
Print a test page from all paper trays
Reset the printer’s configuration settings
Fill the trays with paper
Print a calibration page
100. You are troubleshooting a computer that is having trouble
connecting to the network. Another technician supposedly just
connected it to the LAN with a patch cable. Upon inspection of
the patch cable, you find that each plug is wired differently. What
should you do?
❍
Quick Answer: 188
A. Replace the cable with a straight-through cable
❍ B. Replace the cable with a cross-over cable
❍ C. Replace the cable with a rolled cable
❍ D. Replace the cable with a 568B to 568A cable
Quick Answer: 188
Detailed Answer: 204
220-802 Practice Exam B
Quick-Check Answer Key
1. A
30. C
59. B and C
2. D
31. B
60. D
3. B
32. C
61. A
4. B
33. D
62. B
5. B
34. D
63. C
6. C
35. C and D
64. A and C
7. D
36. C
65. B
8. A and C
37. C
66. D
9. A
38. A and C
67. C and D
10. C
39. A
68. B
11. A and D
40. A
69. B
12. C
41. D
70. A
13. C
42. A
71. A and B
14. A
43. C
72. C and D
15. C
44. B
73. D
16. B
45. A
74. C
17. C
46. D
75. B
18. C and D
47. C
76. C
19. B
48. A and C
77. A and D
20. A
49. A and D
78. D
21. D
50. C
79. A and C
22. C
51. A, C and E
80. B
23. C
52. D
81. C
24. D
53. B
82. A
25. A
54. A
83. A
26. C
55. B
84. B
27. D
56. D
85. C
28. C
57. C and D
86. A
29. B
58. D
87. C
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88. D
93. B
98. A
89. C
94. B and D
99. A
90. A
95. B
91. A and C
96. A
92. D
97. C
100. A
220-802 Practice Exam B
189
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: A. You would question the user during step 1 of the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting process: Identify the problem. Also during that step you would identify
user changes and perform backups. Afterward, you move on to step 2: Establish a
theory of probable cause. Next, it’s step 3: Test the theory to determine cause. And
after that is step 4: Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement
the solution. Next is step 5: Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. Finally, step 6: Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
2. Answer: D. Msconfig enables you to modify the startup selection. You can boot the
computer in different modes with Msconfig. You can also enable and disable services
and applications. The Task Manager gives you a snapshot of your system’s performance and allows you to shut down applications (tasks) or processes, even if the application is hanging or frozen. The Recovery Console is the command-line repair environment in Windows XP. From here, you can fix system file issues and repair the MBR
and boot sector. Safe Mode is one of the options in the Advanced Boot Options Menu
(ABOM). It starts the computer with a basic set of drivers, so that you can troubleshoot why devices have failed. It is also instrumental when dealing with viruses.
3. Answer: B. Always check whether there are backups and physically inspect and verify
the backup before changing out any drives. Making sure that a backup is available is
the first order of business. Once the backup has been taken care of, you can have the
customer give you the password to log in (or let the customer log in) and find out
which version of Windows Server is running.
4. Answer: B. By rolling back the driver (which is done in the Device Manager) while in
Safe Mode, you can go back in time to the old working video driver. The Recovery
Console will not help you with drivers. Reinstalling the OS would wipe the partition of
the president’s data (and probably wipe you of your job). Directory Services Restore
mode (although listed in the Advanced Startup Options) is only for Windows Server
domain controllers. Note that Last Known Good configuration would probably be able
to help you, but not in all cases.
5. Answer: B. The DxDiag utility is used to analyze a video card and check if drivers are
digitally signed. It can be accessed by going to Run and typing dxdiag. The Device
Manager is used to install drivers for devices. Services.msc is the console window
where you can start and stop and enable/disable services such as the Print Spooler.
USMT stands for User State Migration Tool, a command-line tool used to migrate user
files and settings from one or more computers.
6. Answer: C. The application dock in Windows 7 is not available in Vista. The application
dock is an enhanced version of the taskbar. With this, you can hover over applications
that are running in the taskbar and view their current statuses (for example, if you have
a video running in IE or are downloading something). You can also click and drag applications to and from the dock and close apps if you wish. Docking applications is fairly
standard practice nowadays, and several other operating system manufacturers have
similar functionality. User Account Control (UAC) and Aero have been available since
Windows Vista. The sidebar is available only in Vista; it houses gadgets. However, you
can still use gadgets in Windows 7—no sidebar is necessary.
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7. Answer: D. Remember that %systemroot% is a variable. It takes the place of whatever
folder contains the operating system. This will usually be Windows (for Windows
7/Vista/XP). For example, if you were to run a default installation of Windows 7, the
path to the Registry hives would be C:\Windows\System32\Config. The main hives
are SAM, SECURITY, SOFTWARE, SYSTEM, and DEFAULT. These are accessed and
configured by opening the Registry Editor (Run > regedit.exe) and opening the
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE subtree. Other hive information is stored in the user profile
folders.
8. Answers: A and C. It is common to have an unseated RAM stick or video card. These
are the most common culprits of beep codes during the POST. If the CPU is not
installed properly, you might not even get any beep codes at all. And the CD-ROM’s
functionality has little bearing on the POST.
9. Answer: A. By default, Windows (when first installed) analyzes the amount of RAM
in the computer and sets the hard drive’s initial virtual memory size to 1.5 times that
amount. Maximum size is set to 3 times RAM. So, for example, if a user has 1 GB
of RAM (1024 MB), the initial virtual memory file (pagefile.sys) is 1.5 GB (1536 MB)
and the maximum file size is 3 GB (3072 MB). You can also configure Windows to
automatically manage the paging file size.
10. Answer: C. Use the USB connector. By far this is the easiest method. Windows will
sense the USB connection and attempt to install the print driver automatically (though
you should still install the latest proper driver from the printer manufacturer’s website).
Yes, the printer has an Ethernet connection as well (that is the network connection),
but that will require you to connect it to the network. What if there is no network? And
even if there is, the printer would have to be configured for the network, and then the
laptop would have to connect to the printer over the network. If the laptop is the only
system that will use the printer, USB becomes much easier. The parallel port (such as
LPT1) is the older way of connecting to printers; virtually no PCs or laptops have these
anymore. That standard’s connection name is IEEE 1284.
11. Answer: A and D. In the command line, this service is simply known as Spooler.
Type net stop spooler and net start spooler to restart the service. In
Computer Management, the Print Spooler service is found in Services and Applications
> Services. Or you could open the Run prompt and type services.msc. From there
you can start, stop, enable, and disable services.
12. Answer: C. The convert command turns a FAT32 drive into a NTFS drive without
data loss, allowing for a higher level of data security. The proper syntax is convert
volume /FS:NTFS.
13. Answer: C. The BIOS has several password types, including user and supervisor. The
supervisor password is the password needed to actually access the BIOS. The user
password is what acts as a safeguard from anyone getting into the operating system.
Because these computers can be used by anyone, the user password is not necessary.
However, the supervisor password is important to thwart end users from accessing
the BIOS (and possibly changing important settings such as the boot sequence).
Administrator is an account type in the operating system, as is guest. The computers’
operating systems should be configured for guests. This means enabling the guest
account and setting that one as the default login. This way, users won’t have the ability
to install programs or make changes on the computer. However, you should still set a
complex password on those computers and change it every month or sooner.
220-802 Practice Exam B
191
14. Answer: A. By installing a driver that is not signed by Microsoft, you are risking instability of the operating system. The driver has no effect on files or drive fragmentation.
It is extremely uncommon for a driver to cause physical damage to a device.
15. Answer: C. Regedit can be used to view startup programs. This is the executable
that opens the Registry Editor. A common place to find some of the startup programs
is the path
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run. There
are several other subkeys, mostly within the CurrentVersion, that also house startup
program information. On another, simpler note, you can also find out programs that
run from Startup by going to Start > All Programs > Startup. Ipconfig shows the
network configuration of all network adapters. Ping is used to test if other computers
on the network can respond to TCP/IP packets of information, thus proving they are
functional. DxDiag is used to analyze video cards and the version of DirectX that is
running.
16. Answer: B. Use defrag.exe –f. You need to have 15 percent free space on your
partition to defrag it in the Disk Defragmenter GUI-based utility. However, you can
force a defrag on a partition even if you don’t have enough free space by using the
–f switch in the command line. (-f is not necessary in Windows 7.) The –v switch
gives you verbose (or wordy) output. The –a switch gives analysis only and does not
perform any defragmentation.
17. Answer: C. A Code 1 message means that a device is not configured correctly. Usually
this means that the driver should be updated. Another common code, Code 10,
means the device cannot start; again, the solution is usually to update the driver.
More information on Device Manager codes can be found at the following link:
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/943104. Closing an application won’t affect the
conditions of a device in the Device Manager. Disabling the device is a neat way of
sweeping the problem under the rug. One of the keys to a properly running computer
is a clean Device Manger, free of all exclamation points, question marks, and down
arrows. Reinstalling the same driver will not fix the problem; it will just maintain the
status quo, and you’ll be left to troubleshoot further.
18. Answer: C and D. To make a secure connection, you first need to know the service set
identifier (SSID) of the AP and then the encryption being used (for example, WEP or
WPA). The SSID takes care of the “connection” portion, and the encryption takes care
of the “secure” portion. After all computers are connected, consider disabling the
SSID for increased security. Knowing the wireless standard being used can help you
verify whether your computer is compatible (802.11n or g), but the brand of access
point isn’t really helpful.
19. Answer: B. SYSPREP is one of the utilities built in to Windows for image deployment
over the network. Ghost and Image Clone are third-party offerings. XCOPY copies
entire directories (in the same physical order, too) but not from one system to another.
SYSPREP preps the system to be moved as an image file.
20. Answer: A. Excessive heat is the most likely cause of the problem. This could be an
unfortunate result of ovens and other equipment. Computers in environments such as
these are often prone to dirt collecting inside the CPU fans and other devices inside
the case. Faulty RAM wouldn’t cause hard drives to fail or un-seat expansion cards.
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The cards probably moved around due to thermal expansion and contraction. 240 V
outlets are most likely going to be found in this environment, but the computer
shouldn’t use those; in the United States the computer should be connected to a
120 V outlet. The computer should be changed to 240 V only if it is brought to
another country—for example, in Europe. Power brownouts could cause failures of
the power supply, and maybe even the hard drive, but would not cause the adapter
cards to be un-seated.
21. Answer: D. If the computer fails and cannot recover, you usually see some type of
critical or stop error. At this point, you must restart the computer to get back into the
operating system (unless it is configured to do so automatically, which is the default
setting in Windows 7/Vista). The reason for the physical dump of memory is for later
debugging. The physical dump writes the contents of memory (when the computer
failed) to a file on the hard disk. Missing drivers will not cause this error, but a failed
driver might. If the wrong processor is installed, you can probably not get the system
to boot at all. Shutting down the computer improperly just means that the computer
recognizes this upon the next reboot and asks whether you want to go into Safe Mode.
22. Answer: C. Session hijacking is when an unwanted mediator takes control of the
session between a client and a server (for example, an FTP or HTTP session). DDoS
is a distributed denial-of-service attack, an attack perpetuated by hundreds or thousands of computers in an effort to take down a single server; the computers are often
unknowingly part of a botnet. A Smurf attack is a type of denial-of-service attack that
relies on the use of many ping echoes. Malicious software is any compromising code
or software that can damage a computer’s files; examples include viruses, spyware,
and Trojans.
23. Answer: C. Bootrec /rebuildbcd attempts to rebuild the boot configuration
store. Bootrec /fixboot is one of the methods you can try to repair bootmgr.exe
in Windows 7/Vista. Bootrec /fixmbr rewrites the master boot record in 7/Vista.
Boot\bcd is where the boot configuration store is located.
24. Answer: D. Wi-Fi tethering is when a mobile device shares its Internet connection
(effectively becoming its own hotspot) with other Wi-Fi capable devices. USB tethering
is when a mobile device shares its Internet connection with a PC or laptop via USB.
Wi-Fi sharing is not a typically used term. Internet pass-through is when a mobile
device connects to a PC via USB, making use of the PC’s Internet connection—
basically the reverse of USB tethering.
25. Answer: A. The drive should be completely erased with bit-level erasure software.
Formatting is not enough, as data remanence (residue) is left on the drive from which
files can be reconstructed by smart people with some smart software. It is a waste of
time to install AV software on a drive before removing it. However, AV software should
be loaded up when the new drive is installed.
26. Answer: C. Patch management is the patching of many systems from a central location. It includes the planning, testing, implementing, and auditing stages. There are
various software packages you can use to perform patch management. Windows
Server Update Services (WSUS) is an example of Microsoft patch management software. Other Microsoft examples include the System Center Configuration Manager
(SSCM) and its predecessor Systems Management Center (SMS), but there are plenty
220-802 Practice Exam B
193
of third-party offerings as well. A host-based firewall is a software firewall that is
loaded on a computer to stop attackers from intruding on a network. Application
baselining is the performance measurements of an application over time. Virtualization
is when an operating system is installed to a single file on a computer. Often, it runs
virtually on top of another OS.
27. Answer: D. The Recovery Console is a special recovery tool that is run by booting
off of the Windows XP CD. When it is running, you can copy the NTLDR file (from
the CD x:\I386) to the root of the hard drive. The recovery console can also be
installed to the Windows XP computer’s hard drive by accessing the CD and typing
x:\i386\winnt32.exe /cmdcons where x is the CD-ROM drive. System
Restore is used in Windows 7/Vista/XP to create restore points, snapshots in time
that allow you to revert the system back to an earlier configuration. If the NTLDR is
missing or corrupt, you won’t be able to get to the System Restore utility in Windows
XP. You also won’t be able to restore the registry, but that doesn’t matter because the
registry does not have a copy of NTLDR. Finally, restarting in Safe Mode won’t work;
again, we are dependent on the NTLDR file to get into the OS.
28. Answer: C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the
solution is the next step after determining the cause, or more specifically: Test the
theory to determine cause. It is step four of the six-step CompTIA A+ troubleshooting
process. Document findings, actions, and outcomes is the sixth and last step. Verify
full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures is the
fifth step. Question the user and identify user changes is part of the first step: Identify
the problem.
29. Answer: B. Windows Vista’s Backup Status and Configuration utility enables a user to
back up files or the entire PC. It takes the place of Windows XP’s NTBackup. The
Windows 7 successor to this is Backup and Restore. The Task Manager is a tool that
gives real-time performance statistics of the CPU, RAM, and network card, it allows
you to stop services, processes, and applications. ASR stands for Automated System
Recovery, an option in Windows XP’s NTBackup that enables you to back up and
restore the system state (user accounts, settings, boot files, and so forth). It requires
a floppy disk for the ASR information in addition to the backup media.
30. Answer: C. Windows Vista requires a minimum processor frequency of 800 MHz,
whereas Windows XP requires 233 MHz, and the unsupported Windows 2000 requires
only 133 MHz. 1 GHz is the recommended minimum for Windows Vista but not the
bare minimum required.
31. Answer: B. Windows 7 requires a minimum processor frequency of 1 GHz. Windows
Vista requires 800 MHz. 2 GHz is not a valid answer for Windows as of the writing of
this book. 2 GB is the minimum RAM requirement for 64-bit versions of Windows 7.
32. Answer: C. The Windows Compatibility Center is a website
(http://www.microsoft.com/windows/compatibility/) that has a hardware section
which can tell you if your hardware is compatible. It is the successor to the Hardware
Compatibility List (HCL). Other ways to see if your system meets the hardware
compatibility requirements are to use the System Information tool in Windows or
third-party downloadable analysis tools. As for the incorrect answers: System Tools
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is a folder within Start > Accessories that has components such as the Control Panel,
Disk Cleanup, and the Resource Monitor, a utility that charts the performance of the
computer’s components.
33. Answer: D. An unattended installation of Windows 7 requires an answer file. This file
(normally named unattend.xml) can be created by using the Windows System Image
Manager (SIM) program. Unattended installations can be done locally or as part of a
network installation using Windows Deployment Services (Server 2008) or Remote
Installation Services (Server 2003). Disk image installations use third-party programs
such as Ghost or work with a System Restore image created within Windows. Local
installation from USB is possible if you copy the Windows 7 .iso file to the USB flash
drive (if the drive is big enough) and obtain the USB/DVD download tool from the
Microsoft website. A multiboot installation means that more than one operating
system are being installed to the same drive. One or both of these could possibly be
unattended installations. Remember that with multiboot installs, each OS should
inhabit its own primary partition.
34. Answer: D. Windows Vista installations require a minimum of 15 GB free space on a
20 GB partition. The important amount to remember for the exam is the free space
necessary.
35. Answers: C and D. Windows 7 32-bit installations require a minimum of 16 GB free
space. 64-bit installations require 20 GB free space. It could get a little confusing, but
try to remember: Windows 7 32-bit installs require 16 GB free space, but Windows
Vista installs require 15 GB free space.
36. Answer: C. The docking station will allow the user to connect more USB devices. If
the keyboard, mouse, and scanner all use USB, then the laptop doesn’t have enough
USB ports and the docking station will resolve the problem. Another solution would be
a USB hub (perhaps a cheaper one at that, and mobile). The monitor will connect to
either a VGA or DVI port, which isn’t mentioned in the scenario, though most laptops
and docking stations will have a secondary video port. KVM switches are used to
control two or more computers from a single group of devices: keyboard, mouse,
and display. IEEE 1394 connections are great solutions for external hard drives and
audio/video devices, but not for scanners. Bluetooth adapters can be used for
keyboards and mice, but it’s the scanner that is causing the need for extra ports.
Scanners often connect via USB and not Bluetooth.
37. Answer: C. The Notification Area (also known as the System Tray or systray) includes
the clock and programs that run behind the scenes without user intervention. The
Quick Launch area houses shortcuts to files and applications. The Taskbar consists
of programs that are currently running (and the Windows 7 application dock), the
Start button, the Quick Launch, and the Notification Area. The desktop is the area of
the GUI that has a wallpaper or background, although some users refer to the entire
display as the desktop.
38. Answers: A and C. Programs can be run in elevated mode (as an administrator) in
Windows 7/Vista by right-clicking the program and selecting Run as Administrator or
by using the search field to run the program and pressing Ctrl+Shift+Enter instead of
just Enter.
220-802 Practice Exam B
195
39. Answer: A. Windows 7 Home Premium is the only answer listed that does not include
Windows XP Mode. This mode, if installed by downloading additional components
from the Microsoft website, allows a person to work in a replica of the Windows XP
environment.
40. Answer: A. Windows Vista Home Premium is the only answer listed that does not
include Remote Desktop. This tool allows you to take control of remote Windows
systems on the network.
41. Answer: D. Add memory to the printer. Large documents, especially ones with graphics, require more memory to print. A printer’s memory can be upgraded in a similar
manner to a PC’s. The paper won’t have an effect on large documents, but it could be
an issue if the entry rollers are grabbing more than one piece of paper at a time; that
would indicate that the pound size of the paper is too thin. If the communications
cable was faulty, no pages would print at all; you would probably get a message on
the printer’s display warning of a bad connection. If a toner cartridge begins to fail,
you will see white lines, smearing, or faded ink.
42. Answer: A. A ghosted image or one that seems to repeat usually means the drum (or
the entire toner cartridge including the drum) needs to be replaced. If the printer is
offline, you won’t be able to print to the printer. An incorrect driver will often result in
a garbage printout (garbled characters) that is quite unreadable (unless you know
garbage printout language). A dirty primary corona wire will often result in lines or
smearing.
43. Answer: C. You should first attempt reseating the laptop in the docking station; the
laptop probably doesn’t have a sturdy connection, resulting in a blinking battery light
telling you the laptop is not charging properly (or at all). Do this before you attempt to
reseat or replace the battery. This is a hardware issue; the operating system does not
have an effect on the blinking battery light.
44. Answer: B. You should recommend that the user add the senders to the junk e-mail
sender list. This will block that sender’s e-mail address (or the entire domain can be
blocked). However, this could take a lot of time; another option is to increase the level
of security on the spam filter within the e-mail program. Any further spam can then be
sent to the junk e-mail sender list. Users need their e-mail accounts, and creating a
new one can result in a lot of work for the user. Finding a new ISP is overreacting a
bit; plus the user has no idea if one ISP will be better at stopping spam than another.
Never tell a user to reply to spam. Spam e-mails should be sent to the spam folder
and never replied to—unless you want ten times the amount of spam.
45. Answer: A. To turn off devices after a specified period of time in Windows 7/Vista,
access Control Panel > Power Options. Then click Change Plan Settings for the
appropriate power plan. This can be done in Windows XP from the Power Options
Properties window in the Power Schemes tab. Display Properties allows you to modify
things such as screen resolution. Computer Management is the most used console
window in Windows 7/Vista; it includes the Event Viewer, Disk Management, and
Services.
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46. Answer: D. The Ports tab is where you can find how the printer is connected to the
computer. This can be an LTP, USB, COM, or TCP/IP port. The Sharing tab allows you
to share a locally connected (or remotely controlled) printer on the network. The
Advanced tab has options such as print spooling and printer pooling. The Separator
page button allows you to configure a page that is inserted after every print job.
47. Answer: C. The test page will verify connectivity and give you insight as to possible
application problems at the computer that is attempting to print. In this case you
aren’t worried about the quality of the printer output; it’s the computer and the application that you are troubleshooting. Test pages are used to make sure the computer
can print properly to the printer, not to initiate diagnostic routines. Those would be
initiated from the built-in display and menu on the printer. Printing a test page does
not clear the print queue or reset printer memory. This would have to be done at the
printer and/or at the computer controlling the printer.
48. Answers: A and C. You should make sure that the heat sink is secure and that the fan
is connected. Either of these could cause the CPU to overheat. Also make sure that
thermal compound was applied to the heat sink. If you didn’t log that you did this in
writing somewhere, then you will have to take the heat sink off and inspect it. It’s a
good idea to log when you apply thermal compound because if you remove the heat
sink, you will need to reapply thermal compound before reinstalling it. The BIOS temperature threshold is what tripped, causing the system to shut down. Now, you could
increase the threshold, which would fix the problem temporarily but could cause
permanent damage to the CPU. The threshold is there to protect the CPU; therefore,
“BIOS temperature threshold” is not the best answer. If the RAM needed to be reseated, you might get one of several errors or beeps, but the system should not automatically shut down.
49. Answers: A and D. Use the Task Manager or CPU-Z to test RAM. CPU-Z is an excellent third-party tool that can be used to test RAM, but there are other third-party tools
available as well. In Windows you could also use the Performance Monitor to test how
well RAM responds to things such as opening applications and working with media
files. System Information will give you information about RAM—for example, how
much and what kind—but it is a static utility and has no testing ability. Chkdsk tests
the hard drive, not the RAM.
50. Answer: C. The drive is fragmented. This is why it is very slow in its reaction time. It’s
also possible that the OS is infected with a virus. You should analyze and defragment
the drive and run an AV sweep of the system. If a drive is not seen by Windows, it
might have to be initialized; this can happen when you add a second drive to a system
that already has Windows installed. Surplus temporary files might slow down the login
process but shouldn’t slow the hard drive when opening applications. They can be
removed with the Disk Cleanup program or with third-party applications. If the hard
drive’s SATA data connector were loose, the drive should not be able to access applications. In fact, you would probably get a message that says “Missing OS” or something to that effect.
51. Answers: A, C, and E. You can try power cycling the device, checking if the SSID was
correct, and forgetting the network and then reconnecting to it. You should also check
if the device is within range of the wireless access point, if the device supports the
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necessary encryption, and if Internet pass-through or other Internet sharing technologies aren’t conflicting. Furthermore, you can power cycle the Wi-Fi program, check if
any Wi-Fi sleep is enabled, and try enabling best Wi-Fi performance if the device offers
it. As to the incorrect answers: Using the cellular GPRS connection is not a valid
option when troubleshooting the Wi-Fi connection. Setting up a static IP on a mobile
device is usually not a good idea and not necessary—in fact, this is one of the things
you should check in the Advanced settings of the device. If a static IP is applied to the
Wi-Fi adapter, it could prevent the device from connecting to all wireless networks
except the one that uses that IP network number.
52. Answer: D. Sanitizing the hard drive will not secure a computer workstation. It
will, however, prevent anyone from accessing data on the drive, but the computer
workstation won’t be functional anymore. Setting strong passwords, changing
default usernames, and disabling the guest account are all ways of securing a
computer workstation.
53. Answer: B. The laptop is probably connecting to a different wireless network either in
the home next door or an adjacent business—one without encryption it would seem.
Verify the SSID name of the 802.11n router, forget the current wireless network, and
connect to the new network. The cable modem isn’t a part of the equation in this scenario. We are only interested in connecting to the wireless network to start. A router
(wireless access point) won’t have a wireless card such as the ones in a PC or laptop.
Also, we don’t know if the device is faulty yet because the laptop never connected to it.
The same goes for the wireless antennae.
54. Answer: A. Because there is only one computer, you can implement auditing only
locally. This is done with the Local Security Policy. The Group Policy Editor and ADDS
are used by Windows Servers in a domain environment. Some versions of Windows
have the Local Group Policy editor, where auditing can also be turned on. If typed in
the Run prompt, services.msc will open the Services console window; services can be
turned on and off and enabled and disabled from here.
55. Answer: B. In Windows XP, Boot.ini contains all the ARC paths, which contain the
path to the operating system through the hardware and the software. NTLDR is the
boot loader file in Windows XP. Ntdetect.com searches for basic hardware on the system. Ntbootdd.sys is necessary if Windows XP is to boot off of a SCSI drive.
56. Answer: D. Device drivers are the connection between the operating system and the
device itself. It is a program that makes the interaction between the two run efficiently.
It simplifies programming by using high-level application code. The best device drivers
come from the manufacturer of the device. They are the ones who developed the
device, so it stands to reason that their code would be the most thoroughly tested and
debugged.
57. Answers: C and D. To protect the computer, it is important to enable the Windows
Firewall or make sure that a third-party firewall is installed and running properly.
Windows Update will download the latest security patches for Windows. After a
routine installation of Windows, this first Windows update could be time-consuming.
It is not recommended to connect to WLANs (wireless networks) before running
Windows Update and enabling the firewall.
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58. Answer: D. After a restore point is made, it is stored in the System Volume
Information folder. To view this folder, you must log on as an administrator, show hidden files and folders, and then assign permissions to the account that wants to view
that folder.
59. Answers: B and C. Shoulder surfing and tailgating are both types of social engineering. A shoulder surfer is someone who attempts to view information on a person’s
desk or display without the person’s knowledge. Tailgating is when a person attempts
to gain access to a secure area by following closely on the heels of another employee,
usually without his knowledge. A rootkit is a program that is designed to gain administrator level access to a computer. It is a type of malicious software abbreviated as
malware.
60. Answer: D. The print spooler controls the queue and the printing of documents. The
printer is the physical printing device; Microsoft also refers to the print driver software
as the printer. A print server is a device that controls one or more printers; it is usually
connected to the network. Print pooling is when two or more printers are grouped
together so that a user’s document will print faster: if one printer is occupied, the
other takes over.
61. Answer: A. Magnetically erase the drive. Degaussing the drive is an excellent way to
remove all traces of data, but only if the drive is electromagnetic! Formatting the drive
is not enough due to the data residue that is left behind. FDISK is an older DOS-based
command that is used to remove or create partitions on a disk. This will not remove
all data either; in fact, it only rewrites data in the master boot record and partition
table. The data remains. Converting the drive from FAT to NTFS (with the convert
command) keeps the data intact.
62. Answer: B. Administrators can have access to everything. Supervisor is something
you would see in the BIOS or in other operating systems besides Microsoft Windows.
Power users can install software but do not have access to all data by default in
Windows XP; however, they are considered a legacy group in Windows 7/Vista and are
treated the same as standard users. Backup operators have access to tape backups
and backup programs.
63. Answer: C. The power supply is the most likely source of a burning smell: When the
power supply is brand new, it has a “burn-in” period of 24–48 working hours; when
the power supply is about to fail, or does fail, it could burn up the motor that drives
the fan. It is possible but unlikely that the thermal compound will cause a burning
smell; however, if this does occur, it will be much less noticeable and more chemical
in nature. The keyboard should not present a burning smell no matter how fast you
type on it. The AC outlet could possibly be the cause of a burning smell and that
would be bad news—turn off the circuit breaker immediately. However, the AC outlet
is not part of the computer.
64. Answers: A and C. If the WAP/router was reset, any security settings that you
originally set up are most likely gone. If you backed up the settings previously, you
could restore them. Either way, some type of encryption protocol is necessary. The
passphrase or network key generated by the WAP/router needs to be installed on each
client before it can be recognized on the network. This passphrase/key should be kept
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secret, of course. After all the clients have been associated with the WAP/router,
disable SSID broadcasting so that no one else can “see” the router (without more
advanced software).
65. Answer: B. The tech should escalate the call to another technician. This is exactly why
help desks are configured in groups: Level 1, Level 2, and the masters (Level 3) and
possibly beyond! Don’t try to be a superhuman. In technology there is always someone who knows more than you about a specific subject. Route the call to the next level
tech and wish the customer good luck. Good help desks are set up in such a way so
someone is always available. Every problem can be resolved! It’s just a matter of
knowledge and persistence. (Remember that when you take the real exams.) Don’t try
to fix the problem regardless of the time necessary. Your time, and the customer’s
time, is very valuable. Escalate, so that you, your organization, and the customer can
approach and solve the problem efficiently.
66. Answer: D. The computer might need a special keystroke, a press of the power
button, or just a little more time to come out of Hibernation mode. Remember, check
the simple, quick solutions first because they are usually the culprits. Booting into
Safe Mode, reinstalling video drivers, and replacing the inverter are all quite timeconsuming, but, if necessary, should be attempted in that order—after checking the
power state.
67. Answers: C and D. The following items can cause the POST to fail: CPU, RAM, motherboard, and video card. Those are considered the big four (to check) when it comes
to troubleshooting POST issues. Hard drive failure might be recorded by the BIOS and
POST but won’t stop the BIOS from attempting to boot, which it won’t be able to do
and will promptly display a message stating “Missing OS” or something similar. A
USB hub is a peripheral device that doesn’t affect the POST. CD-ROM drives will not
affect the POST either. They won’t affect the boot process unless there is a disk in the
drive and the CD-ROM drive was first in the BIOS boot order.
68. Answer: B. If the controller cable to the floppy is connected backward, the light
will stay on and the drive will not function. If a floppy disk were in the drive, it has
probably been rendered useless. The BIOS need be reconfigured only if the floppy
drive was not recognized or was disabled. If the floppy drive failed, the light probably
wouldn’t turn on at all, or at the least would not read disks properly. Too much voltage
could cause the floppy drive to fail, but the real problem to investigate would be why
the drive received too much power. The power supply would have to be troubleshot
carefully. Floppy drives are older devices that you don’t find on a typical computer
anymore, but you might find them in testing environments, scenarios where older
programs on floppy disks are used, and older computers in general. Plus, they are
still on the CompTIA objectives, so know your floppy technology.
69. Answer: B. The SCSI hard drive is the most likely answer. SCSI hard drives and RAID
controllers will need special drivers during the installation process of Windows if they
are not recognized automatically. In Windows XP you have to press F6 during the text
portion of the installation, but in Windows 7/Vista you just click the option for loading
third-party drivers. Optical drives and USB devices do not require third-party drivers.
The BIOS doesn’t use a driver; it is firmware.
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70. Answer: A. Any Windows computer in a Windows workgroup can have 10 maximum
concurrent connections to it over the network. If you need more, you will want to
consider a Microsoft Domain. There are versions of Microsoft’s Small Business Server
that allow maximums of 25 concurrent connections and 75 connections. If you need
more than that, then you require the full version of Windows Server.
71. Answers: A and B. If you get a message stating that there is no hard disk, chances are
that one of the connections is missing or loose. In the uncommon case, the hard drive
might be bad (although it does happen). The CD-ROM should not have any bearing on
this; plus, only IDE CD-ROM drives require jumpers, and those are less common than
SATA drives.
72. Answer: C and D. RAID 1 (mirroring) provides fault tolerance by copying information
to two drives. RAID 5 (striping with parity) provides fault tolerance by keeping a compressed copy of the data (in the form of parity) on each of the disks other than where
the original data is stored. RAID 0 is striping only, and a spanned volume is one that
stores data on two or more drives, but as whole files, not as stripes of data.
73. Answer: D. Megan shouldn’t do anything. As a technician, you should fix the problem.
The issue is that she needs to obtain an IP address through DHCP when on the road.
But setting the network adapter to obtain an IP address automatically is not enough. In
order to connect to the internal company network, the Alternate Configuration tab will
need to be configured as a “User Configured” static IP address. This solution enables
Megan to connect to networks while on the road by obtaining IP addresses automatically and allows her to connect to the internal company network with the static IP
address.
74. Answer: C. Netstat shows the network statistics of a computer. It displays the network
connections by name, IP address, and port of the local and remote computers.
Ipconfig shows the network card’s configuration. Ping tests if a computer is alive on
the network. Nbtstat stands for NetBIOS over TCP/IP statistics. This displays protocol
statistics and name tables.
75. Answer: B. Most of the time you should perform a backup of data before making
changes to a system or implementing a solution. It’s not always necessary—for example, if a network cable was unplugged or a disc is stuck in the DVD-ROM drive. But if
you need to make changes to the OS, you should perform a backup. It is part of step 1
of the six-step troubleshooting process: Identify the problem. Determining what has
changed is also part of step 1. Testing the solution is part of step 5: Verify full system
functionality. Documenting the solution is part of step 6: Document findings.
76. Answer: C. Hibernate mode saves all the contents of RAM (as hiberfil.sys in the root
of C:) and then shuts the system down so that it is using virtually no power. To reactivate the system, you must press the power button. At that point, the entire session is
loaded from RAM and you can continue on with the session. Standby and suspend
modes turn off the hard drive and display and throttle down the CPU and RAM, but
they still use power, and although these power modes use less power than the
computer being powered on, altogether they end up using much more power than
Hibernate mode does. Shutdown is great for power savings, but the session is lost
when the computer is shut down.
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77. Answers: A and D. NTFS can use NTFS file-level security, whereas FAT32 cannot.
NTFS cluster sizes are smaller than FAT32 clusters. NTFS partitions are therefore more
efficient (when installed correctly) than FAT32 partitions. NTFS can create larger partitions (or logical drives) than FAT32 in general.
78. Answer: D. A switch (aka option) alters the action of the command but not by forcing
it to perform unrelated actions. The switch will work only at the current time within the
operating system you are currently using, so “work across any operating system”
wouldn’t make sense in this scenario. Switches are not used in application icons. They
are used within commands—for example, dir /p, which would display directory contents by the page.
79. Answers: A and C. To connect a Bluetooth headset to a smartphone, you must pair
the device to the phone; then, if necessary, you enter a passcode into the phone to use
the device. Most mobile devices have Bluetooth installed and will usually recognize
devices automatically. If not, you might have to update Bluetooth on the device or
update the device’s OS. Disabling Wi-Fi is not necessary; however, Wi-Fi and Bluetooth
have been known to have conflicts, and sometimes one must be disabled to use the
other.
80. Answer: B. You should boot the system to the Advanced Boot Options Menu (ABOM)
and select Last Known Good Configuration. This will revert the system back to the last
known good as long as someone has not logged in successfully to the computer. If,
however, that didn’t work, you could try booting into Safe Mode (also in the ABOM)
and perform a System Restore (or restore from the DVD WinRE). After you have
exhausted all possibilities, try a factory restore or reinstall the OS.
81. Answer: C. Fixmbr in Windows XP rewrites a new Master Boot Record (MBR) to the
primary hard disk, killing all boot sector viruses. In the old days (although still usable
today with a DOS boot disk), the DOS equivalent of this was fdisk /mbr. To delete
viruses from any disk or disc, you would need to use antivirus scanning software.
82. Answer: A. The Event Viewer contains the log files of all the errors that occur on the
machine. In this case, you would go to the Application log. Another common log is the
System log, which will show errors concerning the OS and drivers. On Windows XP,
Dr. Watson also shows many of the application errors that occur. Local Security Policy
is where you can set up auditing and create password policies for the computer.
Msconfig enables you to boot the computer in different modes and enable/disable
services and applications. SFC /SCANNOW is a command run in the Command Prompt
(as an administrator only) that scans the integrity of the protected system files and
repairs them if possible.
83. Answer: A. The MSCONFIG.EXE utility enables you to modify the startup environment
via the General and Startup tabs. Ipconfig displays all network adapters’ settings. The
Boot Config Editor is BCDEdit; it is used to modify the Boot Configuration Data (BCD)
store. You might need to modify this if you are trying to dual-boot a computer. The
Registry Editor allows you to make changes to Windows by accessing various hives of
information and individual entries.
84. Answer: B. Use the tracert (traceroute) command. This will identify all the
routers along the way between you and the final destination. You will know if one has
failed because the trace will either stop working or you will see asterisks instead of
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ping times. A similar option to this is the command pathping. Ping by itself only
tests the final destination; it doesn’t show anything in-between. ipconfig displays
the configurations for each network adapter. The net command has many uses—for
example, net stop spooler, which stops the print spooler service.
85. Answer: C. The application log in the Event Viewer will display errors concerning
Windows applications as well as third-party applications. The security log shows
auditing events. The system log shows events concerning system files, drivers, and
operating system functionality. Setuperr.log is a log file that is created during the
installation of Windows. If it is created, it is stored in %windir%\Panther and is not
within the Event Viewer.
86. Answer: A. Try not to turn off the printer unless absolutely necessary. Instead,
clear the printer spooler. You would do this by stopping the Print Spooler service
in Computer Management (or in the command prompt by entering net stop
spooler) and then deleting the files in the path C:\Windows\System32\Spool\
Printers.
87. Answer: C. ipconfig /all gives the most information about the network connection. Many networking issues can be analyzed and troubleshot from this command.
ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew are for releasing and renewing
DHCP addresses. ipconfig /flushdns purges the DNS resolver cache.
88. Answer: D. Pinging the loopback address should return results even if you are
not physically connected to the network. It deals with the computer internally and
doesn’t even need a LAN. You can ping the local computer with the commands ping
loopback and ping localhost; however, the best option is to ping the actual
loopback IP address by typing ping 127.0.0.1. This removes any possible name
resolution that might try to occur in Windows. Pinging the loopback address doesn’t
make use of the network, so the LAN, DHCP servers, and the Ethernet cable do not
play into the scenario.
89. Answer: C. A personal area network (PAN) is a network of small computers, smartphones, and other similar devices. Using Wi-Fi or Bluetooth is very common when
creating a cable-free type of PAN known as a wireless PAN or WPAN. Ad-hoc means
that there is no wireless access point controlling the network. A local area network
(LAN) is a network that is inhabited by PCs, laptops, and mobile devices; everything
connects to a central connecting device such as a switch (or a SOHO router). A wide
area network (WAN) connects two or more LANs over a large geographic area. A metropolitan area network (MAN) connects two or more LANs in a smaller geographic
area—for example, two buildings.
90. Answer: A. Disabling the SSID broadcast is a security precaution, but it only keeps out
the average user. Any attacker with two bits of knowledge can scan for other things
the wireless access point broadcasts. Interestingly, using WEP is considered more
secure than not using it and disabling the SSID. RADIUS is an external method of
authenticating users; it often requires a Windows Server. WPA2 is very secure; if you
had one security option you could enable, make it WPA2.
91. Answers: A and C. Use WPA or WPA2 on the router (and clients) to deny wardrivers
and other stragglers access to the customer’s network. Increase the level of NTFS
security by changing the permissions in the Security tab of the shared folder. EFS isn’t
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203
necessary if you set up WPA2 on the wireless access point, but if you are dealing in
seriously confidential information, you might consider it as well. Here’s the deal:
Share-level permissions are rarely modified. NTFS permissions take precedence and
are more configurable, so that is where the bulk of your time configuring permissions
will go.
92. Answer: D. Always explain specifically and exactly what you must do and what the
ramifications are. Do not use acronyms or jargon, and make sure the customer is fully
aware of the situation.
93. Answer: B. Copy is used to make a duplicate of the file in another location. Move
enables you to take a file and shift it to another location. Dir gives you the contents of
a specific folder. Edit enables you to create and edit text files.
94. Answers: B and D. Check if you are within range; the range of Bluetooth devices is
limited—for example, Class 2 devices are limited to 10 meters. Also try power cycling
the Bluetooth program. In addition to those correct answers, you can try charging the
device, restarting the device, working with a known good Bluetooth device, attempting
to forget the device, and reconnecting it.
95. Answer: B. Start > Control Panel > Region and Language > Keyboards and Languages
> Change Keyboard is the correct sequence. The Display option has no settings for
keyboards. It is called Region and Language, not Languages and Region. You click the
Change Keyboard button after accessing the Keyboards and Languages tab, a key
step.
96. Answer: A. The sidebar in Windows Vista contains gadgets that offer specialized information like weather and traffic. Windows 7 doesn’t use the Sidebar, but you can still
make use of Gadgets. Widgets are the same types of small applications but are usually
web-based. Icons are files or programs on the desktop. Bracelets belong on people,
not on computer screens.
97. Answer: C. The Task Manager enables a user to see the amount of memory and % of
processing power a particular process uses in real-time. This can be done on the
Processes tab. System Information gives you information about the hardware and
software of the computer, but it is static (text only) and doesn’t change in real-time.
The registry stores all of the settings of Windows and is modified with the Registry
Editor. Performance Console can graph the performance of the different components
in the computer and, if configured properly, can do the same thing as the Task
Manager in this scenario, but not as easily.
98. Answer: A. By moving the paging file (or swap file, aka virtual memory) to the D:
drive, you are freeing up C: to deal with those disk-intensive programs. Reinstalling
Windows is a huge process that you should avoid at all costs, especially when unnecessary, such as in this example. Defragging the C: drive would help if that is where the
OS and applications are, but defragging the D: drive will not speed up the applications.
Decreasing the page file size never helps. However, increasing the size, moving it, and
adding RAM are all ways to make applications run faster.
99. Answer: A. Always test after a job is “finished.” The job actually isn’t complete until
you have tested the solution. In this case, print a test page from each of the paper
trays. Resetting configuration settings might cause the printer to print in a way that is
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undesirable to customers. Don’t change settings unless you are asked to do so by the
customer or if something fails; remember, in this scenario you are maintaining the
printer. Filling the trays with paper won’t really prove anything, but it is a nice thing to
do. Printing a calibration page is standard practice whenever installing or performing
maintenance to a printer, but that also does not resolve any problems—unless the
problem was printer calibration!
100. Answer: A. The patch cable should be wired the same on both ends. Normally, a computer will connect to a switch (or to an RJ45 jack) with a straight-through cable. This
cable is wired the same way on each end, usually adhering to the 568B standard.
Always carry an extra straight-through cable with you! A cross-over cable is wired differently on each end—568B on one end and 568A on the other. It is used to connect a
computer to another computer or a switch to another switch. This could be what the
other technician mistakenly installed. You can see this if you look carefully at the plugs
on each end, but it would be easier to use a patch cable tester. A rolled cable is one
that allows connectivity from a computer’s serial port to the console port of a router.
Each of these cables uses RJ45 plugs so they can be somewhat difficult to differentiate between.
9
CHAPTER NINE
220-802 Practice
Exam C
Let’s turn up the heat a bit more. The previous 220-802 exam
was the intermediate test. This next test could be considered
an advanced practice test. A large percentage of the questions
will have a higher difficult rating. Be ready for questions with
longer, more in-depth scenarios and more complex answers.
This exam is freestyle, meaning the questions are randomized.
You can expect questions from any of the four domains, in any
order.
If you didn’t already, I suggest taking a break between exams.
If you just completed the second exam, give yourself a halfhour or so before you begin this one. If you didn’t score 90%
or higher on exam B, go back and study; then retake exam B
until you pass with 90% or higher.
Write down your answers and check them against the answer
key, which immediately follows the exam. After the answer key
you will find the explanations for all of the answers. Good
luck!
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✓
Quick Check
Practice Questions
1. A customer brings in a computer that doesn’t display anything
when it is turned on. You verify that the computer and monitor are
receiving power and that the monitor is securely connected to the
computer’s only video port. Which of the following could possibly
cause this problem? (Select all that apply.)
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 230
❍ A. Motherboard
❍ B. RAM
❍ C. Hard drive
❍ D. DVD-ROM
❍ E. CPU
❍ F. Power supply
❍ G. Video card
❍ H. SATA data cable
2. What protects confidential information from being disclosed
publicly?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 230
Classification
Social engineering
RAS
Hard drive wipe
3. Your co-worker just installed a new printer, replacing his older
one. However, when he tries to print from Microsoft Word, the old
printer comes up in the print window. What should you tell him?
❍
A. Save the print job by printing to file, and then print the
file with the new printer selected
❍
B. Select the new printer from the list every time a document is printed
❍
C. Open the Printers folder, right-click the new printer,
and then select Properties > Security Tab > Make This
the Default Printer
❍ D. Open the Printers folder, right-click the new printer,
and then click Set as Default Printer
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 230
220-802 Practice Exam C
207
✓
Quick Check
4. Programs that run when Windows starts are stored in which of
the following registry hives?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
HKEY_USERS
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
Detailed Answer: 231
Device Manager
Msconfig
Windows Explorer
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 231
Format the partition
Partition the drive
Configure Windows settings
Load RAID drivers
7. A co-worker maps a network drive for a user, but after rebooting,
the drive is not seen within Windows Explorer. Which of the following steps should be taken to ensure that the drive remains
mapped?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Internet Explorer
6. Which of the following steps is performed first when running a
clean install of Windows 7 Professional on a new hard drive?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 230
HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
5. Typically, which Windows tool enables you to configure a SOHO
router?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 231
A. Check Reconnect at Logon when mapping the drive
B. Select the drive letter needed to connect each time the
co-worker logs on
❍ C. Check the Folder connection when mapping the drive
❍ D. Use the net use command instead
8. Based on the physical hardware address of the client’s network
device, which of the following is commonly used to restrict access
to a network?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
WPA key
DHCP settings
MAC filtering
SSID broadcast
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 231
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Chapter 9
✓
Quick Check
9. While troubleshooting a network problem, you discover that one
set of LED lights on a switch is blinking rapidly even when all
other nodes are disconnected. Which of the following is most
likely the cause? (Select the two best answers.)
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 231
❍ A. A switch that is not plugged into a server
❍ B. A defective hard drive in the computer
❍ C. A defective network card in the computer
❍ D. An unplugged server
❍ E. A defective port on the network switch
10. A user with an Android phone is attempting to get e-mail to work
properly. The user can send e-mail but cannot receive it. The user
is required to connect to an IMAP server, as well as an SMTP
server that uses SSL. Which port is configured incorrectly?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 231
25
110
143
443
11. You are called to a school lab to fix a computer. The computer
supposedly worked fine the day before, but now it does not power
on. The computer is plugged into a power strip with another computer. The other computer works fine. Which of the following
could be the problem? (Select the two best answers.)
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 232
A. The power cable is unplugged from the computer.
❍ B. The power strip is overloaded.
❍ C. The monitor is unplugged.
❍ D. The voltage switch on the computer is set incorrectly.
❍ E. The power strip is unplugged.
12. Tracy cannot connect to the network. She asks you to help. What
should you do first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Replace the NIC
Reconfigure TCP/IP
Check for a link light on the NIC
Install the latest NIC drivers
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 232
220-802 Practice Exam C
209
✓
Quick Check
13. A print job fails to leave the print queue. Which of the following
services may need to be restarted?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 232
Print driver
Print spooler
Network adapter
Printer
14. After installing a network application on a computer running
Windows, the application does not communicate with the server.
Which of the following actions should be taken first?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 232
A. Uninstall the service pack
B. Reinstall the latest service pack
C. Add the port number and name of the service to the
Exceptions list of Windows Firewall
❍ D. Add the port number to the network firewall
15. A customer reports a problem with a PC located in the same room
as cement testing equipment. The room appears to have adequate
cooling. The PC will boot up but locks up after 5–10 minutes of
use. After a lockup it will not reboot immediately. Which the following is the most likely problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
The PC air intakes are clogged with cement dust.
The CPU heat sink is underrated for the CPU.
The power supply is underrated for the electrical load
of the PC.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 233
Ipconfig
Ping
Nslookup
Tracert
17. Which of the following hardware cards enables the full functionality of the Windows 7 Media Center Live TV option?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 232
The PC has a virus.
16. Which of the following commands facilitates viewing the entire
path from you to a server on the other side of the country?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
TV tuner
Modem
Video card
Network adapter
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 233
210
Chapter 9
✓
Quick Check
18. When accessing an NTFS shared resource, which of the following
is required? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 233
An active certificate
Correct user permissions
Local user access
Correct share permissions
19. A friend of yours is experiencing unusual problems with a printer
due to voltage fluctuations in the wall outlet. Which of the following should be used to eliminate the fluctuations?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 233
A. UPS
B. Multimeter
C. Surge protector
❍ D. Gas generator
20. Your co-worker’s iPad is having trouble connecting to e-mail. How
should you troubleshoot this? (Select the three best answers.)
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 233
❍ A. Verify Internet access
❍ B. Check for Bluetooth connectivity
❍ C. Check port numbers
❍ D. Make sure that GPS is enabled
❍ E. Verify username/password
21. Which of the following protocols should you set up for the most
secure wireless connection?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 233
WEP
WPA
WPA2
WAP
22. You observe that the lights in a customer’s building flicker periodically during the course of the day. Which of the following should
you recommend to protect the customer’s computer equipment?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 233
Power supply
UPS
Generator
Heavy-duty electrical cord
23. You are contracted to recover data from a laptop. In which two
locations might you find irreplaceable, valuable data? (Select the
two best answers.)
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 234
220-802 Practice Exam C
211
✓
Quick Check
❍ A. Ntoskrnl.exe
❍ B. Windows folder
❍ C. Pictures
❍ D. E-mail
❍ E. System32 folder
24. You just installed Microsoft Windows to a computer with three
internal SATA hard drives and one external USB hard drive. SATA
hard drive 1 contains the operating system. SATA hard drive 2
contains the user profiles. SATA hard drive 3 and the external USB
hard drive are empty. Where should you place the page file for
maximize performance?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 234
A. External USB hard drive
B. Internal SATA hard drive 1
❍ C. Internal SATA hard drive 2
❍ D. Internal SATA hard drive 3
25. Which utility enables auditing at the local level?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Group Policy
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 234
Local Security Policy
Active Directory Policy
Site Policy
26. Which of the following can you do to optimize an infrared connection between a laptop and a printer? (Select the two best
answers.)
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 234
❍ A. Shorten the distance
❍ B. Install a repeater device
❍ C. Boost the power
❍ D. Maintain a clear line of sight
❍ E. Change the transmission channel
27. How does NAT provide additional security for users who are
behind a gateway?
❍
❍
A. It sets the hours that users can access the Internet.
B. It blocks computers on the Internet from accessing
computers on the LAN.
❍ C. It limits users from accessing particular websites.
❍ D. It blocks computers on the LAN from accessing computers on the Internet.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 234
212
Chapter 9
✓
Quick Check
28. A customer plugs in a new USB barcode reader and the computer
recognizes it, but the reader is unable to work properly. What is
the most likely reason?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 234
Faulty USB cable.
The operating system needs to be updated.
Software drivers need to be updated.
Too many USB devices are plugged in.
29. A customer has forgotten his password. He can no longer access
his company e-mail address. What should you tell him?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 234
A. That he should remember his password
B. That you need information confirming his identity
C. That the password will be reset in several minutes
❍ D. That he shouldn’t do that
30. What can help locate a lost or stolen mobile device?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Passcode
GPS
Encryption
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 235
UTP
Plenum-rated cable
568B
Fiber optic
32. Which the following can be disabled to help prevent access to a
wireless network?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 235
Auto-erase
31. One of your customers is having difficulty with two network connections in the accounting office. The accounting office is adjacent
to the building’s mechanical room. Network cables run from the
accounting office, through the drop ceiling of the mechanical
room, and into the server room next door. What should you recommend to the customer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
MAC filtering
SSID broadcast
WPA2 passphrase
WPA key
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 235
220-802 Practice Exam C
213
✓
Quick Check
33. John can’t get any sound out of his laptop’s speakers. What are
two possible issues that could cause this? (Select the two best
answers.)
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 235
A. The sound driver needs to be installed.
B. The laptop is on battery power.
C. He’s using the wrong version of Windows Media
Player.
❍ D. The volume is turned down.
34. A customer reports that a computer is very loud and occasionally
turns itself off. The computer is located under a desk directly on
top of the carpet. How would you remedy the situation? (Select
the two best answers.)
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 235
A. Remove the computer from the floor
❍ B. Install a new hard drive
❍ C. Replace the power cord
❍ D. Wipe the computer down with a cloth
❍ E. Clean the inside of the computer
35. After booting his laptop, Jason complains that instead of just
letters, he is getting numbers and letters when he types in his
username. Because of this, he cannot log on to Windows. What
could be the issue?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 235
A. The Caps Lock is on.
B. Bad keyboard.
❍ C. Numlock is on.
❍ D. Wrong keyboard driver.
36. Which of the following commands would be used to set the time
on a workstation?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 236
Time
Net time
Net timer
Net time set
37. Michelle’s laptop powers on only when the AC adapter is connected to it. What is wrong with the laptop?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Bad transformer
Bad AC port on the laptop
Bad battery
Bad CMOS battery
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 236
214
Chapter 9
✓
Quick Check
38. Which of the following commands would result in the following
output?
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 236
192.168.1.100 00-1C-C0-09-08-07
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Arp -a
Ping
Nbtstat -a
Arp
39. In Windows Vista, which utility enables you to select and copy
characters from any font?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 236
A. Language bar
B. Sticky keys
C. Control Panel > Fonts
❍ D. Character map
40. Which of the following can be described as removing the limitations of Apple iOS?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Jailbreaking
VirusBarrier
Super-admin powers
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 236
Microsoft PowerToys
USMT
Robust file copy
Sync Center
42. Which language support for representing characters is built in to
Windows?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 236
Rooting
41. Which of the following built-in applets should a technician use to
configure offline files and folders in Windows 7?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Unicode
EBCDIC
ASCII
ITU-T
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 237
220-802 Practice Exam C
215
✓
Quick Check
43. A user has just moved to a new office and is unable to access the
network. You suspect the user’s network settings need to be
changed. Which of the following commands should you issue on
the Windows XP computer to view the network settings?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 237
Tracert
Ipconfig
Netdiag
Pathping
44. Tony’s printer is printing all blank pages. What is the cause of
this?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 237
A. No power to the transfer corona.
B. Dirty primary corona.
C. Toner cartridge needs to be replaced.
❍ D. Printer is not plugged into the USB port.
45. Which of the following is the best source of information about
malicious software detected on a computer?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 237
A. Operating system documentation
B. Anti-spyware software website
C. Readme.txt file included with the anti-spyware software installation
❍ D. The user of a previously infected computer
46. Your company’s network printer is no longer printing. All cables
and settings are correct. You can ping the gateway but not the
printer’s IP. Which is most likely the problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 237
The printer memory is full.
The printer needs a new maintenance kit.
The printer is not running in full duplex.
The printer NIC is faulty.
47. Viruses have been detected and removed on a customer’s computer several times during the course of several weeks. Which of
the following will best help prevent future occurrences?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Delete temporary files, cookies, and browser history
Defragment the hard drive
Install antivirus software that uses manual updates
Discuss safer web browsing habits with the customer
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 237
216
Chapter 9
✓
Quick Check
48. Which of the following sends an invitation by e-mail asking for
help?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Service call
VNC
Remote Assistance
C:\System Files
C:\Windows\System32
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 238
iCloud
Android Cloud backup
Microsoft Cloud
Local NAS device
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 238
CMD
Excel
Notepad
MMC
52. A computer is responding slowly and the Windows Task Manager
shows that spoolsv.exe is using 95% of system resources. Which
of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 238
C:\Windows\System32\Config
51. You need to copy and paste information from a web page, but you
want to remove all formatting so that it can be pasted cleanly into
Word. Which program should you use as an intermediary?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
C:\Windows
50. You are required to set up a remote backup solution for an
Android tablet. The files cannot be stored at any company location. Which technology should you select?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 237
Remote Desktop
49. When performing a clean installation, which of the following is the
default location for the system files of Windows 7?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Windows update is running.
A virus infection has occurred.
Hyperthreading has been disabled.
The printing subsystem.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 238
220-802 Practice Exam C
217
✓
Quick Check
53. Which of the following descriptions classifies the protocol IMAP?
❍
❍
A. A protocol that allows real-time messaging
❍
C. An e-mail protocol that allows users to send but not to
receive messages
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 239
B. An e-mail protocol that allows users to selectively
download messages
❍ D. A protocol that authenticates users who are sending
e-mail
54. A user reports that a laser printer is printing poorly. You observe
that the pages have wrinkles and random patterns of missing
print. What is the most likely problem?
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 239
A. The fuser needs to be replaced.
❍ B. The toner cartridge is defective.
❍ C. The corona wire is frayed.
❍ D. There is high humidity in the room.
55. Which of the following is a user-defined collection of folders that
acts as logical representations of the user’s content?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
My Documents
Libraries
Public Documents
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 239
Device Manager
Task Manager
Computer
Services console
57. A user asks you to explain a message that comes up on the computer display before the operating system boots. The message
states that the BIOS logged a chassis intrusion. What would be
your explanation to the user?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 239
Metadata
56. From which of the following locations could you disable a hardware component on a laptop in Windows?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
The CD drive tray is open.
The CPU is loose.
A malicious individual has hacked the system.
The computer case has been opened.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 239
218
Chapter 9
✓
Quick Check
58. A school classroom is set up with removable drives to train students in Windows 7 and Windows Vista. One student tells you that
one of the computers will not boot up and receives an error: no
operating system found. All of the cables are plugged in securely
to the computer. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
The removable drive is not locked.
The lab network is down.
The memory is not seated properly.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 240
ping –t
ipconfig /all
nslookup
ping –l
60. A customer’s Android smartphone was running a third-party VNC
application that froze. What should you do? (Select the two best
answers.)
❍
❍
❍
Detailed Answer: 239
The monitor is not functioning.
59. You are experiencing intermittent connectivity to the website
www.davidlprowse.com and want to check the status of the connectivity to that web server over a span of half an hour. Which of
the following commands should you use?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 240
A. Initiate a soft reset
B. Initiate a hard reset
C. Pull the battery
❍ D. Remove the memory card
61. Which command-line tool in Windows XP will find all of the
unsigned drivers in the computer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 240
sigverif
dxdiag
ping
msconfig
62. Users are reporting to you that a Windows 7 feature asks them for
confirmation before running certain applications or when making
system changes. What is the name of this Windows feature, and
where should you direct users to turn the functionality off?
❍
A. Security Center; it can be turned off in the services
MMC snap in.
❍
B. User Account Control; it can be turned off under
Security in the Control Panel.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 240
220-802 Practice Exam C
219
✓
Quick Check
❍
C. Windows Firewall; it can be turned off under System
Properties.
❍ D. User Account Control; it can be turned off under User
Accounts in the Control Panel.
63. James is a LAN administrator in charge of printers. Which of the
following should he check first if a Windows user is trying to print
a document and gets the error message “Print sub-system not
available”?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
❍
Printer has been added.
Spooler service is running.
Printer has power from the jack.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 241
Check the power cable to the hard disk
Check the power supply for proper voltages
Check the BIOS settings for the drive controller
Check the drive cable to make sure it is oriented correctly on both the drive and the board
E. Check the drive jumpers for correct master/slave
relationships
65. Your manager’s Windows computer locks up after the graphical
user interface starts to load up. However, the computer will boot
in Safe Mode. When you access the Event Viewer, you see an
entry that states that a driver failed. Which of the following would
help you further diagnose the problem?
❍
❍
Detailed Answer: 240
Correct printer driver is installed.
64. A customer installed a new hard disk on a computer and now cannot boot the machine. You notice that the hard drive LED stays on.
What should you do to troubleshoot this problem? (Select the two
best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 241
A. Run sigverif.
B. Enable Boot Logging. Then, in Safe Mode analyze the
ntbtlog.txt file.
❍ C. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement.
❍ D. Access Debugging Mode.
66. Which of the following commands would be used to fix errors on
the system disk?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Xcopy
Tracert /w
Diskpart
Chkdsk /F
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 241
220
Chapter 9
✓
Quick Check
67. A new program is crashing and causing the computer to lock up.
What is the best location to check for further information about
the cause of the crash?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 241
System log
Security log
Application log
Setup log
68. Which of the following versions of Windows 7 can run in
Windows XP mode, join domains, and utilize BitLocker
encryption?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 241
A. Starter
B. Home Premium
C. Ultimate
❍ D. Professional
69. A customer’s computer is running Windows Vista Ultimate 32-bit.
The customer would like to upgrade to Windows 7. Which of the
following operating systems can the customer’s computer be
upgraded directly to?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Windows 7 Professional 64-bit
Windows 7 Ultimate 32-bit
Windows 7 Ultimate 64-bit
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 241
Xcopy
Edit
Copy
Move
71. You are tasked with disabling services from starting up on a
Windows 7 PC. Which command should you run to bring up
a window to make these changes?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 241
Windows 7 Professional 32-bit
70. You are tasked with copying the entire Users folder and subfolders
to a new computer. Which command should you use?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
SFC
Chkdsk
Msconfig
GPupate
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 242
220-802 Practice Exam C
221
✓
Quick Check
72. You replaced two 1 GB DIMMs with two 2 GB DIMMs on a
Windows Vista 32-bit computer. When you reboot the computer,
the BIOS recognizes 4 GB of RAM but the operating system only
shows approximately 3 GB. Which of the following is the most
likely reason for this?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 242
The new RAM is not the correct speed.
Vista only sees 3 GB of RAM.
The new RAM is not the correct type.
There is a memory hole in the BIOS.
73. What is the most important aspect of using offline files on a
networked computer?
❍
A. Size of the computer hard drive
❍
B. Availability of either a CD or DVD-ROM on the
computer
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 242
❍ C. Proximity of the computer to the server
❍ D. File server operating system
74. Which of the following is an executable that checks the integrity of
an NTFS volume in Windows?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Autochk.exe
Convert
Regedit.exe
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 242
\Boot
\Windows
\Documents and Settings
\Bootmgr
76. Jim attempts to plug a scanner into the front USB port of a
Windows computer, but the scanner does not power on. What
should you recommend to Jim?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 242
NetBEUI
75. In Windows 7, which of the following folders might be stored in a
hidden partition by default?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Use a different USB cable
Run Windows update on the computer
Upgrade the computer’s drivers
Use the onboard USB ports
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 242
222
Chapter 9
✓
Quick Check
77. One of your customers has a wireless network that is secured
with WEP. The customer wants to improve data encryption so that
the transmission of data has less of a chance of being compromised. Which of the following should you do?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 243
Reconfigure the network to use WPA2
Use MAC address filtering
Modify the WEP key every week
Disable the SSID broadcast
78. Which the following is the difference between a Stop Error (for
example, stop C0098xxxx) and a Dr. Watson error?
❍
A. A Dr. Watson error occurs before the Windows GUI
appears.
❍
B. A Stop error is known as a blue screen and causes
complete system failure.
❍
C. A Dr. Watson error is usually related to a damaged
graphics adapter or memory chip.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 243
❍ D. A Stop error writes the error to a memory dump file
before restoring the system to a working state.
79. One of your co-workers just installed a newer, more powerful
video card in a customer’s computer. The computer powers down
before it completes the boot process. Before the installation, the
computer worked normally. Which of the following is the most
likely cause of a problem?
❍
A. The video card is not compatible with the CPU.
❍
B. The monitor cannot display the higher resolution of
the new video card.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 243
❍ C. The computer’s RAM needs to be upgraded.
❍ D. The power supply is not providing enough wattage for
the new video card.
80. A customer states that an inkjet printer is printing streaks on documents. What should you do to resolve this issue?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Replace the printer data cable
Use the printer’s clean option
Print a test page from the printer
Reinstall the drivers
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 243
220-802 Practice Exam C
223
✓
Quick Check
81. Which of the following commands is used to display hidden files?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
dir /o
dir /d
dir /?
Detailed Answer: 243
Run Chkdsk
Run Msconfig
Check the System log
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 244
The installed application contains a logic bomb.
The installed application is a worm.
The installed application is a Trojan horse.
The installed application included adware.
84. What should you do to prepare a mobile device in case it is stolen
or lost? (Select the three best answers.)
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 228
Go into Safe Mode
83. You get a complaint from a customer that her computer started
receiving pop-up ads after she installed an application within
Windows. What is most likely the problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 243
dir /a
82. After installing a new video card, the PC loads Windows and
continuously reboots. What should you do first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 244
A. Disable Bluetooth
B. Configure remote backup
❍ C. Enable Wi-Fi encryption
❍ D. Enable GPS
❍ E. Enable Wi-Fi tethering
❍ F. Configure a pattern screenlock
85. You want your computer to boot off of the network and have the
ability to be brought out of sleep mode over the network. Which
two technologies should you implement in the BIOS?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
WAP and WPA2
RIS and Magic Packet
PXE and WOL
Norton Ghost and Unattend.xml
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 244
224
Chapter 9
✓
Quick Check
86. Two co-workers share the same file inside a folder. User A works
on the file, makes changes, and saves the file. User B then works
on the file, makes changes, and saves the file as well. The next
time User A attempts to open the file, she receives an access
denied error. What could cause this error message?
❍
A. The NTFS permissions were changed on the file to
allow only execute.
❍
❍
B. The file was set with the system and hidden attributes.
Quick Answer: 228
Detailed Answer: 244
C. The file was set to read only by the Accounts
Receivable administrator.
❍ D. The file was moved before being modified and then
moved back to the share.
87. A customer brings in a laptop with a non-functioning LCD screen
that always remains black; however, when you connect the laptop
to an external monitor, the laptop boots to Windows normally.
Which of the following actions should you take first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Replace the LCD panel with a compatible model
Check the functionality of the LCD cutoff switch
Install a different video card
Quick Answer: 229
Detailed Answer: 245
SATA
PATA
USB
Solid-state
89. In Windows Vista, which of the following commands should be
used to verify that a previous system shutdown was completed
successfully?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 244
Replace the inverter
88. You are troubleshooting an issue over the phone and determine
that the user has a faulty hard drive. The only information the user
can give you is that the computer was bought in the late 1990s
and the drive capacity is 40 GB. Which kind of HD should you
bring to the service call?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 228
ipconfig
chkntfs
chkdsk
sfc
Quick Answer: 229
Detailed Answer: 245
220-802 Practice Exam C
225
✓
Quick Check
90. Logging on to a network with a username and password is an
example of what?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
❍
Detailed Answer: 245
Authorization
Identification
Identity proofing
Authentication
91. A customer tells you that a networked printer is not printing documents. You successfully ping the printer’s IP address. What is the
problem? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 229
Quick Answer: 229
Detailed Answer: 245
The printer is low on toner.
The network cable is unplugged.
The printer is out of paper.
The gateway address on the printer is incorrect.
E. The spooler is not functioning.
92. Your boss asks you to install a new wireless network. Which of the
following should you implement on the wireless network to help
prevent unauthorized access? (Select the two best answers.)
Quick Answer: 229
Detailed Answer: 245
❍ A. Install additional wireless access points
❍ B. Use WPA2
❍ C. Broadcast the SSID
❍ D. Use MAC filtering
❍ E. Install a signal booster
93. Ray installs a new 802.11n wireless network adapter in a desktop
computer. He tries to connect to an access point but doesn’t see
any access points in the wireless configuration manager. Why are
none of the access points listed? (Select the best answer.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 245
The access points are out of range.
No IEEE 802.11n access points are available.
802.11n is not supported on the network.
The access points cannot accept any more connections.
94. In Windows 7, which of the following enables administrators to
perform administrative tasks that integrate scripts over a network?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 229
PowerShell
Command Prompt
Command-line
Windows Script Host
Quick Answer: 229
Detailed Answer: 246
226
Chapter 9
✓
Quick Check
95. Which of the following tools should you use in Windows 7 to
migrate user files and settings for multiple computers?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Windows Easy Transfer
User State Migration Tool
Profile Transfer Tool
Task Manager
Tasklist
Quick Answer: 229
Detailed Answer: 246
FAT32
FAT64
NTFS
FAT16
Quick Answer: 229
Detailed Answer: 246
The new network card was not seated properly.
The software drivers were not installed.
There are no wireless signals available.
The antenna leads were not reconnected.
99. A program has been detected collecting information such as the
computer name and IP address and sending that information to a
specific IP address on the Internet. Which kind of threat is this an
example of?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 246
Control Panel
98. You have been asked to replace the wireless network adapter in a
laptop. After performing the replacement tasks, the laptop cannot
locate any wireless signals. What is the most likely cause of the
problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 229
Computer Management
97. Which of the following file systems is suited specifically for USB
flash drives?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 246
Files and Settings Transfer Wizard
96. Which of the following can be used to kill a running process?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 229
Spyware
Virus
Rootkit
Spam
Quick Answer: 229
Detailed Answer: 247
220-802 Practice Exam C
227
✓
Quick Check
100. You are required to stop the Windows Firewall service. How can
you accomplish this? (Select the three best answers.)
❍ A. In Performance Monitor
❍ B. With the net stop mpssvc command
❍ C. Within Msconfig
❍ D. Within the Task Manager
❍ E. In System Information
❍ F. With Gpedit.exe
❍ G. In Services.msc
And that wraps up Exam C. Take a nice long break before
moving on to the fourth and final 220-802 exam.
Quick Answer: 229
Detailed Answer: 247
228
Chapter 9
Quick-Check Answer Key
1. A, B, E, and G
30. C
59. A
2. A
31. D
60. A and C
3. D
32. B
61. A
4. C
33. A and D
62. D
5. A
34. A and E
63. C
6. D
35. C
64. D and E
7. A
36. A
65. B
8. C
37. C
66. D
9. C and E
38. A
67. C
10. C
39. D
68. C
11. A and D
40. B
69. C
12. C
41. D
70. A
13. B
42. A
71. C
14. C
43. B
72. B
15. B
44. A
73. A
16. D
45. B
74. B
17. A
46. D
75. A
18. B and D
47. D
76. D
19. A
48. D
77. A
20. A, C, and E
49. D
78. B
21. C
50. B
79. D
22. B
51. C
80. B
23. C and D
52. D
81. B
24. D
53. B
82. A
25. B
54. A
83. D
26. A and D
55. C
84. B, D, and F
27. B
56. A
85. C
28. C
57. D
86. D
29. B
58. B
87. C
220-802 Practice Exam C
88. B
93. A
98. D
89. B
94. A
99. A
90. D
95. C
91. C and E
96. A
92. B and D
97. B
100. B, D, and G
229
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Answers and Explanations
1. Answers: A, B, E, and G. If the computer is receiving power, everything is hooked up
properly, and there is no display, then you need to consider what I like to call the big
four: motherboard, CPU, video card, and RAM. These are the four components of the
computer that could cause a no display issue. The most common is the video card;
check if that is seated properly into the expansion slot. You should also check if that
card works in one of your test systems. Then check if the RAM and then the CPU are
properly installed and compatible. Finally, check the motherboard if necessary. Of
course, at the beginning of this process, you should inquire with the customer as to
when this computer failed and if anything was modified on the system of late. This
might help you troubleshoot the problem. You would question the user during step 1
of the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting process: Identify the problem. As for the incorrect
answers: The hard drive won’t even be accessed if the system’s RAM, motherboard, or
CPU fails because the system won’t even POST. There will be little to no activity on the
HDD LED. Now, if the video card failed, the system might still boot, but without video,
and you would see some HDD LED activity. However, some systems will not boot; lack
of video will cause the system to stop at POST. The DVD-ROM drive won’t cause a no
display issue because it is a secondary device. The power supply is not the cause of
the problem in this case. The scenario said that the computer was receiving power. If
the power supply fails, nothing would happen when you press the computer’s power
on button. If the SATA data cable is disconnected (and that was the only problem), you
would get video; the system would POST (and most likely record a HDD error); and
then when the system attempted to boot to the hard drive, you would get a “missing
OS” error or similar message.
2. Answer: A. The classification of data helps prevent confidential information from being
publicly disclosed. Some organizations will have a classification scheme for their data,
such as normal, secret, and top secret. Policies are implemented to make top secret
data the most secure on the network. By classifying data, you are determining who
has access to it. This is generally done on a need-to-know basis. Social engineering
is the art of manipulating people into giving classified information. A remote access
server (RAS) allows users to connect remotely to the network. To protect the connection (and data that passes through it), an organization might opt to use a VPN or
RADIUS server, or both. Wiping a hard drive is vague. How is it being wiped? If it is
being formatted, then that is not enough to protect confidential information. You need
to perform bit-level erasure with third-party software, degauss the drive, or destroy it
to make sure that no one can access the data. The thing is that data is always stored
somewhere on a server or NAS device, so properly disposing of a single hard drive
doesn’t protect any and all confidential information from being publicly disclosed.
3. Answer: D. You want to set a new default printer in the OS because he has installed
a new printer. This is usually done simply by right-clicking the printer and selecting
Set as default printer. You might also see a question with the option to click File (or
Printer). This is if you double-clicked the printer to open it and then selected the first
menu. Unused printer drivers for older printers should be removed when the older
printers are replaced.
4. Answer: C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE is the registry hive that stores information about
the programs Windows runs when it starts. The actual hives are stored in
220-802 Practice Exam C
231
\%windir%\System32\Config. But it’s okay to call HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE and the
other HKEYs hives. Most technicians do it, and you might see them referred to that
way on the exam as well. The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE hive is the one you will access
the most often. You can configure advanced settings for TCP/IP, the GUI of the OS,
and lots more from here. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG contains data that generated when
the system boots; nothing is permanently stored. HKEY_USERS stores the information
for each user profile. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT contains information about registered
applications and file associations.
5. Answer: A. Internet Explorer (or any other web browser) is normally used to configure
a router. It’s sometimes referred to as romming into the router because the configuration program is stored in the ROM chip of the router. You can type the IP address of
the router into the Windows Explorer address bar, but that will simply open an IE (or
other browser) tab. The Device Manager is where you enable and disable devices and
install, update, and roll back drivers for devices. Msconfig is used to modify how the
computer boots and to enable/disable programs and services.
6. Answer: D. The first thing you need to supply is the driver for any special SATA drives,
SCSI drives, or RAID controllers. That of course is optional. If you have a typical SATA
drive, Windows should recognize it automatically. Once Windows knows which hard
drive to install to, partitioning, then formatting, and then configuration of settings can
commence, in that order.
7. Answer: A. Although Windows has the Reconnect at Logon check box selected by
default, it could have been disabled. If you do choose to use the net use command,
be sure to make persistent connections. This is done by adding /persistent:yes
to the command syntax.
8. Answer: C. MAC filtering is used to restrict computers from connecting to a network;
it is based on the physical Media Access Control (MAC) address of the computer’s network adapter. It works with wired or wireless connections. WPA is used to encrypt the
wireless session between a computer and the wireless access point (WAP); its key
code is required to gain access to the network. DHCP settings simply allow a specific
range of IP addresses, and other IP data such as gateway address and DNS server
address, to be handed out to clients. The SSID broadcast is the name of the wireless
network, as broadcast out over radio waves by the WAP.
9. Answers: C and E. If only one computer is connected to the switch, there shouldn’t be
much activity. Rapidly blinking LED lights might lead you to believe that the computer’s network card (NIC) or the port on the switch is faulty. However, it could be that
the person is sending a lot of data to himself while you are testing the network, but
that would be strange and rare. The server doesn’t have anything to do with this, nor
does the hard disk.
10. Answer: C. What should have been port 143 was probably configured incorrectly if the
person can send but not receive e-mail. The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
receives e-mail and uses port 143. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses
port 25 by default to send mail but will use port 443 if SSL or TLS security is implemented. Port 110 is the POP3 e-mail port. POP3 also is used to receive e-mail, but not
in this question’s scenario. By the way, another port that is used for SMTP is 587. This
is done to avoid being blocked by ISPs and to reduce spam. Mobile devices such as
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Android phones can be a little more difficult to configure e-mail on, as compared
to PCs. Be sure to work with mobile devices and go through the steps of setting up
e-mail on both Android and iOS.
11. Answers: A and D. Check the basics first! Make sure the power cable wasn’t disconnected from the computer, and verify that the voltage switch is in the correct position.
Kids like to play tricks on lab computers! A standard power strip should not overload
with just two computers connected to it, but if it does, press the reset switch on the
power strip. The monitor being unplugged could be a separate problem, but it won’t
cause the computer to not power on. If the second computer works fine, then that tells
you the power strip is plugged in.
12. Answer: C. Start with the physical! Check for a link light first. This tells you whether
there is physical connectivity. Then, if necessary, you can, in order, test the patch
cable, reconfigure TCP/IP, install drivers (from the manufacturer’s website, mind you),
and finally replace the NIC.
13. Answer: B. The print spooler needs to be restarted on the computer that started the
print job or the computer that controls the printer. This can be done in the Services
console window or in the Command Prompt with the net stop spooler and net
start spooler commands, or anywhere else where services can be started and
stopped such as the Task Manager. Okay, that was an easy one, but the real exam will
have a couple easy ones thrown in as well. Don’t think too hard when you actually do
receive an easier question.
14. Answer: C. Adding the port number and name of service to the Windows Firewall
Exceptions list is the correct answer. But I’m going to pontificate more as I usually do.
Uninstalling and reinstalling the SP will not help this particular situation. By default,
any Windows OS after and including Windows XP SP2 enables the Windows Firewall
automatically and won’t allow inbound connections from the server to the network
application. Therefore, you need to make an “exception.” You can access this in
Windows XP by going to Local Area Connection Properties > Advanced tab. In
Windows 7/Vista, use the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security: Start > All
Programs > Administrative Tools. If you decide to add a port, you need to know the
port number of the application. For example, RealVNC is normally port 5900 for
incoming connections.
15. Answer: B. The PC air intakes are probably clogged with cement dust. This will stop
fresh, cool air from entering the PC and cause the CPU to overheat. That’s why the
system won’t reboot immediately because the CPU needs some time to cool down.
You should install a filter in front of the PC air intake and instruct the customer to
clean the filter often. While you are working on the computer, you should clean out the
inside of the system and vacuum out the exhaust of the power supply (without opening the power supply of course). If the PC had a virus, that might cause it to lock up
or shut down, but you would be able to reboot the computer right away. Plus, there
would probably be other indicators of a virus. The CPU heat sink could be an issue
and could cause the same results, but it is less likely. Companies often buy computers
from popular manufacturers such as Dell and HP; these computer manufacturers
spend a lot of time designing their heat sink/fan combinations to work with the CPU. If
the power supply was underrated, it would cause intermittent shutdowns, but not
lockups. Nothing in the scenario would lead you to believe that the computer uses so
many powerful components as to make the power supply underrated.
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233
16. Answer: D. tracert (short for trace route) can show the entire path between you
and a final destination, displaying every router (or hop) in between. A similar command that gives slightly less information is pathping. ipconfig displays basic
information about your network connection. ping tests your network connection
against other hosts. nslookup enables you to look up name servers and run several
commands when connected in the NSLOOKUP shell, thereby allowing you to configure
and modify a name server.
17. Answer: A. The TV tuner is used to enable the Live TV option in Windows 7 Media
Center. This is usually the toughest part to configure on an HTPC. This is due to cable
company regulations. However, TV tuners are also becoming more popular when used
with over-the-air signals including HD, as long as you are within close proximity to a
metropolitan area. A modem is used to make dial-up connections to the Internet.
Video cards display video signal to a monitor or TV; often, HTPCs will have a video
card with an HDMI output. The network adapter (also known as a network card or
NIC) is used to connect to the LAN.
18. Answers: B and D. The share-level permissions must first be set to enable access to
the user. Then the NTFS file-level “user” permissions must also be set; these take
precedence over share-level, unless the share-level access is set to deny. Certificates
are normally used in Internet or VPN sessions. Local user access is somewhat vague
but doesn’t apply here because when a user connects to a shared resource, that person does so over the network to a remote computer.
19. Answer: A. Use an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to provide clean power and
eliminate the voltage fluctuations—with the stipulation that the printer is not a laser
printer! If it’s a laser printer, connect it to its own line conditioner. That is because of
the load the laser printer puts on the device it plugs into. The question did not specify
that this was a laser printer, and most friends of mine have inkjets. It’s not outside the
realm of possibility, but it will be less likely, and that’s what you have to assume when
taking the exam. As for the incorrect answers: a multimeter is what you would have
used to figure out that the AC outlet was providing dirty power. A surge protector will
not condition the voltage that is coming from the AC outlet; it will only protect against
surges and spikes. A gas generator is a ridiculous option that would actually work in
this scenario. However, it is not wise to keep a gas generator in the house; plus it will
cost the friend more in money and maintenance as compared to a UPS.
20. Answers: A, C, and E. First make sure that the iPad has a connection to the Internet.
Then check that the e-mail settings were entered properly, including port numbers,
server names, username/password, and any security settings. Bluetooth can be off
while e-mail is being used. GPS tracks where a mobile device is located, and it too can
be turned off when accessing e-mail.
21. Answer: C. WPA2 is more secure than all the rest. WAP is actually short for wireless
access point; don’t mix them up! WEP is deprecated and should be avoided unless it
is the only option available. The best wireless encryption method on most SOHO wireless access points is WPA2 with AES.
22. Answer: B. Tell the customer to use a UPS. This will protect against power fluctuations, dirty power, brownouts, and blackouts. The computer will have a power supply
already. A generator is a bit much for the computer in this scenario, but it might be
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necessary for the building. Computers normally connect with an IEC power cable; this
is a heavy-duty electrical cord. If the computer doesn’t have one, you should replace it
immediately.
23. Answers: C and D. Pictures and e-mail are possibly valuable, and definitely irreplaceable, if there is no backup. The rest of the answers mention things that can be
restored or reinstalled from the operating system disc.
24. Answer: D. Use Internal SATA hard drive 3 for the page file. By separating the page file
from the operating system and the user profiles, you will maximize performance of the
system. If the page file was on either of the other SATA drives, the constant accessing
of the page file would slow down the OS performance or would slow down the access
of user files. SATA hard drive 3 is a better option than the external USB hard drive for
a variety of reasons: it will probably be faster; it will have less latency; and in general,
internal drives will perform more efficiently than external drives.
25. Answer: B. Of all the answers, the only one that deals with the local level is Local
Security Settings. All the others require at least one domain controller on the network.
The A+ exam does not test you on your knowledge of domain controllers and their
security policies, but you should know some of the terms in order to compare them to
security options on the local computer. The Local Security Policy can be accessed
from Start > All Programs > Administrative Tools.
26. Answers: A and D. You should try shortening the distance between the laptop and the
printer and make sure that the infrared (IR) ports on each device can see each other.
IR can be difficult to work with due to the short range and need for line of sight. This
is why Bluetooth or other wireless methods are usually preferred. Repeaters are used
in networking as a method of extending a wired or wireless LAN. Most IR devices’
power cannot be boosted. Some IR devices’ transmission frequency can be changed,
but it will be less likely that you will change the channel or boost the power.
27. Answer: B. Because each user on the LAN has his own internal private IP address,
users are safe from external public IPs. Network Address Translation (NAT) translates
all those internal IPs into one external public Internet IP for communication with outside sources. It enables the outside sources to “see” the public IP but not the internal
private IPs.
28. Answer: C. Though USB is famous for recognizing devices and installing drivers automatically, it doesn’t work perfectly all the time. In the instance of barcode readers, you
will often have to download the latest driver from the manufacturer’s website. That is
the best answer, though an OS update might find a compatible driver. With peripherals
such as these, it is all the more important to get the driver from the creator of the
device. If the computer was able to recognize the device, you can rule out faulty USB
cables or too many USB devices being plugged in. Let’s face it—at 127 devices maximum, it’s tough to have too many USB devices!
29. Answer: B. In many cases, passwords cannot be reset by the user or by the systems
admin. If that is the case, you need to verify the identity of the person first. You might
need to do so just as a matter of organizational policy. Telling the person not to do
that or that the person should simply remember the password is just rude. If the password could be reset and you are allowed to do so, it should be reset immediately.
220-802 Practice Exam C
235
30. Answer: C. GPS can help to locate a stolen or lost mobile device. There are plenty of
third-party programs that allow the user to track the device, as long as it is on and has
GPS installed and functioning. If the device is off, the program will display the last
known good location. Passcodes are used to secure the device in the event that it is
stolen or lost. Auto-erase is used to wipe the contents of the device if lost or stolen.
Encryption protects the data in the case that the user no longer has possession of it.
31. Answer: D. Of the listed answers, you should recommend fiber-optic cables. Another
option would be shielded twisted pair (STP). Furthermore, you could rerun the cables
through a metal conduit or reroute the cables around the mechanical room. Chances
are in this scenario that the mechanical room’s contents are causing interference on
the network cables. Electromagnetic interference (EMI) can be prevented with STP or
fiber-optic cables. UTP is unshielded twisted pair, probably what the customer is using
currently as it is the most common. Plenum-rated cable is used in areas where sprinklers cannot get to. It has a coating that makes it burn much more slowly. 568B is the
most common network cabling wiring standard.
32. Answer: B. To aid in preventing access to a wireless network, disable the SSID. But
only do this when all computers have been connected. If more computers need to be
connected later, they will have to connect manually or the SSID will have to be reenabled. While this is an okay security method, it won’t keep smart attackers out of your
network. MAC filtering and WPA2 encryption will do a much better job at that than disabling the SSID.
33. Answers: A and D. Many laptops have a nearly hidden volume knob; you have to
search for it. Proper sound drivers are needed to drive the sound in the system.
Though Windows will attempt to install a Microsoft driver, you should get the sound
driver from the manufacturer’s website. Windows Media is built in to Windows. It will
play most types of music and sounds without an update. If Windows Media Player
doesn’t recognize a file format, it will ask to update itself from the Internet. Whether
the laptop is on battery power does not affect the speakers by default.
34. Answers: A and E. First, remove the computer from the floor. Second, take the computer outside and clean it by removing the biggest dust bunnies (which you will
undoubtedly find), and use compressed air and a vacuum. That should fix the problem
of noise; there was probably a lot of dust and dirt in one or more of the fans. A
clogged CPU fan can also cause the CPU to overheat, resulting in the computer turning itself off. A new hard drive isn’t necessary unless you find that it is malfunctioning.
The power cord most likely isn’t the problem here, but you could always swap it with
another one to be sure. Wiping down the outside of a computer with a cloth won’t do
much to fix the situation, and you wouldn’t wipe down the inside of the computer. On
a slightly different topic, static electricity could be generated when a person touches
the power button of the computer. Combine this with the computer lying on a carpet,
and it could cause the computer to short out and shut down. So, it’s best to keep the
computer off of the floor for a variety of reasons.
35. Answer: C. Some of the letters on the keyboard of a laptop are shared by numbers
(which are only accessible when the Numlock is on). So, not only do you have to
watch out for the Caps Lock when logging on, but also the Numlock. If the keyboard
were bad, you would get no response or only a partial response from it. Keyboards are
automatically recognized by Windows 7/Vista/XP.
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36. Answer: A. If you are just setting the time on the computer, use the time command.
Time can also be set in Windows within the Notification Area. The net time command is needed if you want to synchronize the local computer’s time to another
system or just find out the time on a remote system. net timer is not a valid
command. The net time command uses the /set option if you wish to synchronize time to another computer.
37. Answer: C. If the laptop gets power when plugged in but won’t work when disconnected from AC power, the battery must be dead or defective. A bad transformer
means that the AC adapter would need to be replaced. That and a bad AC port would
cause the laptop to fail when plugged into the AC adapter, but it should work fine on
battery power (until the battery fully discharges, that is). A bad CMOS battery will
cause the time, date, and passwords to be reset in the BIOS.
38. Answer: A. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) command allows you to see which
computers your IP address and corresponding MAC address have connected to
recently. It displays these computers formatted as IP, and MAC address. Arp –a does
exactly this. Those connections listed are considered to be “dynamic” because they
are temporary. In this scenario there was only one computer that the local system has
connected to recently, but it could show more. The command also enables you to
create a permanent or static connection to another system via MAC address and
corresponding IP address. ping tests a connection to another computer’s IP address.
Nbtstat –a, along with a computer name or IP address, will show the NetBIOS
name table for the local machine or for a remote computer. It displays core services
running on a computer such as the workstation and server services. Arp by itself
shows the help file for the command.
39. Answer: D. The Character Map enables you to copy characters from any font type. To
open it in Windows 7 or Vista, go to Start > All Programs > Accessories > System
Tools > Character Map. The Language Bar automatically appears when you use handwriting recognition or speech recognition. It can be configured within Region and
Languages. Sticky keys is a feature that helps users with physical disabilities; it can
be turned on by rapidly pressing the Shift key five times and agreeing Yes. Control
Panel > Fonts opens the Fonts folder where you can add or remove text fonts.
40. Answer: B. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the limitations of an Apple device’s
iOS. It enables a user to gain root access to the system and download previously
unavailable applications, most likely unauthorized by Apple. Rooting is similar; it gives
administrative capabilities to users of Android-based devices. Both of these are not
recommended. VirusBarrier is the first AV software designed for iOS; it was developed
in response to a particularly nasty jailbreak. Super-admin powers is just a colorful
term for what you get when you root or jailbreak a mobile device.
41. Answer: D. The Sync Center is located directly within the Control Panel. It allows you
to set up synchronization partnerships with external devices and enables you to manage offline files. Quite often, the individual icons within the Control Panel are referred
to as applets. Microsoft PowerToys is a group of applications that can be downloaded
from Microsoft as an add-on to Windows XP. Apps include CD Slide Show Generator,
HTML Slide Show Wizard, and the Power Calculator. The command-line–based User
State Migration Tool (USMT) is used to move files and user settings from multiple
computers at once. Robust file copy is a Command Prompt tool (Robocopy) that is
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used to move large amounts of data; it is the successor to Xcopy, though Xcopy is still
available in Windows 7 and older OSes.
42. Answer: A. Unicode is the code used to represent characters among multiple computers’ language platforms. ASCII and EBCDIC are different types of character encoding
sets in the English language only. ITU-T deals with standards for telecommunications.
43. Answer: B. ipconfig is the ultimate command to quickly display the network
configuration information. For in-depth analysis, use ipconfig /all. tracert
displays the route from the local computer to a remote destination. netdiag is an
older command used in Windows XP (and earlier OSes) that helps to isolate networking and connectivity problems. pathping is a limited version of tracert.
44. Answer: A. If the transfer corona wire is not getting power, the paper will not get the
positive voltage needed to attract the toner and the pages will come out of the printer
with nothing on them. If the primary corona wire is dirty, you might see lines or
smearing in the text. This could indicate that the toner cartridge needs to be replaced.
If the printer is not plugged into the USB port, it shouldn’t output any pages because
the print job will never reach the printer. A message should display on the Windows
screen concerning this as well.
45. Answer: B. New malicious software (malware) is always being created. Because of
this, the best place to find information about spyware, a virus, or other malware is at
a place that can be updated often and easily: the anti-malware company’s website.
Operating system documentation will usually not have this kind of information. In
addition, the OS documents and the anti-spyware readme.txt file will be outdated soon
after they are written. Never trust in what a user has to say about malware. The user is
not the person who would remove it—a technician would.
46. Answer: D. The network interface card (NIC) must be faulty if everything else checks
out. Be careful not to confuse duplex printing (printing on both sides of the paper)
with full-duplex networking (transmission of data in both directions simultaneously).
If the printer’s memory was full, it could cause the printer to stop printing, but the
scenario tells us that you can’t ping the printer’s IP address, which is a telling sign.
It’s possible that a printer could need a new maintenance kit, but it would stop printing
only if something failed, at which point the printer needs more than maintenance—it
needs repair.
47. Answer: D. Because it happens often, you should school the user on safer web browsing habits such as being very careful when clicking on links brought up by search
engines, not clicking on pop-up windows, and being conservative about the websites
that are accessed. Also, the browser can be updated, add-ons can be installed to a
web browser for increased protection, phishing filters can be enabled, and so on.
Deleting temporary files won’t stop the user from visiting the same websites that
probably caused the problem in the first place. Defragmenting the hard drive will help
the drive and the OS to perform better but won’t help in the malware department. The
computer should have an antivirus solution or, better yet, an anti-malware solution,
but it should be set to update automatically every day.
48. Answer: D. Connections can be made by sending Remote Assistance invitations by
e-mail (Outlook) or via instant messaging (Windows Messenger also known simply as
Messenger). These invitations could be to ask for help or to offer help. This is often
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implemented in help desk scenarios in which a user invites a technician to take control
of his computer so that it can be repaired. It’s effectively a virtual service call. The
technician doesn’t need to come physically to the user’s desk, but instead connects
remotely. However, you can also take control of a computer without an invitation (and
if you are an administrator or a user with permissions); this can be done only if the
computer to be controlled has the Remote Desktop feature turned on. Virtual network
computing (VNC) is very similar to Remote Desktop; it enables control of a computer
remotely. There are several third-party VNC companies that offer free software.
Microsoft doesn’t refer to its software as VNC though. On the server side Microsoft
also refers to Remote Desktop as Terminal Services. Collectively the client software
is also referred to as Microsoft Terminal Services Client (MSTSC). Mstsc.exe is the
executable.
49. Answer: D. The default folder location for Windows 7 system files is C:\Windows\
System32. That is, if the C: is the drive being installed to. You might also see this
referred to as X:\%windir%\System32 or simply \%windir%\System32. The X: is a
variable meaning whichever drive is installed to. %windir% is a variable referring to
the name of the main installation folder (usually Windows). %windir% is also
expressed sometimes as %systemroot%. Windows Vista and XP also use this folder
for system files. C:\Windows is the systemroot, where the OS is installed to (though it
will also inhabit subfolders). C:\Windows\System32\Config is where the registry hives
are stored. There is no C:\System Files folder, unless you were to create it yourself.
50. Answer: B. You would use the Android Cloud backup solution so that files can be
backed up to a location outside the company. There are several other third-party solutions available as well. iCloud is the Apple solution for file backup, apps, and so on.
The Microsoft Cloud has the same types of features in a variety of solutions. A company-based local network-attached storage (NAS) device would go against what you
have been asked to do in the scenario. If the NAS was on the Internet or part of a
cloud, that would be a different story.
51. Answer: C. Use Notepad. It is a text-based editor that applies virtually no formatting.
Text and other information can be copied from a web page, pasted to a Notepad document, and then copied again and pasted into Word; all formatting will have been
removed. Notepad is also a great tool for web developers (using HTML) and system
administrators (when creating batch files and other configuration files). CMD, or more
specifically cmd.exe, is the executable that opens the Microsoft Command Prompt.
Excel is a program by Microsoft that enables you to create and modify spreadsheets.
The MMC is the Microsoft Management Console. This is a utility in Windows that
enables you to work with several console windows within the same program; it saves
the last place you were working.
52. Answer: D. The printing subsystem is most likely failing for one of a variety of reasons. The first solution is to end the spoolsv.exe service in the Task Manger or in the
Command Prompt with the taskkill command. Then restart the computer. If that
doesn’t work, the system may have to be repaired, restored, or modified in the registry
(which could be an in-depth process). It is also possible that a virus has compromised
the system. There are viruses that are also called spoolsv.exe; a quick sweep of the
system folders with AV software should uncover this…hopefully. If the Windows
update was running, it should not take up that many resources—not nearly so. Also,
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the executable for that is wuauclt.exe. Hyperthreading can be disabled in the BIOS
on some systems. This should have no effect on the ability of the system to multitask,
though, and multiple processes should be able to run simultaneously without a
problem.
53. Answer: B. IMAP is the Internet Message Access Protocol, which allows an e-mail
client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. Generally the e-mail client software
will leave the messages on the server until the user specifically deletes them. So, the
user can selectively download messages. This allows multiple users to manage the
same mailbox. Real-time messaging can be accomplished by using instant messaging
and chat programs. IMAP, like POP3, allows users to download or receive messages,
but it does not send messages; a protocol such as SMTP would be used to send mail.
IMAP, like POP3, authenticates the user, but again not for sending e-mail—just when
receiving e-mail.
54. Answer: A. The wrinkled pages are the number one indicator that the fuser needs to
be replaced. Random patterns of missing print further indicate that the fuser is not
working properly. If you note toner not being fused to the paper, then that is the last
clue. The fuser usually needs to be replaced every 200,000 pages or so on a laser
printer. If the toner cartridge was defective, either you would get blank printouts or
there would be lines or smears, but there wouldn’t be any page wrinkles. If the transfer corona wire is defective, it might result in blank paper. Damage to the primary
corona wire can also result in black lines or smearing. High humidity could cause the
separation pads or rollers to fail.
55. Answer: C. Libraries are commonly known as metafolders; they are logical representations of a user’s content. For example, one library in Windows 7 is called Documents.
The Documents library includes two default locations: My Documents and Public
Documents.
56. Answer: A. Use the Device manager to disable a component in Windows, regardless
of whether it is a laptop or a PC. Use the Task Manager to analyze basic system performance and stop processes. Use Computer (My Computer in Windows XP) to view
folders, files, and other computers. Use the Services console (services.msc) to stop
and start and enable/disable services.
57. Answer: D. A chassis intrusion means that the computer case has been opened. Some
BIOS programs have the capability to detect this. This is a security feature that
informs the user of a possible breach. As a PC technician, you should check the computer inside and out for any possible tampering. The BIOS program will not detect if
the CD-ROM drive is open. If the CPU was loose, the computer would not boot and
there would be nothing to display. It is possible that a malicious individual has hacked,
or attempted to hack, the system. However, this is not necessarily the case, although
you should check just to make sure.
58. Answer: B. The most likely reason the computer won’t boot and presents the no OS
error is that the removable drive is not locked. Removable drives are common in
schools and labs. A frame is installed to a 5 1/4" bay and connected to the motherboard via SATA or IDE the way a hard drive normally would be. Then, swappable trays
are inserted into the frame, each with a different hard drive and a different OS. When
the drive tray is inserted into the frame, it must be locked; it is common to forget to
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lock one or two. If it isn’t locked, the data port will not connect properly and the OS
will not boot. If you get a message on the screen, then you know the monitor is working. No operating system or missing OS messages happen before the computer can
connect to the network, so have no fear—the lab network is probably not down. If the
memory needed to be reseated, you would get a message in the POST or a series of
beeps.
59. Answer: A. ping –t is a continuous ping. It will ping the web server with ICMP echo
packets until you manually stop the operation. You can stop the operation by pressing
Ctrl+C on the keyboard. When you do so, an average of the ping results will be displayed, as well as the total packets that were sent, received, and lost. ipconfig
/all displays the configuration of your network adapter. nslookup enables you to
find out a domain’s corresponding IP address, as well as carry out other name server
configurations. ping –l is a four-packet ping, but the –l parameter enables you to
modify the size of the packet being sent.
60. Answers: A and C. If you can’t shut down the application in the Running Services
area, then try initiating a soft reset first. On an Android device this is simply pressing
and holding the power button, shutting it down, and then restarting it after a few seconds. If, however, pressing the power button doesn’t do anything, remove the battery
so that the device will have its power supply cut. Replace the battery and reboot the
phone! Don’t do a hard reset unless it is absolutely necessary. On an Android-based
device, this will clear it and return it to factory condition. Removing the memory card
in of itself won’t fix the problem, but seeing as how many devices store the memory
card under the battery, this could indirectly fix the problem.
61. Answer: A. The sigverif.exe tool can be used to check for unsigned drivers within your
operating system. Unsigned drivers are drivers that have not been verified by
Microsoft. If you receive error messages and are troubleshooting, run this command
from the Run prompt. When the check is finished, unsigned drivers will be displayed.
This list is also stored in a file called sigverif.txt within the %systemroot%. dxdiag is
short for DirectX diagnostics. It is used to test the functionality of audio and video
devices. ping is used to test whether or not another host is on the network. Msconfig
(the Microsoft System Configuration Utility) is a tool used to troubleshoot the startup
process of Windows.
62. Answer: D. User Account Control (UAC) is the portion of Windows that asks for confirmation of administrative rights before allowing a user to make system changes or
run certain applications. It can be disabled within the User Accounts applet within the
Control Panel by clicking the Change User Account Control Settings link. But beware;
only users that have administrative rights should even be permitted to turn this off.
63. Answer: C. If a “print sub-system not available” message or similar message appears,
it most likely means the spooler has stalled. This can be turned back on within the
Services section of Computer Management or by issuing the command net start
spooler in the Command Prompt. If the wrong printer driver was installed, either the
user would get a message stating that the printer is not available or the document
would print but the information would be garbled. If the printer has not been added,
the user would not be able to print any documents to any printers, and therefore
should not get an error message. If the printer is not getting power, the user would
most likely get a message stating that the printer is not available.
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64. Answers: D and E. On older IDE connections you need to make sure that the data
cable is oriented properly on each drive and the motherboard (or controller card).
Also, make sure that the drives are jumpered correctly. The main drive with the OS
should be set to master; the other drive (which probably contains data) should be set
to slave. If either of these is incorrect, the hard drive LED could stay on constantly
indicating a problem. If the LED light is on, you know that the drive is getting power,
so nothing in the power subsystem should be troubleshot. Older BIOS systems
allowed you to modify master and slave settings, but newer systems rely on the
jumper settings; still newer systems rely on newer technologies such as SATA!
65. Answer: B. Boot Logging can be enabled from the Windows Advanced Boot Options
Menu (ABOM); it is generally the fourth option. Once this is enabled, the system will
automatically create a file called ntbtlog.txt. Afterwards, you can access the system by
booting into Safe Mode, once again from the ABOM. Sigverif is a program that can be
run in Windows that verifies whether drivers have been signed by Microsoft. Disabling
Driver Signature Enforcement is another ABOM option; you might use this to help fix
the issue, but not to diagnose the problem. Debugging Mode is another ABOM option,
but in this scenario you don’t necessarily need to debug the system, but rather repair
the individual driver that failed to load up.
66. Answer: D. Chkdsk /F allows you to fix errors on a disk. It does not fix all errors,
but checks for disk integrity, bad sectors, and similar issues. Xcopy copies files and
directory trees; Microsoft recommends using Robocopy on newer Windows operating systems. Tracert /w analyzes the path to another computer with a specific
timeout per reply. Diskpart is the command-line tool that enables you to make
changes to the operating system’s partition table.
67. Answer: C. The application log is the location for all events concerning Windows
applications and third-party programs. The system log contains information about
drivers, system files, and stop errors, but not application crashes. The security log
contains information regarding auditing events. The setup log stores information of
events that occurred during the installation of Windows.
68. Answer: C. Windows 7 Ultimate can run in Windows XP mode, join domains, and utilize BitLocker encryption. Starter and Home Premium can do none of these. Windows
7 Professional cannot utilize BitLocker encryption. On a side note, Windows 7
Enterprise can also run BitLocker, although it was not one of the listed answers.
69. Answer: C. Windows Vista Ultimate 32-bit can only be upgraded to Windows 7
Ultimate 32-bit. It cannot be upgraded to any other version of Windows 7. As a rule,
32-bit versions of Windows cannot be directly upgraded to 64-bit versions of
Windows.
70. Answer: A. Use Xcopy. This is designed to copy entire folders (and all of their subfolders) to a new location. Another option is Robocopy, the successor to Xcopy.
Edit is a program in the Command Prompt that allows you to create and modify text
files; not all versions of Windows offer this—for example, Windows 7 Ultimate 64-bit.
Copy is the original command for copying data from one location to another, but it
is not as well-suited to copying large amounts of data as Xcopy or Robocopy are.
The move command does just that; it is the equivalent of the cut in cut-and-paste
operations.
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71. Answer: C. Msconfig is the only option listed where you can disable services. The
key in the question is the phrase “bring up a window”. Msconfig runs in a Window,
whereas the rest of the answers run as text in the command-line. Msconfig can also
be used to modify how the system boots and to enable/disable applications. SFC is
the System File Checker; it scans the integrity of protected system files and repairs
problems if necessary, and if possible. Contrast this with Chkdsk, which can locate
and repair errors on the disk, but not within system files. GPupdate can update user
and computer policy settings on the local computer or on remote computers.
72. Answer: B. Although Windows Vista 32-bit can technically address 4 GB of RAM,
Windows Vista 32-bit (and Windows XP 32-bit) systems and applications can only
use 3.12 GB of RAM. That is because these operating systems reserve the remainder
for devices in what is known as memory-mapped I/O (MMIO).
73. Answer: A. The most important factor is the size of the hard drive. This is because the
offline files are stored locally. Optical discs are not necessary for offline files to be
used. Though the computer is on the network, the network doesn’t really play into the
offline files on the local computer. Yes, the computer will synchronize files and needs
to have proper access to the network and the file server when it does so. But when
using offline files, it is all done locally. So the proximity to the server and the type of
OS on the file server isn’t as important. As long as the client computer can use offline
files (7/Vista/XP), it should be able to sync them up with any Windows Server.
74. Answer: B. Autochk.exe is an executable (and system process) that checks the integrity of an NTFS volume in Windows. It enables a Windows operating system to revert
core system settings to their original state. Autochk is similar to chkdsk but autochk
runs during system bootup (after a cold boot), whereas chkdsk will run in the command-line or in the Recovery Console. Autochk cannot run within the command-line.
Autochk will be initiated if: 1. Chkdsk cannot gain exclusive access to the volume, 2. If
you try to run chkdsk on the boot volume, and 3. If the volume to be checked is
“dirty”. For example, if a system hangs, and has open files, those files are considered
to be dirty, and therefore the volume that houses them is also dirty, and is checked by
autochk after a hard reset otherwise known as a cold boot. NetBEUI is a network protocol used by older, deprecated versions of Microsoft operating systems such as
Windows 95/98, and Windows NT. It stands for NetBIOS Extended User Interface. It
uses computer names to identify other computers on the network, does not use IP
addresses, and therefore is not routable to other networks. This protocol is outdated
and is not often found in networks. The convert command is used to change a FAT
partition to NTFS without loss of data. Regedit.exe is the executable in Windows that
opens the Registry Editor.
75. Answer: A. The \Boot folder can be located in a hidden partition (100 MB in size), by
default, which is separate from the C drive. The Windows folder is where the operating
system is installed to; it is also known by the variable %systemroot% or %WINDIR%
and is located in the C: drive by default. \Documents and Settings is also located in C:
by default. Bootmgr is the Windows Boot Manager, which is the Windows loader program; it is a file, not a folder.
76. Answer: D. Tell the customer to use the onboard ports. This means the ports that are
integrated directly to the motherboard on the back of the computer. It’s a quick temporary fix but should work because they are hardwired to the board. The front USB plugs
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are part of the computer case; they probably were never connected to the motherboard properly. Now, you should also check if the USB scanner needs to be plugged
into an AC outlet. If the back USB ports don’t work, then you could try a different USB
cable. Software shouldn’t affect the USB device getting power. If it has a proper USB
connection, it should power up. But, after that, if Windows doesn’t recognize it, try
updating drivers and Windows.
77. Answer: A. The best solution is to upgrade the wireless network from WEP to WPA2,
or at least WPA. WEP is a deprecated wireless encryption protocol and should be
updated to a newer and more powerful protocol if at all possible. If this is not possible, it would be wise to use a strong WEP key and modify it often. MAC address filtering will not increase the level of data encryption, but it will filter out unwanted computers when they attempt to connect to the wireless access point. Disabling the SSID
broadcast will deter new computers from making initial connections to the wireless
access point.
78. Answer: B. Stop errors are also known as blue screens (BSODs). They are a complete
system failure that cannot be recovered from and the system has to be rebooted. Dr.
Watson errors (common to Windows XP) occur while the OS is running. They are due
to an application or system file failing but do not cause the entire system to crash.
79. Answer: D. Today’s video cards can be very powerful and might require a more
powerful power supply than is in the computer currently. Video cards need to be
compatible with the motherboard, not necessarily with the CPU. If the monitor could
not display the higher resolution, the operating system would still boot but you would
probably see garbled information on the screen. Because a video card comes with its
own RAM, the computer’s RAM usually does not need to be upgraded.
80. Answer: B. Use the printer’s built-in clean option. This might be accessible from the
display on the printer or from within the printer’s software in Windows. Cleaning the
cartridges is necessary every once in a while so they don’t get clogged. If the clean
option doesn’t work, you can try physically removing the cartridge, sparingly using a
solution of 50% water/50% isopropyl alcohol, and cleaning the cartridge nozzle with a
Q-Tip. Streaks on documents are not caused by faulty data cables or bad drivers. A
faulty data cable would probably cause complete print failure; bad drivers would cause
the printer to print garbled text. Printing a test page will result in the same document
streaks.
81. Answer: B. dir /a can be used to display hidden files. Specifically, dir /ah can
be used to show hidden files only. dir /o deals with various sort orders of files—
for example, alphabetical. dir /d sorts files by column in wide format. dir /?
displays the help file for the dir command.
82. Answer: A. Try accessing Safe Mode first and see if the problem continues. It probably won’t, and you will need to roll back the driver and locate, download, and install
the correct one. Remember to get your drivers from the manufacturer’s website, and
don’t forget to download the correct driver for your particular operating system.
Chkdsk will check the integrity of files and fix them if necessary. Msconfig is used to
boot the computer in different ways. While you normally could select Safe Boot in
Msconfig, it is not possible in this scenario because the system won’t boot into
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Windows properly. You could check the System log while in Safe Mode, but it won’t
explain much except that the system shut down improperly and rebooted continuously.
83. Answer: D. If a computer starts receiving pop-up advertisements after an application
has been installed, the application probably included adware. While pop-up ads are not
necessarily harmful to a computer, the other answers (including Trojan horse, worms,
and logic bombs) will usually be more serious and affect the computer adversely.
84. Answers: B, D, and F. First off, you should configure some kind of remote backup.
This way, if the device is compromised, you have the confidential data backed up outside of the device at another location. The other half of this solution (not mentioned in
the answers) is remote wipe. Once you are positive that the device is stolen or lost,
and you know the data was backed up at some point, trigger a remote wipe to remove
all data from the device. Second, Enable GPS on the device so that it can be tracked if
it is lost or stolen. Third, configure a screenlock of some sort, be it a pattern that is
drawn on the display, a PIN, or a password. A strong password is usually the best
form of screenlock and will be the hardest to crack. It doesn’t make a difference how
Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are configured. They won’t help to protect confidential data.
85. Answer: C. PXE and WOL. To configure the BIOS to boot off of the network, you will
have to enable the Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) network adapter. To allow the
computer to be brought out of sleep mode by another system on the network, you will
need to configure Wake-on-LAN (WOL) in the BIOS. WAP stands for wireless access
point; WPA2 is the Wi-Fi Protected Access version 2 encryption used on a WAP. RIS is
Remote Installation Services and is used on Windows Server 2003 to deploy installations of Windows to remote computers. A Magic Packet is a special packet sent to a
computer to wake it up, but it is configured in Windows. Norton Ghost is used to create or install images of operating systems. Unattend.xml is the answer file created for
unattended installations of Windows over the network.
86. Answer: D. Most likely User B moved the file to another location outside of the current
partition, made the changes (which is possible since User B is the one who moved it),
and then moved it back to the original location. Whenever a file is moved to another
partition or volume, the file takes on the permissions of the parent folder. However, if
the file had been moved within the volume, the permissions would have been retained.
Tricky. Remember this: If the file is moved within the same volume, it retains permissions, so the permissions don’t change. But, if a file is moved to another volume, it
takes on the permissions of the folder it is moved into. As for copying, the file’s copy
always takes on the permissions of the parent regardless of where that copy is placed.
On to the incorrect answers: If NTFS permissions were changed to allow execute, then
User A should have been able to open the file. If the file was set with the hidden attribute, then User A should not have been able to see the file. Accounts Receivable might
or might not set a file to read-only. However, User A should still be able to open the
file, but in read-only mode.
87. Answer: C. Check the functionality of the LCD cutoff switch first before opening the
laptop and replacing parts. The LCD cutoff switch turns off the monitor when the laptop is closed; these are prone to failure. Although the LCD panel and inverter could
possibly fail, it is less common, and because they require a lot of time and effort to
replace, they should be checked afterwards. Generally, a laptop’s video card is the
least common component to fail, although it can be replaced on some laptops.
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88. Answer: B. You should bring a PATA (IDE) drive. Chances are this older computer currently is using an IDE drive and only has connections for IDE. Indicators include the
age of the computer and the capacity of the drive. If you brought a SATA drive, you
would have nothing to plug it into, unless you also brought a SATA controller card, but
that would be an extra expense for the customer. You can’t even be sure that the computer will have USB ports, and if it does, they would probably be very slow version 1
USB ports—not quite feasible for a hard drive. Solid-state drives are typically SATA
and are out of the question.
89. Answer: B. Chkntfs can check to see if a previous system shutdown completed successfully. Generally, you would check this on the system drive (for example, C:). If the
drive is okay and the system did complete the shut down successfully, you’ll get a
message such as “C: is not dirty.” Otherwise, you will get a message telling of the
error. Chkdsk checks the integrity of the disk. Ipconfig displays the configuration
of your network adapters. SFC scans the integrity of all protected system files and can
replace them with the correct versions if necessary.
90. Answer: D. Authentication is when a person’s identity is confirmed or verified through
the use of a specific system. Authorization to specific resources cannot be accomplished without previous authentication. Identification is when a person is in a state of
being identified. Identity proofing is an initial validation of an identity.
91. Answers: C and E. The printer could simply be out of paper. Or, the spooler could be
malfunctioning. If the printer is out of paper, fill all trays and suggest that the user
check the trays every couple days or so. If the spooler is not functioning, you should
restart the spooler service in the Services console window or in the Command Prompt
with the net stop spooler and net start spooler commands. If the printer was low on toner, you would get weak print or completely blank pages. If the network cable was unplugged, you wouldn’t be able to ping the printer. Printers don’t
always use gateway addresses, but if this one did, it wouldn’t affect your ability to
connect to it (as long as it was on the LAN). The gateway address is used so that the
printer can communicate with computers beyond the LAN.
92. Answer: B and D. By using WPA2 (the strongest type of encryption on most wireless
access points), you ensure a high level of encryption, helping to reduce unauthorized
access. Using MAC filtering will filter out unwanted computers by checking their MAC
addresses when the computers first try to connect. Additional wireless access points
and signal boosters would increase the chances of unauthorized access. Broadcasting
the SSID also increases the chance of unauthorized access because any wireless
device will see the name of your network. When all wireless devices have made their
initial connections to the wireless access point, consider disabling the SSID broadcast.
93. Answer: A. Most likely the access points are out of range. 802.11n indoor range is
70 meters (230 ft.), and outdoor range is 250 meters (820 ft.). If Ray is outside this
range, the computer will not be able to see any access points in the wireless configuration manager. It is unlikely that no 802.11n access points are available. If Ray
installed an 802.11n wireless network adapter, then he must know that there is an
802.11n WAP around. It’s a possibility that none exist, but that’s remote. Even if
802.11n wasn’t supported, an 802.11n network adapter can downgrade to 802.11g
or even 802.11b, so it should still be able to connect. Regardless, he should still be
246
Chapter 9
able to see other slower wireless access points in the wireless configuration manager.
Finally, if there were access points, but they couldn’t accept any more connections,
he would again at least see them in the wireless configuration manager program. That
answer doesn’t explain why he can’t see them.
94. Answer: A. The Windows 7 PowerShell enables administrators to perform administrative tasks that integrate scripts and executables and can be run over a network. It is a
combination of the Command Prompt and a scripting language. The PowerShell is the
successor to the Windows Script Host (WSH). The Command Prompt is Windows’
version of a command-line. It is not as functional as the PowerShell.
95. Answer: C. The User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a command-line tool that can be
used to migrate user files and settings for one or more computers in Windows 7 as
well as Windows Vista. Windows 7 employs additional features such as AES encryption support and shadow copying of volumes of information. The Files and Settings
Transfer Wizard is an older version of Windows Easy Transfer that is used with
Windows XP and other older operating systems. Windows Easy Transfer enables you
to copy files, photos, music, and settings, but not for multiple computers.
96. Answer: A. The Task Manager can end (or “kill”) a running process. It is also used to
end applications that lock up and it analyzes the performance of the system. Computer
Management is the main configuration console window; it contains the Device
Manager, Event Viewer, and Services among other things. The Control Panel lists all of
the configuration applets available in Windows such as Power Options, User Accounts,
and Windows Defender. tasklist is a command in Windows that displays a list of
the processes that are running. To kill a process in the Command Prompt, first find
out the name of the process and/or process ID (PID) with tasklist, and then use
the taskkill command to end the process.
97. Answer: B. FAT64 (also known as exFAT) is suited specifically for USB flash drives and
many other mobile storage solutions. It is the successor to FAT32 and can format
media that is larger than 32 GB with a single partition. Older file systems such as
FAT32 and FAT16 are very limited as to the partition size. NTFS can be a good solution
for USB flash drives, but exFAT was developed specifically for USB flash drives and is
the better solution if you have an operating system that will support it, such as
Windows 7, Windows Server 2008, and Windows Vista with SP1.
98. Answer: D. The most likely answer is that the antenna leads were not connected, or
not connected securely. Wireless network adapters for laptops have antennae that are
removable. This way the antennae don’t get damaged in transit, which is common for
laptops and which is why it is common for the antenna to be forgotten. The laptop
wireless network adapter isn’t a card like in a PC. It could connect to USB or to a PC
Card or ExpressCard slot. It is less likely that the card was not inserted properly; plus,
if it was not connected properly, you would wonder why Windows failed to find it
automatically. If Windows doesn’t install it automatically, it would ask for a driver. So,
unless you disregard that message (or install the wrong driver), the drivers shouldn’t
be an issue. It is rare that no wireless signals are available. It is always more likely that
something was not installed properly at the local computer.
220-802 Practice Exam C
247
99. Answer: A. Spyware is a type of malicious software that is usually downloaded unwittingly by a user or is installed by third-party software. It collects information about the
user and the user’s computer without the user’s consent. A virus is code that runs on
the computer without the user’s knowledge; it infects a computer when the code is
accessed and executed. A rootkit is software designed to gain administrator-level control over a computer system without being detected. Spam is the abuse of electronic
messaging systems such as e-mail.
100. Answers: B, D, and G. You can stop a service in a variety of ways. The easiest and
most common is to go to the Services console window. This can be done by typing
services.msc at the Run prompt. You can also stop services in the Task Manager by
accessing the Services tab and right-clicking the service in question. But in the Task
Manager you have to know the executable name of the service. The name of the
Windows Firewall service is mpssvc. So, the third way (of the listed answers) is to use
the net stop mpssvc command in the Command Prompt. Performance Monitor,
System Information, and GPedit do not allow you to stop services.
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10
CHAPTER TEN
220-802 Practice
Exam D
Ready for a hundred more? This final practice exam will be
similar to Exam C in difficulty. But just for the heck of it, I
might throw in a few extra doozies. Be ready for questions
with longer, more in-depth scenarios and more complex
answers. This exam is freestyle, meaning the questions are
randomized. You can expect questions from any of the four
domains, in any order. In this exam I assume that you have a
fair understanding of acronyms and basic concepts and do not
explain those within the explanations.
If you didn’t already, I once again suggest taking a break
between exams. If you just completed the third exam, give
yourself a full hour at least before you begin this one. If you
didn’t score 90% or higher on exam C, go back and study; then
retake exam C until you pass with 90% or higher.
Write down your answers and check them against the answer
key, which immediately follows the exam. After the answer key
you will find the explanations for all of the answers. Good
luck!
250
Chapter 10
✓
Quick Check
Practice Questions
1. Which type of hypervisor runs operating systems on bare metal?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Type 1
Virtual PC
Windows XP Mode
WWAN
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 279
WiMAX
VPN
WLAN
3. Which of the following will occur if %temp% is executed from
Run?
❍
Detailed Answer: 279
Type 2
2. Which of the following relies on PPTP to create a secure tunnel?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 279
A. Applications located in the %temp% folder will be
executed.
❍ B. The operating system’s temporary folder will be open.
❍ C. The current user temporary folder will be open.
❍ D. Applications will be deleted in the %temp% folder.
4. A customer has a home office. Which of the following technologies would benefit from the use of QoS?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 279
SSID
Instant messaging
E-mail
VoIP
5. Which type of device uses an MOV to protect equipment?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Power strip
Power supply
Surge suppressor
Multimeter
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 279
220-802 Practice Exam D
251
✓
Quick Check
6. Ray used file properties to hide files in his folder and now needs
to get the files back. Using a command-line tool, which of the following combination of parameters will make the files viewable
once again?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 279
Attrib – RV *.*
Attrib – A+H *.*
Attrib + A+ *.*
Attrib –H *.*
7. Which group is best to assign to a home user to prevent software
installation?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 279
A. Administrators
B. Power users
C. Remote Desktop users
❍ D. Users
8. Which of the following is the best solution for repairing a hard
drive when a computer displays an “NTLDR is missing error”
upon booting?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Recovery Console with the fixboot command
Recovery Console with the chkdsk command
Recovery Console with the bootcfg /rebuild
command
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 280
Chkdsk C: /R
Chkdsk C: /F
Chkdsk C: /C
Chkdsk C: /I
10. Where can a user’s Desktop folder be found in Windows Vista by
default?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 280
Recovery Console with the fixmbr command
9. A Windows PC is not booting correctly. You need to locate bad
sectors and recover information. Which command is best?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
C:\Users\%username%\desktop
C:\Documents and Settings\%username%\desktop
C:\System Volume Information\%username%\desktop
C:\Users\System32\%username%\desktop
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 280
252
Chapter 10
✓
Quick Check
11. You are called to an office that had a gigabit Ethernet LAN
installed six months ago. Everything was fine until a week ago. A
few customers at the office report that the speed of the Internet
has drastically decreased since a recent network hardware refresh
by another technician. What could be attributed to the problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
The firewall was not turned back on.
The switches are configured for 100 Mbps.
The cellular repeater installed is interfering with the
network speed.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 280
Install the latest WAP firmware
Install the latest wireless network adapter drivers
Install the latest WAP drivers
Install the latest wireless network adapter firmware
13. A user who is part of a workgroup reports that she cannot print to
a new printer. Everyone else in the workgroup can print to the new
printer, and the user can still automatically send print jobs to the
old printer. Which of the following can fix the problem for the
user? (Select the two best answers.)
❍
Detailed Answer: 280
The DHCP server is not working correctly.
12. A technician is setting up a SOHO and has configured the wireless
network adapter on a laptop with WPA2. While the technician configures the WAP, he notices that WPA2 is not listed as an option.
What should the technician do next?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 280
A. Add the new printer to the user’s computer
❍ B. Clear the print queue on the new printer
❍ C. Change the user’s password and permissions
❍ D. Set the new printer as the default printer
14. You plug in an external hard drive. A message appears in
Windows that says the device can perform faster. What could
cause this message?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
The computer has USB 3.0 ports.
The external hard drive is using USB 2.0.
The computer has USB 2.0 ports.
The external hard drive is using FireWire.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 281
220-802 Practice Exam D
253
✓
Quick Check
15. Your customer tells you that when trying to synchronize a smartphone via Bluetooth to Windows, a “no Bluetooth device” error
message appears on the smartphone. The computer has a
Bluetooth card installed. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 281
The 802.11 card is disabled.
A BIOS setting is incorrect.
The hard drive is faulty.
A microwave is interfering with the signal.
16. Your organization has an Active Directory domain. One of the
users, Bill, should not have read access to a folder named
Accounting. The Accounting folder is shared on a network server,
on a partition formatted as NTFS. How can you stop Bill from having read access to the folder without impacting any other users on
the network?
❍
A. Remove Bill from all domain groups that have access
to the Accounting folder
❍
B. Deny read access to the Accounting folder for Bill
through local access security
❍
C. Deny read access to the Accounting folder for any
group that Bill is a member of
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 281
❍ D. Deny read access to the Accounting folder for Bill
through shared access security
17. What are three possible reasons that a laptop’s keyboard would
stop functioning? (Select the three best answers.)
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 281
❍ A. Stuck keys
❍ B. Bad inverter
❍ C. Loose connection
❍ D. Faulty touchpad
❍ E. Warped keyboard
❍ F. Discharged battery
18. A customer tells you that her computer is taking a long time to
save large files. She is currently using an IDE hard drive formatted
with NTFS. What would improve the performance of the system?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Reformat the drive with FAT32
Install a PATA drive and format it as FAT32
Install a SATA drive and format it as NTFS
Install a PATA drive and format it as NTFS
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 281
254
Chapter 10
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Quick Check
19. Examine the following figure. Then answer the question that
follows.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 281
Which portion of Computer Management is being displayed in the
figure?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Event Viewer
Disk Management
Disk Administrator
DiskPart
20. Which of the following is the correct path if you wanted to disable
a service in Windows 7?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 282
Msconfig > Settings > Services
System Settings > Tools > Services
Control Panel > Services
Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Services
21. What should you do first before removing a paper jam?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Turn the printer off
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 282
Open all the doors in the printer
Clear the print queue
Take the printer offline
22. Which of the following programs in Windows 7 saves problem
descriptions and solutions?
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 282
220-802 Practice Exam D
255
✓
Quick Check
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Dr. Watson
Problem Reports and Solutions
Action Center
Performance Monitor
23. A PC’s monitor has no display after a power failure. The LED light
on the monitor is on. What should be done first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Power cycle the peripherals
Power cycle the UPS
Power cycle the breaker switches
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 282
Check for system security patches
Perform an antivirus program scan
Boot the PC into Safe Mode
Remove the PC from the network
25. What are things you should check when a laptop fails to turn on?
(Select the four best answers.)
❍
❍
❍
Detailed Answer: 282
Power cycle the PC
24. A co-worker tells you that a work PC has become infected with a
virus. What should you do first?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 282
A. Power LED
B. Sound port
C. AC adapter
❍ D. Inverter
❍ E. Hibernate mode
❍ F. Function key
❍ G. Power button
26. A customer reports to you that a newly issued smartcard does
not work in a laptop. You try your smartcard in the laptop, and
it works without any problems. What will most likely fix the
problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Perform a BIOS flash
Reinstall the OS
Upgrade the smartcard reader firmware
Replace the smartcard reader
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 282
256
Chapter 10
✓
Quick Check
27. A Windows 7 computer has an Experience Index of 3.8. The
technician discovers that the computer has the following:
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 283
Performance index RAM1GB4.6Video3D3.8CPU2,4GHz4.2.
The technician upgrades the memory to 2 GB and gets the
following results:
Performance index RAM2GB5.0Video3D3.8CPU2,4GHz4.2.
But the Windows Experience Index is still at 3.8. Which of the following can the technician do to improve the performance index?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Double the RAM again
Upgrade the CPU to 3 GHz
Increase the resolution on the screen
Upgrade the video card
28. Which of the following commands enables you to copy a file
without prompts?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 283
Copy /Z
Xcopy
Copy /Y
Copy /A
29. Which of the following is the best Windows 7 utility to back up
important system files without requiring external storage?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 283
A. NTbackup
B. Task Manger
❍ C. System Protection
❍ D. Xcopy
30. Examine the following Windows 7 figure. Then answer the
question that follows.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 283
220-802 Practice Exam D
257
✓
Quick Check
Which window are we looking at, and what is highlighted?
❍
❍
A. WinMSD—I/O setting of IEEE 1394 controller
B. System Information—I/O setting of IEEE 1394
controller
❍ C. Device Manager—I/O setting of IEEE 1394 controller
❍ D. System Properties—I/O setting of IEEE 1394 controller
31. A computer just had a memory upgrade installed. Upon booting
the computer, it does not recognize the new memory, even though
it is listed as being compatible on the manufacturer’s website.
What should you do to resolve the issue?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 283
BIOS update
Adjust jumper settings
OS Update
New CMOS battery
32. A customer states that the LCD display on a laptop has intermittent lines on the screen. You notice that when the display is
moved, the lines appear and disappear again. What is the most
likely cause?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
The display panel is defective.
There’s a damaged hinge.
The video controller is defective.
The display cable is loose.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 283
258
Chapter 10
✓
Quick Check
33. Your boss wants to encrypt a hard drive that will be storing critical
data. Your boss needs to be able to drag and drop folders onto the
volume and have them be encrypted in real-time. Which encryption technique should you suggest?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 283
BitLocker
PKI
TPM
Kerberos
34. Dave reports that when a laptop’s power button is pushed there is
no response. What is the first thing you should try to appease
Dave?
❍
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 284
A. Replace the battery
❍ B. Close the lid and reopen it
❍ C. Plug in the external power supply
❍ D. Reseat the memory
35. You are tasked with mapping a drive within the Command Prompt
to a share named AlbaLonga on a server named Romulus. What is
the correct syntax?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
http://Romulus.com/AlbaLonga
net use \\Romulus\AlbaLonga
ipp://Romulus.com/AlbaLonga
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 284
A. *.INI
B. *.CFG
C. *.SYS
D. *.EXE
37. Memory was added to a workstation. When the computer was
booted, it reports memory errors. What is the most likely cause?
❍
Detailed Answer: 284
net use //AlbaLonga/Romulus
36. Which of the following file extensions will start the program installation process in Windows?
❍
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 277
A. A different brand of memory was installed into
bank two.
❍ B. The second memory stick was larger than the first.
❍ C. The second memory stick was smaller than the first.
❍ D. The new memory was installed in the second bank and
runs at a lower speed than bank one.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 284
220-802 Practice Exam D
259
✓
Quick Check
38. One of your department’s computers is constantly overheating.
The computer seems to work properly but isn’t making any noise.
What has most likely happened?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 284
The case fan stopped working.
The power supply failed.
The heat sink failed.
The CPU failed.
39. Your boss asks you to troubleshoot a computer with a virus. What
should you do first?
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 285
A. Run a System Restore
B. Identify the malware
C. Roll back drivers
❍ D. Research malware types
40. Examine the following figure. Then answer the question that
follows.
What are we looking at in the figure?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
System Recover Options
Recovery Console
ABOM
MSCONFIG
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 285
260
Chapter 10
✓
Quick Check
41. User A is part of the Users Group on a Windows 7 Ultimate
computer. User A attempts to access files on a UNC path:
\\server\fileshare.
Fileshare has the following share permissions:
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 285
Administrators—Full Control
Users—Read Only
Guests—No Access
However, the directory on the hard drive where the share is located has the following permissions:
Administrators—Full Control
Users—Change
Guests—No Access
Which level of access will the account User A have?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Read Only
Change
Full Control
No Access
Quick Answer: 277
42. A customer has installed a PostScript driver for a printer that
actually only supports PCL. What is the most likely result?
❍
❍
Detailed Answer: 285
A. The printer will not print at all.
B. The printer will print garbage or unreadable
characters.
❍ C. The printer will process PostScript in the correct way.
❍ D. The printer will print at a decreased resolution (DPI).
Quick Answer: 277
43. A marketing employee commonly sends large print jobs to a
printer. The employee tells you that during the jobs the printer
spontaneously pauses and resumes several times. What is the
most likely cause?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
The toner cartridge is defective.
The printer paper tray is not big enough.
The printer needs updated drivers.
The printer is overheating.
Detailed Answer: 285
220-802 Practice Exam D
261
✓
Quick Check
44. Your boss wants to implement BitLocker on yet a second laptop
for traveling purposes. What should you perform before implementing BitLocker?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 286
Enable TPM in the BIOS
Disable UAC
Defrag the hard drive
Convert the file system to NTFS
45. Examine the following figure. Then answer the question that
follows.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 286
What does the –l switch accomplish in the figure?
❍
A. It pings 10.254.254.1 1,500 times.
❍
❍
B. It pings 10.254.254.1 continuously until stopped.
C. It pings 10.254.254.1 with four 1,500-byte packets of
data.
❍ D. It pings 10.254.254.1 at 1500 MB/s.
46. A computer has a RAID 1 array. SATA Drive 0 failed, and now the
computer will not boot. What would most likely fix the problem by
allowing the computer to boot again?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Replace SATA Drive 1
Mark SATA Drive 1 as active
Replace SATA Drive 0
Reboot and select LKG from the ABOM
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 286
262
Chapter 10
✓
Quick Check
47. One of your customers has a defective disk. Which command can
be used to extract readable information?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Replace
Convert
REM
The ability to copy files off of a mapped network drive
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 286
The ability to copy NTFS permissions
The ability to copy files and decrypt them
The ability to copy entire folder structures
49. One of your customers reports to you that when typing on the
laptop keyboard, the mouse pointer scrolls across the screen.
What can resolve this?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 286
Recover
48. What is an advantage of Xcopy over Copy?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 286
Reboot the laptop
Plug in an external mouse
Use an external monitor
Disable the touchpad
50. Examine the following figure. Then answer the question that
follows.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 287
220-802 Practice Exam D
263
✓
Quick Check
Which command was issued in the figure?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
netstat
netstat -n
nbtstat
nbtstat -n
51. You are happily working in Windows when you stumble across a
dialog box with some unfamiliar terms. What can you do to quickly provide more information?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Alternate-click and select “More Information”
Alternate-click and select “What’s This?”
Press F1 and search for the term
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 287
Clean the fuser area
Clean the drum with a computer vacuum
Use compressed air on the pickup assembly
Replace the toner cartridge
53. Which one of the following is fault tolerant, mirrors a hard drive,
and allows for disk duplexing?
❍
Detailed Answer: 287
Use the Microsoft Support website
52. An office laser printer is printing lighter in random areas of each
page. What is the easiest solution?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 287
A. RAID 0
❍ B. RAID 1
❍ C. RAID 5
❍ D. RAID 6
54. In Windows 7, which path would a user with the account name
Charlie go to in order to view his pictures?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
C:\Documents and Settings\Charlie\ Pictures
C:\Users\Charlie\Libraries\My Pictures
C:\Users\Charlie\My Pictures
C:\ Documents and Settings\Charlie\My Documents\My
Pictures
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 287
264
Chapter 10
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Quick Check
55. Examine the following figure. Then answer the question that
follows.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 287
How would you navigate to the application in the figure?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Start > Run > Console1
Start, right-click Computer, select Manage
Start > Run > Computer Management
Start > Run > MMC
56. Your friend is playing the latest first-person game on a PC, but the
screen is pausing during game play. Your friend has a high-end
graphics card and the maximum memory for the motherboard.
What should you do to help the situation?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 287
Upgrade the drivers
Reinstall the OS
Replace the hard drive
Reinstall the game
57. What is the most important reason not to plug an RJ11 phone line
into an RJ45 port on a computer?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 288
PSTN networks are not Ethernet based.
Ethernet supports pulse dialing, not tone dialing.
Phone line voltages can damage Ethernet equipment.
RJ11 connections do not support full-duplex.
58. You have been asked to move data from one laptop to another,
each of which has EFS functioning. Which should you perform
first?
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 288
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✓
Quick Check
❍
A. Give the user of the second laptop administrator
privileges
❍ B. Export the user’s certificate
❍ C. Disable networking
❍ D. Convert the partition to FAT32
59. A technician you work with just finished installing AV software on
a PC. What should the technician do next?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 288
Update the AV signatures
Remove infected files
Run a full scan
Quarantine infected files
60. A Windows 7 Ultimate computer using IP address 192.168.1.5
on the network serves the bulk of the data to the rest of the six
computers within a HomeGroup. Suddenly, though, neither your
computer nor any of the other systems can access that Windows
7 Ultimate computer. Which command would you use on your
local computer to find out if the Server service is running on
192.168.1.5 and which ID number is the Server service?
❍ A. netstat
❍ B. nbtstat
❍ C. netstat
❍ D. nbtstat
❍ E. netstat
❍
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 288
–a and <00>
–a and <00>
–A and <20>
–A and <20>
–A and <03>
F. nbtstat –A and <03>
61. You are troubleshooting what you believe to be a power issue.
Which of the following should you test first?
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 288
❍ A. Power supply
❍ B. 24-pin power connector
❍ C. IEC cable
❍ D. AC outlet
❍ E. Circuit breaker
62. A customer’s laptop goes into standby mode unexpectedly. What
is the most likely hardware component that is causing the issue?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
LCD cutoff switch
Hard drive
SATA controller
Video card
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 289
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✓
Quick Check
63. How can you confirm that a new virus definition is authentic?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Check the file owner
Check the file version
Check the hash key
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 289
DNS
DHCP
Network switch
Patch panel
65. This type of malware appears to perform desired functions but is
actually performing malicious functions behind the scenes.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 289
Check the creation date
64. No matter how many ipconfig/release and ipconfig/
renew commands you issue, the computer you are troubleshooting can only obtain an APIPA address. What has most likely failed?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 289
Virus
Trojan
Spyware
Rootkit
66. One of your customers has a wireless router installed in a home
office. The customer complains of issues with signal strength at
the opposite end of the house. What is the best option as far as
increasing signal strength?
❍
❍
A. Install a wireless repeater at the far end of the house
❍
C. Install a high gain antenna focused toward the office
wall
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 289
B. Install a second wired router at the far end of the
house
❍ D. Run Cat 5e cable to all of the rooms that have poor
signal strength
67. A client is attempting to connect a laptop to a TV using an HDMI
connector. The person tells you that video works fine, but audio
does not. What is the most likely cause?
❍
❍
❍
A. The laptop needs an HDMI application installed.
B. The HDMI cable is too long.
C. The speakers are not compatible with the digital
connection.
❍ D. The HDMI audio service has not been selected.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 289
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✓
Quick Check
68. The Device Management utility lists a disk as “Foreign”. What
should you do to make the disk usable?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 290
Convert the disk to basic
Convert the disk to dynamic
Import the disk
Set the disk to active
69. How can you reach the System Restore utility in Windows 7?
(Select the two best answers.)
❍
A. Start > right-click Computer > Properties > click the
System protection link
❍
❍
B. Start > right-click Computer > Advanced
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 290
C. Run > type systempropertiesprotection.exe
❍ D. Start > right-click Computer > Properties > click the
Advanced system settings link
70. Examine the following figure. Then answer the question that follows.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 290
In Windows 7, using individual Control Panel icons, how would
you navigate to the dialog box in the figure?
❍ A. Start > Control Panel > Printers > right-click the printer
and select Properties > Advanced
❍ B. Start > Control Panel > Devices and Printers > right-click
the printer and select Properties > Ports
❍ C. Start > Control Panel > Devices and Printers > right-click
the printer and select Properties > Ports
❍ D. Start > Control Panel > Devices and Printers > right-click
the printer and select Printer Properties > Advanced
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Quick Check
71. Which of the following statements is true?
❍
A. Authentication can be something a user knows such
as a smart card.
❍
B. Authentication can be something a user is such as a
fingerprint.
❍
C. Authentication can be something a user does such as
a PIN or password.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 290
❍ D. Authentication can be something a user has such as
signature.
72. You are tasked with accessing a wireless SOHO. The SSID you
require does not appear when you scan for wireless networks.
What should you do to access the wireless network?
❍
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 290
A. Enter the SSID manually
❍ B. Change the SSID on the router
❍ C. Change the MAC address on the router
❍ D. Reset the wireless card.
73. This is a type of phishing attack that is directed at the CEO of an
organization.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Vishing
Whaling
Spear phishing
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 290
Magnetic degausser
Low-level format
Peter Gutman security method
DoD 5220.22-M
75. You are required to implement an organizational policy that states
user passwords can’t be used twice in a row. Which policy will
you configure?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 290
Power phishing
74. This type of data purging standard requires seven full passes or
rewrites with bit-level erasure software.
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Minimum password length
Enforce password history
Minimum password age
Complexity requirements
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 291
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✓
Quick Check
76. A customer tells you that the computer runs fine for a few minutes but then freezes. What is the most likely cause?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 291
CD-ROM drive is faulty.
Power supply failed.
Fans are failing.
Memory is not seated properly.
77. You have several computers at your workstation. (Of course you
do, you are a master tech!) One of them starts making a loud
grinding sound immediately when you power on the computer.
However, Windows boots and works fine. The only problem is the
grinding that sets your teeth on edge. What is the most likely
cause?
❍
Quick Answer: 277
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 291
A. Bad fan
❍ B. Bad HD
❍ C. Bad power supply
❍ D. Bad CD-ROM
78. You install a fiber-based backbone switch that connects three different departments’ LAN switches. Which kind of network topology did you just create? (Select the best, most specific answer.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 291
Star
Hybrid star
Star-bus
Hierarchical star
79. A user states that the computer monitor is suddenly displaying
garbled images and strange colors and leaving cursor trails.
The technician determines that the system is using an onboard
graphics controller. What is the most likely cause of the display
problem?
❍ A. Resolution was set too high.
❍ B. Defective RAM.
❍ C. Outdated firmware.
❍ D. Defective power supply.
❍ E. Fragmented hard drive.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 291
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Quick Check
80. Examine the following figure. Then answer the question that
follows.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 291
The figure shows the option to set a Passcode in the iOS of an
iPad2. How would you navigate to this screen?
❍
A. Settings > General > Passcode Lock > Turn
Passcode On
❍ B. Settings > General > Turn Passcode On
❍ C. Settings > Passcode Lock > Turn Passcode On
❍ D. Settings > General > Passcode Lock > Enable
WPA2 Passcode
81. Which of the following switches skips the process that compares
directory entries to the file record segments corresponding to
those entries, when running the Chkdsk command?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Chkdsk /V
Chkdsk /F
Chkdsk /I
Chkdsk /R
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 292
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✓
Quick Check
82. You are working on a computer in which you just installed a new
hard drive. The system already runs Windows 7. The new hard
drive does not appear in Windows Explorer. What should you perform next so that the drive will be recognized by the operating
system?
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 292
A. Reboot the computer
B. Initialize and format the hard drive in Disk
Management
❍ C. Configure the drive in the BIOS
❍ D. Assign a drive letter to the hard drive in Disk
Management
❍
E. Set the drive to active
83. Which utility displays important messages about solving issues in
Windows 7?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 292
Task Manager
Windows Defender
Action Center
Problem Reports and Solutions
84. A customer has a computer running Windows 7 Ultimate. The
Windows Firewall appears to be causing communications to fail
within a certain gaming application even though you set up an
exception for the program. You stop the Windows Firewall, but
when the computer reboots, the service starts up again. Of the
following, which tool should you use to disable the Windows
Firewall service?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Task Scheduler
System Configuration
System Properties
Local Security Policy
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 292
272
Chapter 10
✓
Quick Check
85. Examine the following figure. Then answer the question that
follows.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 292
The figure shows a mounted volume. What is the actual mounted
volume, and which hard drive folder is it pointing to?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
F: and GRMCULXFRER_EN_DVD
Windows 7 DVD and the Data folder
F: and the DVD drive
Data folder and GRMCULXFRER_EN_DVD
86. An attacker is constantly trying to hack into one of your
customer’s SOHO networks. What is the easiest, most practical
way to protect the network from intrusion?
❍ A. Disable the SSID broadcast
❍ B. Install an antivirus server application
❍ C. Disconnect the Internet connection
❍ D. Install a firewall
❍ E. Install an IDS
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 292
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✓
Quick Check
87. A CAD/CAM workstation running AutoCAD is displaying rotating
3D images very slowly. The customer needs the images to rotate
quickly and smoothly. What should you upgrade on the computer?
(Select the best answer.)
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 277
Detailed Answer: 293
CPU
RAM
Video card
Hard drive
88. What will happen if a PCIe video card is used in a PCI slot?
❍
A. A PCIe card used in a PCI slot will function properly
with a firmware upgrade.
❍
❍
B. A PCIe card cannot be used in a PCI slot.
Quick Answer: 278
Detailed Answer: 293
C. A PCIe card used in a PCI slot will function normally.
❍ D. A PCIe card used in a PCI slot will function at PCI
speeds.
89. One of your customers reports that a laser printer is printing out
blurry and smudged pages. What is the most likely reason?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 293
The fuser is not getting hot enough.
The toner cartridge is leaking.
The toner cartridge is low.
The fuser is too hot.
90. Which kind of battery would you find in an iPad, and how long will
a full charge last for on the average?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 278
NiCd—2.5 hours
Lithium—10 hours
16 v—5 hours
Lithium-ion polymer—10 hours
Quick Answer: 278
Detailed Answer: 293
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Chapter 10
✓
Quick Check
91. Examine the following figure. Then answer the question that
follows.
Quick Answer: 278
Detailed Answer: 293
The figure shows the Computer Name/Domain Changes dialog box
in Windows 7. How do you navigate to this window? (Select the
two best answers.)
❍
A. Start > right-click Computer, select Properties >
Computer Name tab > Change
❍
B. Start > right-click Computer, select Properties >
Change Computer Name
❍ C. Run > systempropertiescomputername.exe > Change
❍ D. Run > systempropertiescomputername.exe >
Advanced > Change Computer Name
92. One of your customers reports that a computer has no access to
the network. You look at the switch and notice that all lights are on
and not flashing. The network cables are plugged in, and the computer’s network card is functioning properly. What can you do to
solve this problem?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 278
Detailed Answer: 293
Ping 127.0.0.1
Replace the switch’s uplink cable
Reboot the computer
Power cycle the switch
93. You have a Windows 7 Ultimate computer that you wish to write a
batch file for. You want the batch file to turn off the computer after
a certain amount of time. Which main command should you utilize
in the batch file?
Quick Answer: 278
Detailed Answer: 294
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275
✓
Quick Check
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Taskkill
Down
Kill
Shutdown
94. Which switch of the Robocopy command will copy subdirectories but skip empty ones?
❍
❍
❍
❍
Quick Answer: 278
Detailed Answer: 294
A. /E
B. /B
C. /S
D. /DCOPY:T
95. Examine the following figure. Then answer the question that
follows.
Quick Answer: 278
Detailed Answer: 294
The figure shows the list of shares on a Windows 7 computer.
What is the path of the print$ share?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
C:\Windows
C:\Windows\System32
C:\Windows\System32\spool\print$
C:\Windows\System32\spool\drivers
96. You need to list all the network shares for a local computer within
the Command Prompt. Which command will do this for you?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Net view
Net use
Net share
Net statistics
Quick Answer: 278
Detailed Answer: 294
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Chapter 10
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Quick Check
97. You are now a manager of a technical services team. One of your
technicians notices that a printer is jamming just above the printer
tray. What should the technician do first to resolve the issue?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 294
Clean the feeder rollers
Clean the pickup rollers
Replace the fuser
Replace the drum
98. A customer is frantic because a mobile device’s operating system
has crashed. The customer keeps referring to Gingerbread in
excited tones but isn’t making much sense. Which OS is the customer referring to?
❍
Quick Answer: 278
Quick Answer: 278
Detailed Answer: 294
A. Microsoft Windows CE
❍ B. Apple iOS version 5
❍ C. Android version 2
❍ D. Blackberry OS
99. You need to find out which ports are open in the Windows Firewall
on a Windows XP computer. Which of the following will allow you
to show the configuration?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Detailed Answer: 294
arp –a
netsh firewall show logging
netsh firewall show state
ipconfig /all
100. You have some DLLs and ActiveX controls that need to be troubleshot. Which command can manipulate these?
❍ A.
❍ B.
❍ C.
❍ D.
Quick Answer: 278
Regedit
Regsvr32
ODBC32
Regedt32
Well, you made it. Congratulations. Check your answers and
read through the explanations carefully!
Quick Answer: 278
Detailed Answer: 294
220-802 Practice Exam D
Quick-Check Answer Key
1. A
30. B
59. A
2. C
31. A
60. D
3. C
32. D
61. C
4. D
33. A
62. A
5. C
34. C
63. D
6. D
35. C
64. B
7. D
36. D
65. B
8. B
37. D
66. A
9. A
38. A
67. D
10. A
39. B
68. C
11. C
40. C
69. A and C
12. A
41. A
70. D
13. A and D
42. B
71. B
14. C
43. D
72. A
15. B
44. A
73. C
16. D
45. C
74. D
17. A, C, and E
46. B
75. B
18. C
47. A
76. C
19. B
48. B
77. A
20. D
49. D
78. D
21. A
50. B
79. B
22. C
51. C
80. A
23. A
52. D
81. C
24. D
53. B
82. B
25. A, C, E, and G
54. C
83. C
26. C
55. D
84. B
27. D
56. A
85. B
28. C
57. C
86. D
29. C
58. B
87. C
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88. B
93. D
98. C
89. A
94. C
99. C
90. D
95. D
100. B
91. A and C
96. A
92. D
97. B
220-802 Practice Exam D
279
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: A. The Type 1 hypervisor is the bare metal, or native hypervisor. It runs
directly on the host computer’s hardware. Examples include Microsoft Hyper-V,
VMware ESX, and Citrix XenServer. This is required for true virtualization workstations.
Type 2 hypervisors run within another operating system. Examples of this include
Microsoft Virtual PC, Windows XP Mode (which runs in a Virtual PC window within
Windows 7), and VirtualBox. These do not run nearly as fast as type 1 hypervisors and
so are used for limited purposes. For example, if a company wanted to run Windows
Server 2008 in a virtual environment but have it be an actual server on the network, it
should run in a type 1 hypervisor. But if you are learning how to use Windows Vista—
for example, in a lab environment—the type 2 hypervisor would probably be fine.
2. Answer: C. Virtual private networks (VPNs) rely on a tunneling protocol such as PPTP
or L2TP to create a secure connection between a network and a remote computer or
group of computers. WWAN is another name for cellular Internet access. WiMAX is a
fast, wireless Internet service used over large geographic areas. WLAN is the wireless
LAN that is created when you implement a wireless access point or create an ad-hoc
network of devices.
3. Answer: C. Typing %temp% in the Run prompt will display a folder with the current
user’s temporary files. For example, in Windows 7 this would show the C:\Users\
%username%\AppData\Local\Temp folder. Nothing will be added or changed. Simply
the folder will be displayed in a Windows Explorer window. The operating system’s
temporary folder is located at C:\Windows\Temp.
4. Answer: D. Voice over IP (VoIP) is a streaming telephony application. Streaming
applications such as VoIP and online games can benefit from QoS. QoS stands for
Quality of Service, which is the capability to provide different priorities to different
applications. It guarantees network bandwidth for real-time streaming of the media
applications such as VoIP. The SSID is the name or identifier of a wireless network.
Instant messaging and e-mail are not streaming applications; therefore, they would
not benefit from the use of QoS.
5. Answer: C. A surge suppressor (or surge protector) uses metal-oxide varistors
(MOVs) to protect against surges and spikes. They protect each outlet and port on the
device, but they do not last forever. Most manufacturers recommend that after several
years of use you replace them. Power strips do not have these and do not protect
against surges and spikes, though the device might have trip functionality and have to
be reset in the case of an electrical problem. Power supplies are located within the
computer; they do not have MOVs. A multimeter is used to test outlets and wires. An
MOV can also be tested by a multimeter by testing its resistance.
6. Answer: D. Attrib –H *.* will unhide all of the files in the folder. The attrib
command allows you to work with four different file attributes that I like to refer to as
RASH. R stands for Read-only, A = Archive, S = System, and H = Hidden. Using a
minus sign will remove the attribute, while a plus sign will add the attribute. Since the
files were already hidden, we needed to use the minus sign to remove the attribute
and be able to view the files. *.* means all the files with all extensions within that particular directory. Check out the attrib command in the Command Prompt for yourself by typing attrib /?. Ray is always doing interesting things in my books.
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Chapter 10
7. Answer: D. The standard user cannot install software or make changes to the system
without knowing an administrative login. Administrators have full control over a system. Power users in Windows XP were able to install programs but are not allowed in
Windows 7 or Vista. Remote Desktop users can remote into other machines in order
to control them from another location.
8. Answer: B. The Recovery Console is a system recovery tool used in Windows XP.
There are a lot of different commands that can be issued in this mode. If the NTLDR
file has been damaged or is missing, it can be rewritten to the hard disk by issuing the
fixboot command while in the Recovery Console. NTLDR can also be manually
copied from the CD-ROM disc if necessary. The fixmbr command will rewrite the
master boot record of the hard drive. The chkdsk command will check the integrity
of the disk. Bootcfg /rebuild can be used to scan for the operating system installations and rebuild that information into the boot.ini file.
9. Answer: A. Chkdsk /R will locate bad sectors and recover the information from
them. /F fixes errors but doesn’t locate bad sectors and recover the information from
them. /C and /I skip certain checks of the volume (in this case C:), which ultimately
reduces the time it takes to check the volume.
10. Answer: A. Every user profile gets a Desktop folder by default. This folder will be
located within the user profile folder, which is shown in the answer as a variable
%username%. In a standard Windows 7/Vista configuration, the Documents and
Settings and System Volume Information folders will be hidden and access will be
denied. The System32 folder is inside the Windows folder, not the Users folder.
Windows XP used Documents and Settings as the main user folder, but Windows
Vista/7 changed that by creating a junction from that folder to the Users folder. Now in
Vista/7 the Documents and Settings folder is protected, but you have limited access to
the Users folder.
11. Answer: C. The switches could have been inadvertently reconfigured to 100 Mbps
speed during the recent network hardware refresh. Since the LAN is supposed to be a
gigabit Ethernet network, it should be running at 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps). If the network
speed is reduced down to 10%, everything will look slower to the customer. The
switches should be reconfigured for 1000 Mbps at full-duplex mode if possible. DHCP
servers don’t have anything to do with the speed of the network or speed of Internet
connections. Neither does the firewall. In fact, if the firewall was off, network performance would probably increase when connecting to the Internet, though it would be
quite insecure. Nowhere in the scenario is a cellular repeater mentioned. Regardless, a
cellular repeater would not interfere with a wireless LAN and definitely wouldn’t interfere with a wired Ethernet network.
12. Answer: A. The technician should install the latest firmware to the WAP. WAPs don’t
require drivers; the firmware has all the code they require. On the other hand, wireless
network adapters don’t need firmware (usually) because they use drivers. But the network adapter is fine because it is already configured with WPA2. It’s the WAP we are
concerned with; we want it to use the best wireless encryption possible.
13. Answers: A and D. If a user cannot print to a brand-new printer, yet everyone else can
print to it, you should check if the printer is installed on that user’s computer and if it
is set as the default printer. If the printer has not yet been installed, there will be no
220-802 Practice Exam D
281
print queue to clear. However, if the printer has been installed, then the next thing to
check would be if the print queue has failed. You could also check the print spooler. If
the user was able to print to an older printer that was also shared by other users in the
workgroup, then you should not have to change the user’s password or permissions.
14. Answer: C. This message appears when a device is connected to a USB port;
Windows notifies you that the device can run faster than it currently is. It’s possible
that the external hard drive is compatible with USB 3.0, but the system is not capable
of USB 3.0 speeds (5.0 Gbps). In some cases, Windows can’t run at those speeds
without a driver update or other upgrade software-wise. If the external hard drive was
a USB 2.0 device, the message wouldn’t appear because everything already runs at
USB 2.0 speed. If the drive was FireWire (IEEE 1394), USB wouldn’t even be a concern; they are completely different standards and ports. A drive plugged into a
FireWire port wouldn’t get the message listed in the question.
15. Answer: B. Chances are that a computer BIOS setting is incorrect. The card either is
not being recognized in the BIOS or is not enabled. Of course, it is also possible that
the card has an incorrect driver installed in Windows. 802.11 refers to WLAN (Wi-Fi),
not Bluetooth. Disabling the WLAN card will not affect this scenario. If the hard drive
was faulty, you would see other indications such as lockups or failure to boot, but
nothing dealing with Bluetooth devices. Microwaves are usually not located near a person’s computer. Though it is possible for a microwave or other wireless device to
interfere with Bluetooth, it is the less likely answer.
16. Answer: D. The best option in this scenario would be to deny read access to the
Accounting folder for Bill through shared access security. You would not use local
access security because the folder is shared from a network server within your Active
Directory domain. Also, if you remove Bill from all domain groups that have access to
the accounting folder, Bill will probably lose access to other folders as well. If you
deny read access to the accounting folder for any group that Bill is a member of, you
will probably impact other users on the network negatively.
17. Answers: A, C, and E. A keyboard could stop functioning due to stuck keys from overuse or liquid spill; loose ribbon cable connection; and a warped keyboard caused by
damage from heavy items, environmental conditions, or misuse. A bad inverter would
cause the backlight to fail, and you would just barely be able to see the display. A
faulty touchpad is another problem altogether; the touchpad and the keyboard are separate devices on the laptop. A discharged battery would cause the laptop to simply
shut off (if using battery power only).
18. Answer: C. SATA drives are faster than PATA (IDE) drives, and NTFS is going to be
more efficient than FAT32. Plus, if the customer is already using NTFS, you wouldn’t
want to downgrade the new drive to FAT32.
19. Answer: B. The Disk Management component of Computer Management is being displayed in the figure. You can tell because it shows each disk and the volumes within
each disk. The Event Viewer houses log information for the system, applications, and
security auditing events. Disk Administrator is the predecessor to Disk Management in
the old Windows NT days. DiskPart is the command-line tool used to create and modify partitions on the hard drive.
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20. Answer: D. The correct path is Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Services. Of
course, there are lots of other ways to get to the Services console window, but you
should know the Control Panel paths for the exam. In addition, there are lots of ways
to shut off services; know as many of them as you can, such as in the Task Manager
or in the Command Prompt. The path Msconfig > Settings > Services is not valid
because there is no Settings option. System Settings > Tools > Services is also an
invalid path. Finally, Services cannot be accessed directly from Control Panel.
21. Answer: A. You should always turn the printer off and unplug it before putting your
hands inside it! Plus, you should wait for about 10 or 15 minutes so that the fuser can
cool off. Open the doors after you have turned the printer off. The print queue will be
cleared on most printers when you turn them off. Taking the printer offline is not
enough; it needs to be shut down to be safe.
22. Answer: C. The Action Center in Windows 7 can save problem descriptions and
solutions; this is done in the archived messages section. The Action Center could be
considered the successor to the Problem Reports and Solutions of Windows Vista, as
well as the successor to the older Dr. Watson in Windows XP. Performance Monitor is
a program that tracks how much of your device’s resources are being utilized—for
example, what percentage of the processor is used.
23. Answer: A. If there is a power failure, try power cycling the PC. In this scenario it
could be that power went out for 5 minutes. When power returned, the monitor was
still on (thus the LED) but the computer remained off (thus nothing on the display).
Really, in this case you are just turning the computer on. Peripherals should have no
bearing on this scenario unless they also plug in. If you power cycle the PC and there
is still nothing on the display, try disconnecting the peripherals from the PC, disconnecting their AC power (if they have that), and rebooting the PC. If the monitor has a
LED light, you know it is getting power and so the UPS does not need to be power
cycled. However, if there was a 5-minute power loss and the UPS didn’t keep the PC
running, you should check the UPS battery. Turning the breaker switches for the circuit on and off is always fun but would simply cut power to the AC outlets temporarily.
24. Answer: D. First thing: remove the PC from the network so that the virus (if there is
one) doesn’t spread to other systems! Then you can safely go about troubleshooting
that system by performing an AV scan while in Safe Mode and checking for system
security updates.
25. Answers: A, C, E, and G. Check the power LED on the laptop first and see what it is
doing. Could be that the user simply wasn’t pressing the power button! If it blinks
slowly once in a while the laptop might be in a sleep state. Then check the power light
on the AC adapter. Make sure the AC adapter is getting power; if it is, check if it is the
right adapter. Check if the system is in hibernate mode by pressing and holding the
power button. Finally, the power button might be faulty, so make sure it isn’t loose. If
there is no AC adapter available, you should also check if the battery is connected
properly and charged. Make sure the user keeps the AC adapter on hand at all times.
26. Answer: C. First, try upgrading the smartcard reader firmware. A smartcard is an intelligent card that authenticates a user. Newer smartcards with more intelligence are
constantly being developed. These newer cards might not be readable by a smartcard
reader until it is updated. In rarer cases you might have to replace the smartcard
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reader. A BIOS flash should be necessary only if the smartcard reader is not recognized. Reinstalling the OS should be avoided at all costs, but it might be necessary if
the laptop has a very old version of Windows.
27. Answer: D. Upgrade the video card. The Windows Experience Index is based on the
lowest component score. In this case that is the video card. You’ll note that there is a
number after each component. After the RAM upgrade those numbers are RAM: 5.0,
Video: 3.8, and CPU: 4.2. The video score is the index. So, the lowest common
denominator should be upgraded. Increasing the resolution on the screen won’t have
an effect, or it will cause the index for video to go down.
28. Answer: C. Copy /Y suppresses prompting of overwrite confirmations. Copy /Z
copies networked files in restartable mode. Xcopy is used to easily copy entire directories of data to another location. Copy /A allows you to indicate an ASCII text file to
copy.
29. Answer: C. System Protection is a feature that creates and saves data about the computer’s system files and settings. It does this by creating restore points. External storage is not necessary for these; they are automatically stored in the system volume.
NTbackup is the Windows XP backup program. The Task Manager is used to view
system performance, stop services, and kill processes. Xcopy is used to copy entire
directory trees.
30. Answer: B. The figure displays the System Information window with the IEEE 1394
(and I/O setting) highlighted. System Information can be accessed from Start > All
Programs > Accessories > System Tools or by accessing Run and typing msinfo32.
31. Answer: A. You should update the BIOS. If it hasn’t been updated in a while, it probably won’t recognize newer memory modules. Most of today’s motherboards don’t have
jumper settings for RAM. In fact, the only jumper you will often find is the BIOS configuration jumper, which only needs to be configured if a person forgot a password.
The BIOS will have a problem recognizing the RAM far before the OS starts up; no OS
updates are required to make RAM recognizable to the system. If the computer needed
a new CMOS battery, you would know because the time in the BIOS would reset to an
earlier date.
32. Answer: D. Intermittent lines are a good indicator that the video cable is loose (or
possibly damaged). Remove the keyboard (or disassemble the display), locate the
ribbon cable, and connect it securely on each end. This is common with laptops as
they are constantly being moved around and jostled; ribbon cables like to come loose!
Remember to consider loose connections before guessing at defective parts. A defective display or defective video controller would probably cause a complete lack of
video. A damaged hinge would prevent the laptop from closing properly.
33. Answer: A. BitLocker is a type of WDE: whole-disk encryption. It encrypts all of the
contents that are created on it or copied to it in real-time. It requires a trusted platform
module (TPM) on the motherboard or an encrypted USB flash drive. Only Windows 7
Ultimate and Enterprise, and Windows Vista Ultimate and Enterprise, support
BitLocker when used in this manner. Other lesser versions of Windows are compatible
with BitLocker To Go for reading encrypted documents.
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34. Answer: C. You should plug in the external power supply. You know that Dave—
sometimes he forgets to plug in the power adapter and then the battery goes dead,
causing the laptop to be quite unresponsive when pressing the power button.
Remember the golden rule: Make sure it’s plugged in! Do that first and you will save
yourself a lot of hours of your life. However, if that doesn’t work, you can move on to
checking the battery, checking the type of power adapter being used, the AC outlet you
are connecting to, and so on. Some users neglect to charge their batteries, and
instead, their laptops are constantly being used at a low percentage of charge. This
lessens the lifespan of the battery. So, when you do plug in the AC adapter, sometimes
you will find the battery does need to be replaced. Always check to see if it can be
charged and if it holds a charge. Recommend to laptop users that they carry a spare
battery in the laptop bag. You shouldn’t have to reseat the memory unless you get an
error message during the POST.
35. Answer: C. The correct syntax is net use \\Romulus\AlbaLonga. Note the
backslashes in use here. You would probably want a persistent connection using a
drive letter (such as F:), so you might append that to net use (for example, net use
F: \\Romulus\AlbaLonga or something to that effect). The universal naming
convention (UNC) for mapping drives is \\servername\sharename. The server name
is Romulus; the share name is AlbaLonga. It’s possible to connect to servers and
shares with HTTP but not map a drive to them. Also, the server name is Romulus.
Romulus.com is a domain name, something that a server name would be part of—
for example, server1 would be the server name (or hostname) of the address server1.davidlprowse.com. The IPP protocol is used to make connections to printers
and is often used with IP addresses, not server names.
36. Answer: D. *.EXE refers to any file with the .EXE extension. .EXE is short for executable. When you want to run a program, it is usually started with a file that has a
.EXE extension. For example, to start Microsoft Word, the winword.exe executable is
initiated. And for installing programs, the most common is setup.exe. .INI files are initialization files—for example, Window XP’s boot.ini file which has the list of operating
systems that can be booted to. .CFG is short for configuration file. These might list
commands and parameters for a program. Often, .INI and .CFG files can be manipulated in Notepad because they are text based (but not text or .txt files). .SYS files are
system files—for example, pagefile.sys. The .SYS extension was used extensively
back in the days of DOS, but newer versions of Windows tend to have system files
with .dll and .exe extensions.
37. Answer: D. For multiple memory sticks to be compatible, they need to run at the same
speed. You might be able to get away with one stick being one step slower, if the
motherboard supports it, and as long as it is not dual-channel memory. But it isn’t
worth the chance. If the sticks are not compatible, or if the second stick is not compatible with the motherboard, you will probably get memory errors during POST.
38. Answer: A. The case fan is the most likely culprit of the listed answers. If the computer is overheating, it means that the hot air is not exhausting out of the case—the number one offender is the case fan. And if the system is making little noise, you can
guess that a fan has failed (although they are making quieter and quieter fans). This is
a quick and cheap fix luckily. However, the power supply fan could have failed (less
likely), in which case you would have to replace the entire power supply. Heat sinks
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are passive and usually don’t fail; it is more likely that the CPU fan would fail. If the
CPU itself failed, it could be because of overheating, but that would cause the system
to stop working, which is contrary to the scenario in the question.
39. Answer: B. The first thing you should do is identify the malware. (BTW, if the computer is on the network, disconnect it first.) Then, you can research that malware and any
possible cures by searching the Internet and accessing your AV provider’s website.
Rolling back drivers should not be necessary, especially if you find it necessary to run
a System Restore at some point.
40. Answer: C. We are looking at the Advanced Boot Options Menu (ABOM) screen. This
is the screen that comes up if you press F8 while Windows is booting, and it’s how
you would access Safe Mode and a host of other booting options. The System
Recovery Options (WinRE) can be accessed by booting to the Windows 7/Vista DVD
and selecting Repair. The Recovery Console is the repair environment for Windows
XP; it is also accessed from the Windows disc. Msconfig is a program within
Windows that allows you to modify the way the system boots, disable programs, and
disable services.
41. Answer: A. User A will end up having the Read-Only level of access to the share.
Generally, a user gets the more restrictive level of access. The only thing that is different between the share’s permissions and the parent directory’s permissions is the level
of control for the Users group. Normally, a share will obtain its permissions from the
parent folder. That is, unless that option is un-checkmarked in the properties of the
folder; then, the folder can be reconfigured for whatever permissions an admin wants
to set for it. That must be what happened in the scenario. Administrators get Full
Control access to almost everything by default. And Guests get No Access to just
about everything by default. So the only possibilities for this question were Change
and Read Only. Again, in general, the typical user account will receive the more restrictive level of permissions.
42. Answer: B. Most likely, the printer will print garbage or unreadable characters (known
as garbled characters). If you install an incorrect driver for a printer, you risk a
garbage printout. You would know if this was the case immediately when trying to
print a test page. The incorrect driver could be a printer driver for another printer or
one that is PostScript when it should be Printer Command Language (PCL). This won’t
stop the printer from printing, but you may not like what you see (unless you are into
gibberish). The DPI of the printer will not change. A DPI such as 600 cannot be
decreased to 300 DPI unless you set that in the printer’s Properties sheet in Windows
or on the display on the printer. And it can only be increased in the same manner, and
only if the printer supports it.
43. Answer: D. The printer is probably overheating during these long jobs. Perhaps the
fuser is nearing replacement time. The fuser can run as hot as 400° Fahrenheit (204°
Celsius), and some printers will pause printing when that temperature threshold is
tripped. Once the temperature goes back below the threshold, the printer will begin
printing again. If the toner cartridge was defective, you would get blank paper, lighter
printing, or paper with lines or smears. As long as there is paper in the tray, the large
print job will continue to print (if within operating temperature parameters). Updated
drivers are only necessary when the printer will not print the data on the page correctly. Pausing the job in this scenario is not causing any print errors; it’s just taking
longer to complete.
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44. Answer: A. Before implementing the BitLocker solution in Windows, you should
enable the trusted platform module (TPM) in the BIOS. This is the chip on the motherboard that includes the encryption code. UAC is User Account Control, a separate
security option in Windows 7/Vista that checks if users have administrative permissions before allowing them to carry out administrative tasks. Defragmenting the hard
drive is not necessary, but it can’t hurt to at least analyze the drive and see if it needs
to be defragged. Defragging a drive that requires it can increase performance.
BitLocker works on FAT16, FAT32, NTFS, and exFAT partitions, so no need to convert
the file system.
45. Answer: C. The –l switch in this scenario is pinging the host at 10.254.254.1 with
four individual 1500-byte packets of data. –l allows you to change the size of the
packet that is sent; it is 32 bytes by default. You can see that the figure only shows
four pings total. A continuous ping would keep going until you stop it by pressing Ctrl
+ C on the keyboard or closing the Command Prompt; that would be performed with
the –t switch. A specific amount of pings can be controlled with the –n switch. It is
1500 bytes per packet, not 1500 MB/s, which would be a far greater amount and not
one that can be configured with the ping command.
46. Answer: B. You would mark SATA Drive 1 as active. If you cannot access Disk
Management, you would have to do it by booting the system with WinRE (System
Recovery Options), accessing the Command Prompt; executing the Diskpart command; and typing the commands select disk 1, select partition 1, and
active. A RAID 1 array is a mirroring array with two drives. The second drive keeps
an exact copy of the first drive in real-time. If Drive 1 doesn’t take over automatically
when Drive 0 fails, you will have to set it to active. Remember that a partition with an
operating system must be set to active; otherwise, the computer will not be able to
boot to the partition. Replacing Drive 1 is not necessary as it did not fail. Replacing
Drive 0 is inevitable if you want to re-create the mirror, but not necessary if you just
want to get the system to boot for now. Rebooting to the Last Known Good
Configuration will not help; that only reverts system changes back to when the last
successful login occurred. It won’t fix the failed drive.
47. Answer: A. The Recover command can recover readable information from a bad or
defective disk. The disk should be slaved to a working computer to get back the data.
The Replace command will replace source and destination files but not recover lost
information. Convert changes a file system from FAT to NTFS without losing data.
REM records comments in a batch file (.bat) or within config.sys, a root file not
typically used in Windows.
48. Answer: B. Xcopy can copy NTFS permissions. Normally, when a file is copied—
for example, in Windows Explorer—the file loses its permissions and takes on the
permissions of the new parent folder. That is also the case with the Copy command.
Xcopy and Robocopy can be used to transcend this rule. Both Xcopy and Copy
can copy files off of a mapped network drive and can copy entire folder structures, but
neither can copy files while decrypting them.
49. Answer: D. The person’s arm or sleeve is probably brushing up against the touchpad,
causing the mouse pointer to move. By disabling the touchpad in the Device Manager
or elsewhere, you eliminate the chance of that, but the user also loses that functionality. Rebooting the laptop will have the same effect and is not necessary. Using an
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external mouse alone will not fix the problem; even if there is an external mouse, the
touchpad can still be used, unless it is disabled. An external monitor will not help you
fix the touchpad issue, but it might be a nice addition to a laptop. In fact, many users
who have laptops in an office also use them at home. At the office, and perhaps at
home as well, it is best to set them up with a docking station, external keyboard, external mouse, and monitor. It usually results in greater productivity.
50. Answer: B. The netstat –n command was issued in the Command Prompt in the
figure. –n shows information in numerical format: IP addresses and port numbers
instead of computer names and protocol names. netstat by itself would show the
same information but by name. Note that the command in the figure only shows TCP
sessions. To show both TCP and UDP sessions, use netstat –a. To show both but
in numerical format, use netstat –an. nbtstat displays TCP/IP statistics as they
relate to NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. nbtstat –n lists local NetBIOS names.
51. Answer: C. Try alternate-clicking and selecting “What’s This?” Alternate-click means
you are using the secondary mouse button; for right-handed folk this would be a rightclick. You could also use the Microsoft Support website or press F1 to search for information within Windows, but they would both take longer. There is no “More
Information” option when you alternate-click.
52. Answer: D. If the printer is printing lighter in some areas, it is a good indicator that the
toner cartridge needs replacement. The fuser need only be cleaned if you see smudges
or streaks (you should also check the maintenance schedule and see if it should be
replaced). You might clean parts of the printer with a computer vacuum if there was a
toner spill (making sure to turn off the printer first), but the drum might be within the
toner cartridge, making that impossible. Compressed air is also sometimes used on
rollers and separator pads, but it is not usually recommended because it can blow
excess toner all over the place—have that computer vacuum handy.
53. Answer: B. RAID 1 is mirroring, but if you were to incorporate a separate hard disk controller for each drive, you would then have disk duplexing as well. RAID 1 is fault tolerant because a copy of all data goes to both disks in the mirror. RAID 0 is data striping
and has no fault tolerant mechanism. RAID 5 and 6 are both types of striping with parity
which are fault tolerant, but only RAID 1 offers disk mirroring with duplexing.
54. Answer: C. The path C:\Users\Charlie\My Pictures is where the pictures would be
stored. Documents and Settings was used by Windows XP, but as of Vista was redirected (via a junction) to the Users folder. It is possible to access Libraries in Windows
7, but it is a bit easier than the answer listed. Go to Windows Explorer, and then go to
Libraries > Pictures > My Pictures.
55. Answer: D. The figure shows the Microsoft Management Console (MMC). You can tell
because it is given the default name “Console1” and has multiple other console windows within it, including Computer Management. This is accessed by clicking Start,
going to Run, and typing MMC. But when it is first opened, it will not be populated
with any snap-ins.
56. Answer: A. If you see video issues such as pausing during game play, upgrade the
video drivers. Make sure that you download the latest video driver from the manufacturer’s website. Gamers cannot rely on Microsoft drivers, especially FPS gamers!
Sometimes reinstalling a game is necessary but shouldn’t be in this scenario.
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Replacing the hard drive and reinstalling the OS are drastic and unnecessary measures
for this problem.
57. Answer: C. Phone lines can carry as much as 80 volts (when they ring), which could
possibly damage network interface cards on a computer and other Ethernet networking equipment, so they should be plugged into modems only. Ethernet often uses plus
and minus 5 V signals unless you use Power over Ethernet (PoE), which incorporates
regular Ethernet but also sends power over the unused wires on the network cable. It’s
true; the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) is not Ethernet-based. But that
only means that a phone line will not work with a standard Ethernet network adapter.
Ethernet doesn’t support pulse dialing or tone dialing. RJ11 connections are indeed
full-duplex; you can talk and listen when having a conversation at the same time.
58. Answer: B. The first thing you should do is export the user’s certificate from the first
laptop to the second laptop. This can be done by clicking Start and typing certmgr.msc
in the Search box; then locate and export the correct Personal Certificate. The
Certificates console window can also be added to an MMC. The Encrypting File System
(EFS) is the standard single-file encryption method for Windows 7/Vista (if the version
supports it). Files encrypted with EFS are then displayed as green in color within
Windows Explorer. Networking need not be disabled, and we aren’t sure which user is
being referred to in the answers, but if the certificate has been exported, that user
should be able to read the files. Partitions can be converted from FAT32 to NTFS but
not vice versa.
59. Answer: A. The technician should update the antivirus (AV) software immediately after
installing it and set it to automatically check for updates every day. If the PC was
infected, and the scenario makes no mention of this, the technician should have
already removed the system from the network, ran a full scan, and quarantined infected files—in that order. Any other viruses that eluded quarantine would be researched
on the AV manufacturer’s website.
60. Answer: D. Use the nbtstat –A command. This allows you to check the name table
of the remote computer by connecting to it with an IP address. –a connects by computer name (though an IP address can still work if proper resolution methods are
available on your network). Note that the options for nbtstat are case sensitive.
<20> is the number associated with the server service, the service that allows the
Windows 7 Ultimate computer (IP address 192.168.1.5) to serve data to other systems on the network. If it was functioning, you would see it listed along with the
Workstation service <00> and perhaps the Messenger service <03>. However, if the
server service was not running, you wouldn’t even be able to connect to the Windows
7 Ultimate computer at all—not with nbtstat, by ping, or any other method, until
the problem is repaired. That one might have been considered a “doozie”.
61. Answer: C. Check the IEC cable first if you sense that there is a power issue. That is
the power cable for the computer; make sure it is connected to the computer and to
the AC outlet. Next, check the AC wall outlet. Use a receptacle tester or your trusty
multimeter to make sure the AC outlet is wired properly and supplying the correct voltage. If that is fine, you can check the power supply and the 24-pin power connector.
Only check the circuit breaker if the power has been cut to an area of the building, and
only if you have access to the electrical panels.
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62. Answer: A. The LCD cutoff switch is normally enabled when you close a laptop. The
default action in Windows is to put the laptop to sleep if it senses that the LCD cutoff
switch has been engaged (laptop has been closed). If the laptop goes into standby
mode unexpectedly without closing the laptop, you will have to repair or replace the
LCD cutoff switch mechanism. The hard drive, SATA controller, and video card are put
to sleep when the laptop goes to sleep but should not cause the computer to sleep
unexpectedly.
63. Answer: D. Check the hash key of the virus definition you downloaded against the
location that you downloaded from. Other properties of the definition (or signature) file
(such as the file owner, creation date, and file version) can all be spoofed. The difference is that the hash key is mathematically contrived and must match the key from the
download point.
64. Answer: B. If the computer keeps obtaining an APIPA address (an IP address that
starts with 169.254), then the DHCP server has most likely failed. Of course, you
should check if the computer’s patch cable is connected and that the network adapter
has a link light. If so, then you can rule out the network switch and the patch panel.
DNS resolves hostnames to IP address and isn’t part of DHCP.
65. Answer: B. A Trojan appears to perform desired functions but is actually performing
malicious functions behind the scenes. Trojans are used to access a computer through
a backdoor and take control of it. They are the bane of web servers as well. Remote
Access Trojans (RATs) are used to take control of Windows clients without the users
knowing. A virus is code that runs on a computer without the user’s knowledge,
infecting files when it is executed. Spyware is malicious software that is unwittingly
downloaded and installed. It is usually employed to track the surfing activities of a
user. A rootkit is software that is designed to gain administrator-level control over a
system.
66. Answer: A. Installing a wireless repeater to increase the distance of the wireless network is the easiest and cheapest solution. Of course, you should first ask if the customer would mind moving the wireless access point to the center of the home, thus
giving broader and more uniform coverage. Running cable is time-consuming, is
expensive for the customer, and can be difficult in some houses. Though a second
wired router would work, it is a more expensive solution (plus the cabling) than a simple wireless repeater. Plus, it would have to be configured properly. High-gain antennae are usually used outdoors (or in outer space) for long-distance transmissions.
They have too much power to be placed inside a home and are an excessive solution.
67. Answer: D. On the laptop, enable the HDMI audio service to send audio signal along
the HDMI cable to the TV. On DVRs, HDMI is set to transmit video and audio by
default. However, on some laptops, the audio software might be set to HDMI video
only by default, expecting you to be doing presentations or other things where audio is
not required. You can usually change this by right-clicking the sound icon in the
Notification Area, selecting Playback Devices, and then selecting the HDMI sound
device. Drivers might also be necessary. There is no maximum specified length of an
HDMI cable, and the question does not tell us the length, but standard cables are
either 5 meters or 15 meters long. If the laptop has an HDMI output, you should be
able to modify it in Windows. If the HDMI output is part of a USB device, PC Card, or
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ExpressCard, make sure you have installed the latest drivers for the device. The speakers don’t come into play here. If the TV with the HDMI output has speakers, those
speakers should work.
68. Answer: C. Foreign disks that are installed in a computer show up in the Disk
Management utility as foreign. They need to be imported by right-clicking them and
running through the import procedure. No need to convert them from basic to dynamic unless you decide later that you want to create special arrays of disks or expand/
contract the size of partitions. Set a disk to active if it has an OS and you wish to make
it bootable.
69. Answers: A and C. The correct navigational path to the System Restore configuration
utility in Windows 7 is Start > right-click Computer > Properties > click the System
protection link. That displays the System Properties dialog box System Protection tab.
But you gotta love the other method: Run > type systempropertiesprotect
ion.exe. Without touching the mouse, you can bring up the same dialog box:
Windows + R > type systempropertiesprotection.exe. Fun! Anyway, Start > right-click
Computer > Advanced is not a valid path. Start > right-click Computer > Properties >
click the Advanced system settings link is valid, but it brings you to the Advanced tab
of the System Properties dialog box.
70. Answer: D. The figure is showing the Advanced tab of a Lexmark Pro900 printer in
Windows 7. It was accessed by navigating to Start > Control Panel > Devices and
Printers > right-click the printer and select Printer Properties > Advanced tab. When
you right-click on some printers, you need to select Properties instead of Printer
Properties; otherwise, the navigation is the same. The Ports tab displays the physical
or logical port being used by the printer and allows you to add, remove, and configure
ports and enable printer pooling between two or more printers.
71. Answer: B. Authentication can be carried out by utilizing something a user is, such as
a fingerprint; something a user knows, such as a password or PIN; something a user
has, such as a smart card or token; and something a user does, such as a signature or
speaking words.
72. Answer: A. If you can’t find the SSID by scanning for it, enter it manually in your
wireless configuration software. You will also need to know the channel being used
and the type of encryption as well as the key. If you were to change the SSID on the
router, the rest of the clients wouldn’t be able to connect, and you still wouldn’t be
able to scan for it because SSID broadcasting has obviously been turned off as a security precaution in the question’s scenario. MAC addresses are burned into the network
adapter of the router; they are usually not modified. Resetting the wireless card is
rather vague. You could disable it and re-enable it, but you would be left with the
same problem. Know how to manually enter a wireless configuration in Windows!
73. Answer: C. Whaling is when phishing attacks are directed at CEOs and other powerful
entities in an organization. It is a type of spear phishing—a directed phishing attack.
Whereas most phishing attacks are performed via e-mail, vishing is carried out over
the phone.
74. Answer: D. The DoD 5220.22-M standard specifies that a hard drive be properly
purged with bit-level erasure software that does 7 complete passes. Compare this to
the Peter Gutman security method, which requires 35 passes! A magnetic degausser
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291
is not software at all, but a device that uses a magnetic or electromagnetic pulse to
remove all data from a magnetic disk. Low-level formatting can be accomplished by
some BIOS programs and third-party utilities, but data can still be reconstructed from
data residue (data remanence).
75. Answer: B. You should configure the Enforce password history policy and set it to a
number higher than zero. This way, when a user is prompted to change her password
every 42 days (which is the default minimum password age), that user will not be able
to use the same password. Password policies can be accessed in Windows 7 within
the Local Security Policy window > Security Settings > Account Policies > Password
Policy. Minimum password length is the policy that states how many characters a
password must be at minimum. Eight is a decent setting, but to be full-on secure
many organizations require 15 minimum. There are several technical reasons for this,
but the A+ exam will not go into that kind of depth. Complexity requirements policy, if
enabled, forces a user to select a password that meets 3 of the following 5 categories:
uppercase characters, lowercase characters, numbers, special characters (such as ! or
#), and Unicode characters (not often implemented).
76. Answer: C. Most likely a fan is failing somewhere—either the CPU fan or a case fan—
causing the computer to overheat and then ironically to “freeze” as the customer put
it. What the customer meant is that the computer locked up. The CD-ROM won’t cause
the system to lock up, but the CD-ROM driver could cause a stop error if it failed. If
the power supply failed, the system would turn off; it wouldn’t lock up. If the memory
was not seated properly, the system would probably not get past the POST and you
would either hear beep codes or see an onscreen message to that effect.
77. Answer: A. A bad fan is the most likely cause. The grinding will most likely come from
a dirty/dusty or failing power supply fan or CPU fan. If the hard drive was grinding that
badly, you would definitely have problems in Windows. Note: SCSI drives make a
grinding sound all the time; it is normal for them. If the power supply was bad, the
system wouldn’t boot. The power supply can run without its fan. If the CD-ROM was
bad, you wouldn’t be able to listen to the B-52’s (in the case that you wanted to).
78. Answer: D. You just created a hierarchical star topology. By taking three current star
topologies and connecting them all to a backbone switch, you add a top level of super
speed. The backbone switch is at the top of the hierarchy. Star-bus is when two star
networks’ switches are connected with a single bus connection. Both hierarchical star
and star-bus are hybrid topologies.
79. Answer: B. Defective RAM is the most likely perpetrator in this case. The key in the
question is the shared video memory. That means that the video controller relies on
the motherboard’s RAM memory modules. First, try cleaning and reseating the RAM,
and if that doesn’t work, make sure they are compatible with the motherboard and
with each other (if there is more than one). Then replace the RAM as a last resort. If
they fail, video will fail. If the resolution was set too high, the screen would be completely unreadable; you probably wouldn’t even see the cursor.
80. Answer: A. The path is Settings > General > Passcode Lock > Turn Passcode On. By
default, Simple Passcode is enabled, as shown in the figure within the question. This
can be disabled on the same Passcode Lock screen.
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81. Answer: C. Chkdsk /I performs a less vigorous check of index entries. It can be
used only on NTFS partitions. /V (short for verbose) displays the full path and name
of every file on the disk. /F fixes errors on the disk. /R locates bad sectors and recovers readable information.
82. Answer: B. When you add a second drive to a system that already has Windows
installed, you will probably have to initialize the drive and format it in the Disk
Management utility. Rebooting the computer will not help the system see the drive.
You can configure the drive in the BIOS to a certain extent, but that won’t help
Windows see the drive. When you format the drive, Disk Management will ask you to
assign a drive letter. No need to set the drive to active because this drive does not
have an OS to be booted to.
83. Answer: C. The Action Center in Windows 7 displays important messages about solving issues and security concerns. This is the successor to the Windows Vista Problem
Reports and Solutions utility. The Task Manager gives you some basic real-time performance data about the PC and can be used to stop processes. Windows Defender is
Microsoft’s free anti-malware tool.
84. Answer: B. Use the System Configuration tool (Msconfig.exe) to disable the service.
Do this in the Services tab. BTW, a cute way to open Msconfig is to Press Start and
type sys in the search box. Of course, you can also disable services in the Services
console window. If you need to stop and disable a service, the Services console window is your best bet. That is because Msconfig can disable them but not stop them
(plus a restart is required for most Msconfig actions). And the Task Manager can stop
them, but not disable them. As to the incorrect answers: The Task Scheduler is used
to set a time when particular applications and processes will run. System Properties is
the dialog box where you can change the name of the computer, configure System
Restore, and set up Remote Desktop. Local Security Policy is where password and
auditing policies can be configured.
85. Answer: B. The Windows 7 DVD has been mounted. We can tell because the Target is
GRMCULXFRER_EN_DVD; that is the name of the Windows 7 64-bit DVD. It just happens to be sitting in a DVD-ROM drive named F:. It is pointing to, or redirecting to, the
Data folder on the hard drive (as you can see from the title of the window). This way, if
a person clicks on the Data folder, which can be easily shared, he will see the contents
of the Windows 7 DVD. This makes it possible to implement advanced networking and
security techniques in conjunction with the DVD via the Data folder.
86. Answer: D. The most practical way to prevent intrusion to the network is to install a
firewall. In fact, if this is a SOHO network, chances are the network is controlled by a
multifunction network device that already acts as a switch and a router and probably
has built-in firewall technology; it just has to be enabled. Usually these are enabled by
default, but perhaps someone inadvertently disabled it, and that’s one of the reasons
an attacker keeps trying to get into the network. An intrusion-detection system (IDS) is
usually more elaborate and costs more money, but it would help to prevent network
intrusion. (Some devices combine IDS and firewall technologies, but usually not SOHO
multifunction network devices.) Disabling the SSID will help to discourage the average
user from accessing the wireless network, but any hacker worth his or her salt will get
right past that; plus, the attacker could be trying to connect directly through the
Internet connection. Antivirus software, regardless of where it is installed, does not
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293
repel attackers; it locates and quarantines malware. Disconnecting the Internet connection would work—the hacker wouldn’t be able to get in, but none of the employees
would be able to use the Internet. Not a good compromise.
87. Answer: C. The video card should be your first stop on the upgrade express train.
Images that do not display properly are usually due to a subpar video card. CAD/CAM
workstations require a powerful video card. The CPU will also play into this, especially
when rendering images, so that is the second thing you should check. View the
Windows Experience Index details to find out what has the lowest score and go from
there. The video card will most likely be the lowest. CAD/CAM workstations often
require video cards that can cost thousands of dollars. Always read the directions
carefully and set up massive ESD prevention techniques prior to installing a card this
expensive. RAM is not as important to the CAD/CAM workstation, as long as it has
enough to run Windows and the AutoCAD software. The hard drive doesn’t play much
of a factor while the CAD software is running.
88. Answer: B. You can’t put a PCI Express (PCIe) card in a PCI slot! That’s all there is to
it. A card from one expansion bus cannot be used in another. However, if you had a
PCIe x1 video card, you could install that to a x1 slot, x4 slot, or x16 slot.
89. Answer: A. Blurry and smudged pages tend to indicate that the fuser is not getting hot
enough. The fuser lasts for about 200,000 pages of print before it needs to be
replaced: a good time to install a maintenance kit. If the toner cartridge was leaking,
you might see a lot of toner within the printer that needs to be cleaned properly with a
computer vacuum. If the toner cartridge is low, the print would become weaker. If the
fuser was too hot, it could cause the paper to become singed and could be a safety
hazard. In any case when you need to maintenance the fuser, turn off the printer,
unplug it, let it cool, and then replace the fuser.
90. Answer: D. iPads and other mobile devices use the lithium-ion polymer battery for its
lasting power and its flexibility during manufacturing. It is a step above a standard
lithium-ion in that it uses a flexible material that can be shaped into just about anything the manufacturer wants. On the average it lasts for 10 hours of use. Nickelcadmium (NiCd) batteries were used in laptops during the 1990s and early millennium, but they have all given way to lithium-ion. The iPad uses a 3.7-volt battery. A 16volt battery would be ridiculous and inefficient, not to mention a real challenge to fit in
the device.
91. Answers: A and C. You can navigate to the window in the figure by going to Start >
right-click Computer, select Properties > Computer Name tab > Change or by accessing Run, typing systempropertiescomputername.exe, and finally clicking the Change
button.
92. Answer: D. Remember to start with the simple. For PCs, that means check the connections; for networks, that means power cycling the device (and checking connections). If the lights are on and not blinking, it would appear that the switch crashed
and needs that reboot! A ping of 127.0.0.1 was probably already done in this scenario.
That’s how you know the network card appears to be functioning properly. Nothing
has been mentioned about the Internet (or other networks), so there is no reason to
think that the switch’s uplink cable needs replacement. Rebooting the computer should
not be necessary because we again determined that the network card is functioning
properly.
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93. Answer: D. Use the shutdown command! It works in the Command Prompt and also
works programmatically within batch files (.bat) or beyond. To set a shutdown to
occur after a specific time period, use the /t xxx switch. taskkill ends processes from the Command Prompt. down is not a command in Windows, but it has been
used by other operating system manufactures to initiate a shutdown. kill is the
older Windows NT predecessor to the taskkill command.
94. Answer: C. /S will copy subdirectories but will skip any empty ones. /E copies all
subdirectories, including empty ones. /B copies files in backup mode. /DCOPY:T
also copies timestamps of files and folders.
95. Answer: D. The default path of the print$ administrative share in Windows 7 is
C:\Windows\System32\spool\drivers. This is an important folder because it contains
drivers for different types of printers; it’s a folder you might want to access as an
administrator over the network. So, the share is hidden as an administrative share
by adding a $ to the end of the sharename. The columns were dragged to the left to
hide the entire folder path. You can have a folder name with a $ on the end, but that
doesn’t make it an administrative share; the share itself has to have the $ to make it
hidden.
96. Answer: A. The net view command will list all of the shares on the computer within
the Command Prompt. net use enables you to map network drives to remote
shares. net share allows you to create shares within the Command Prompt. net
statistics displays information about the server or workstation services.
97. Answer: B. The technician should clean the pickup rollers. If they are dirty or oily, they
could cause a paper jam directly behind or above the paper tray. The feeder rollers
would cause a jam further in the printer. A fuser issue would cause a jam up toward
the end of the printing path. The drum (or toner cartridge) will usually not cause a
paper jam, but in the rare case, simply replace the toner cartridge.
98. Answer: C. Gingerbread is the name of Android version 2. Version 3 is Honeycomb,
and version 4 is Ice Cream Sandwich (ICS). Windows CE, Apple iOS, and Blackberry
OS don’t use such descriptive names.
99. Answer: C. netsh firewall show state is a command that can be run in the
Command Prompt that will display any currently open ports. The successor to netsh
firewall in Windows 7/Vista is netsh advfirewall firewall. Other commands can also show open ports such as netstat –a. However, arp–a will show
a table of hosts that the local computer has connected to in recent history; it displays
the IP address and MAC address of those remote computers. netsh firewall
show logging will display the location of the firewall log, its maximum file size, and
whether any packets were dropped. ipconfig /all displays the configuration of
your network adapters.
100. Answer: B. The Regsvr32 command in the Command Prompt is used to manipulate
ActiveX controls and DLLs. For example, to register a sample ActiveX control, you
would type regsvr32 sample.ocx. Unregistering requires the /u parameter. This
leans more toward the programming side of things, but you should know what the
220-802 Practice Exam D
command does. Regedit.exe and Regedt32 bring up the Registry Editor
application in Windows 7/Vista. ODBC is short for Open DataBase Connectivity;
it is an interface used within the C programming language to access database
management systems. ODBC32 is not a command in Windows.
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11
CHAPTER ELEVEN
Review of the
220-802 Exam
Great work! You have completed all four hundred 220-802
practice questions. That is a feat in itself. But the real test is
yet to come. We’ll discuss that in the next chapter.
Now that you have completed the four practice exams, let’s do
a little review of the 220-802 domains, talk about your next
steps, and give you some test-taking tips.
Review of the Domains
Remember that the 220-802 is divided into the four domains,
shown in Table 11.1.
TABLE 11.1
220-802 Domains
Domain
Percentage of Exam
1.0 Operating Systems
33%
2.0 Security
22%
3.0 Mobile Devices
9%
4.0 Troubleshooting
36%
Total
100%
As you could see while taking the exams, troubleshooting
questions are the bulk of what you will see on the exam and are
more difficult than the questions from the other domains. You
have to place yourself within the scenario and imagine that you
are actually fixing hardware and software problems step-bystep.
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Even if you are a solid troubleshooter and really know your Windows operating
systems, that still leaves a third of the test unaccounted for. So, Security and
Mobile Devices become the pivotal domains: without them you could be in
trouble; with them, you will have all the tools you need to rule the exam.
Everyone who takes the exam gets a different group of questions. Because it is
randomized, one person may see more questions on, say, Window XP than the
next person, even though it is over a decade old. Or you might see more questions on Windows security. It differs from person to person. To reduce your risk,
be ready for any question from any domain, and study all of the objectives.
Review What You Know
At this point you should be pretty well versed when it comes to the 220-802
exam. But I still recommend going back through all of the questions and making
sure there are no questions, answers, concepts, or explanations you are unclear
about. If there are, then additional study is probably necessary. If something really just doesn’t make sense, is ambiguous or vague, or doesn’t appear to be technically correct, feel free to contact me at my website (www.davidlprowse.com), and
I will do my best to clarify. Think it through carefully before you do so, though.
Many of questions are written in an ambiguous manner to replicate what you will
see on the real exam.
Here are a few great ways to study further:
. Take the exams in flash card mode—Use a piece of paper to cover up
the answers as you take the exams. This helps to make you think a bit
harder and aids in committing everything to memory.
. Download the A+ 220-802 objectives—You can get these from
www.comptia.org. Go through them one by one and checkmark each
item that you are confident in. If there are any items in the objectives
that you are unsure about, study them hard. That’s where the test will
trip you up. There are 20 pages of objectives, so this will take a while.
But it really helps to close any gaps in your knowledge, and gives that
extra boost for the exam.
. Take the CompTIA A+ Practice Exam—This can also be found at
www.comptia.org. Retake that exam until you get 100% correct. If any
questions give you difficulty, contact me at my website so that I can help
you understand them.
Review of the 220-802 Exam
299
More Test-Taking Tips
I’ve mentioned it several times already, but it bears repeating. Take your time on
the exam. The thing is, you either know it or you don’t. If you know it, you will
probably end up with time left over. So there is no rush. Rushing can cause you
to miss some key word, phrase, or other tidbit of information that could cost you
the correct answer. So take it slow, and read everything you see carefully.
While taking an exam, follow these recommendations:
. Use the process of elimination.
. Be logical in the face of adversity.
. Use your gut instinct.
. Don’t let one question beat you!
. If all else fails, guess.
I’ll expand on these points in the final chapter.
If you finish early, use the time allotted to you to review all of your answers.
Chances are you will have time left over at the end, so use it wisely! Make sure
that everything you have marked has a proper answer that makes sense to you.
But try not to overthink! Give it your best shot and be confident in your
answers.
Taking the Real Exam
Do not register until you are fully prepared. When you are ready, schedule the
exam to commence within a day or two so that you won’t forget what you
learned!
Registration can be done online. Register at Pearson Vue: www.vue.com. They
accept payment by major credit card for the exam fee. First-timers will need to
create an account with Pearson Vue.
Here are some good general practices for taking the real exams:
. Pick a good time for the exam
. Don’t over-study the day before the exam
. Get a good night’s rest
. Eat a decent breakfast
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. Show up early
. Bring ear plugs
. Brainstorm before starting the exam
. Take small breaks while taking the exam
. Be confident
I’ll embellish on these concepts in the final chapter.
Well, that’s about it for the 220-802 portion of this book. Meet me at the final
chapter: Chapter 12, the wrap-up.
12
CHAPTER TWELVE
Wrap-Up
This chapter provides the following tools and information to
help you be successful when preparing for and taking the
CompTIA A+ 220-801 and 220-802 exams:
. Getting Ready and the Exam Preparation Checklist
. Tips for Taking the Real Exam
. Beyond the CompTIA A+ Certification
NOTE
This chapter is very similar to Chapter 19 of the A+ Exam Cram 6th
edition (the Exam Cram study guide). If you also purchased that
book, you can use either chapter for your test preparations.
Getting Ready and the Exam
Preparation Checklist
The CompTIA A+ certification exams can be taken by anyone;
there are no prerequisites, although CompTIA recommends
one year of prior lab or field experience working with computers. For more information on CompTIA and the A+ exam,
go to:
http://www.comptia.org
Also visit my A+ page:
www.davidlprowse.com/220-801
This page has information, additions, and updated errata that
you should check before taking the exam.
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To acquire your A+ certification, you need to pass two exams: 220-801 and 220802, each of which is 100 questions. Although it is possible, I don’t recommend
taking both exams on the same day, but instead spacing them a week or so apart.
These exams are administered by Pearson Vue (www.vue.com). You need to
register with Pearson Vue to take the exam.
It is important to be fully prepared for the exam, so I created a checklist that
you can use to make sure you have covered all the bases. The checklist is shown
in Table 12.1. Go through the checklist twice, once for each exam. For each
exam, place a check in the status column as each item is completed. Do this first
with the 220-801 exam and then again with the 220-802 exam. I highly recommend completing each step in order and taking the 220-801 exam first.
Historically, my readers and students have benefited greatly from this type of
checklist.
TABLE 12.1
Exam Preparation Checklist
Step
Item
Details
1.
Attend an
A+ course.
A hands-on A+ course can do so much for
you when it comes to installing, configuring,
and especially troubleshooting. Especially if
you don’t have the CompTIA recommended
experience (12 months), consider an A+ class.
2.
Review your
study guide.
Whatever main study guide (or guides) you
used, be sure to review those carefully.
3.
Complete the
Practice
Exams in this
book.
Take the three 220-801 exams, and review
them carefully.
On the second run-through of this checklist,
take the four 220-802 exams and review them.
If you score under 90% on any one exam,
go back and study more!
If you have any trouble at this stage, consider
getting my A+ Exam Cram 6th edition study
guide, or another study guide of your choice,
and read it very carefully.
4.
Create your
own cheat
sheet.
See Table 12.2 for an example. The act of
writing down important details helps to
commit them to memory. Keep in mind that
you will not be allowed to take this into the
actual testing room.
220-801
Status
220-802
Status
Wrap-Up
TABLE 12.1
303
Continued
Step
Item
Details
220-801
Status
5.
Register for
the exam.
Do not register until you have completed the
previous steps; you shouldn’t register until you
are fully prepared. When you are ready, schedule
the exam to commence within a couple days so
that you won’t forget what you learned!
220-802
Status
Registration can be done online. Register at
Pearson Vue: www.vue.com.
They accept payment by major credit card
for the exam fee.
(You will need to create an account in order to
sign up for exams.)
6.
Review
practice
questions.
Keep reviewing practice questions until the day
of the exam.
7.
Take the
exam!
Checkmark each exam to the right as you
pass it. Good luck!
Table 12.2 gives a partial example of a cheat sheet that you can create to aid in
your studies. Fill in the appropriate information in the right column. For example, the first step of the six-step troubleshooting process is “Identify the problem.”
TABLE 12.2
Sample Cheat Sheet
Concept
Fill in the Appropriate
Information Here
The six-step troubleshooting process
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
The motherboard form factors you should know
The three types of DDR and their data transfer
rates
The EP printing process
Six types of expansion busses and their maximum
data transfer rates
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Chapter 12
TABLE 12.2
Continued
Concept
Fill in the Appropriate
Information Here
Windows 7/Vista startup files
Windows XP startup files
Etc.*
*Continue Table 12.2 in this fashion on paper. The key is to write down various technologies, processes,
step-by-steps, and so on to commit them to memory.
Tips for Taking the Real Exam
Some of you readers will be new to exams. This section is for you. For other
readers who have taken exams before, feel free to skip this section or use it as a
review.
The exam is conducted on a computer and is mostly multiple-choice. You have
the option to skip questions. If you do so, be sure to “mark” them before moving on. There will be a small check box that you can select to mark them. Feel
free to mark any other questions that you have answered but are not completely sure about. When you get to the end of the exam, there will be an item review
section that shows you any questions that you did not answer and any that you
marked.
The following list includes tips and tricks that I have learned over the years. I’ve
taken at least 20 certification exams in the past decade, and the following points
have served me well:
General Practices for Taking Exams
. Pick a good time for the exam—It would appear that the least amount
of people are at test centers on Monday and Friday mornings. Consider
scheduling during these times. Otherwise, schedule a time that works
well for you, when you don’t have to worry about anything else. Keep in
mind that Saturdays can be busy. Oh, and don’t schedule the exam until
you are ready. I understand that sometimes deadlines have to be set, but
in general, don’t register for the exam until you feel confident you can
pass. Things come up in life that can sometimes get in the way of your
study time. Keep in mind that most exams can be cancelled as long as
you give 24 hours notice (check that time frame when registering to be
sure).
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305
. Don’t over-study the day before the exam—Some people like to
study hard the day before; some don’t. My recommendations are to
study off the Cram Sheet and your own cheat sheets, but in general,
don’t overdo it. It’s not a good idea to go into overload the day before
the exam.
. Get a good night’s rest—A good night’s sleep (7–9 hours) before the
day of the exam is probably the best way to get your mind ready for an
exam.
. Eat a decent breakfast—Eating is good! Breakfast is number two when
it comes to getting your mind ready for an exam, especially if it is a
morning exam. Just watch out for the coffee and tea. Too much caffeine
for a person who is not used to it can be detrimental to the thinking
process.
. Show up early—I recommend that you show up 30 minutes prior to
your scheduled exam time. This is important; give yourself plenty of
time, and make sure you know where you are going. You don’t want to
have to worry about getting lost or being late. Stress and fear are the
mind killers. Work on reducing any types of stress the day of and the
day before the exam. By the way, you really do need extra time because
when you get to the testing center, you need to show ID, sign forms, get
your personal belongings situated, and be escorted to your seat. Have
two forms of ID (signed) ready for the administrator of the test center.
Turn your cell phone or smartphone off when you get to the test center;
they’ll check that, too.
NOTE
If you are a first-time test-taker, I recommend you perform a trial run and drive to the
testing center a few days before your exam. This will ensure you know exactly where you
are going on the day of the exam.
. Bring earplugs—You never know when you will get a loud testing cen-
ter or, worse yet, a loud test-taker next to you. Earplugs help to block
out any unwanted noise that might show up. Just be ready to show your
earplugs to the test administrator.
. Brainstorm before starting the exam—Write down as much as you
can remember from the cheat sheets before starting the exam. The testing center is obligated to give you something to write on; make use of it!
By getting all the memorization out of your head and on “paper” first, it
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clears the brain somewhat so that it can tackle the questions. I put paper
in quotation marks because it might not be paper; it could be a mini dry
erase board or something similar.
. Take small breaks while taking the exam—Exams can be brutal. You
have to answer 100 questions while staring at a screen for an hour.
Sometimes these screens are old and have seen better days; these older,
flickering monitors can cause a strain on your eyes. I recommend small
breaks and breathing techniques. For example, after going through every
25 questions or so, close your eyes and slowly take a few deep breaths,
holding each one for 5 seconds and releasing each one slowly. Think
about nothing while doing so. Remove the test from your mind during
these breaks. It takes only half a minute, but it can really help to get
your brain refocused. It’s almost a Zen type of thing, but for me, when I
have applied this technique properly, I have gotten a few perfect scores.
It’s really amazing how the mindset can make or break you.
. Be confident—You have studied hard, gone through the practice exams,
and created your cheat sheet. You’ve done everything you can to prep.
These things alone should build confidence. But really, you just have to
be confident for no reason whatsoever. Think of it this way: you are
great…I am great…(to quote Dr. Daystrom). But really, there is no
disputing this! That’s the mentality you must have. You are not being
pretentious about this if you think it to yourself. Acting that way to
others…well, that’s another matter. So build that inner confidence and
your mindset should be complete.
Smart Methods for Difficult Questions
. Use the process of elimination—If you are not sure about an answer,
first eliminate any answers that are definitely incorrect. You might be surprised how often this works. This is one of the reasons why it is recommended that you not only know the correct answers to the practice
exams’ questions, but also know why the wrong answers are wrong. The
testing center should give you something to write on; use it by writing
down the letters of the answers that are incorrect to keep track. Even if
you aren’t sure about the correct answer, if you can logically eliminate
anything that is incorrect, then the answer will become apparent. To
sum it up, the character Sherlock Holmes said it best: “When you have
Wrap-Up
307
eliminated the impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must
be the truth.” There’s more to it, of course, but from a scientific standpoint, this method can be invaluable.
. Be logical in the face of adversity—The most difficult questions are
when two answers appear to be correct, even though the test question
requires you to select only one answer. Real exams do not rely on trick
questions. Sometimes you need to slow down, think logically, and really
compare the two possible correct answers. Also, you must imagine the
scenario that the question is a part of. Really think through step-by-step
what is happening in the scenario. Write out as much as you can. The
more you can visualize the scenario, the better you will be able to figure
out which of the two answers is the best one.
. Use your gut instinct—Sometimes a person taking a test just doesn’t
know the answer; it happens to everyone. If you have read through the
question and all the answers and used the process of elimination, sometimes this is all you have left. In some scenarios, you might read a question and instinctively know the answer, even if you can’t explain why.
Tap into this ability. Some test-takers write down their gut instinct
answer before delving into the question and then compare their
thoughtful answer with their gut instinct answer.
. Don’t let one question beat you!—Don’t let yourself get stuck on one
question. Skip it and return to it later. When you spend too much time
on one question, the brain gets sluggish. The thing is, with these exams
you either know it or you don’t. And don’t worry too much about it;
chances are you are not going to get a perfect score. Remember that the
goal is only to pass the exams; how many answers you get right after that
is irrelevant. If you have gone through this book thoroughly, you should
be well prepared and you should have plenty of time to go through all of
the exam questions with time to spare to return to the ones you skipped
and marked.
. If all else fails, guess—Remember that the exams might not be perfect.
A question might seem confusing or appear not to make sense. Leave
questions like this until the end, and when you have gone through all
the other techniques mentioned, make an educated, logical guess. Try to
imagine what the test is after, and why they would be bringing up this
topic, vague or strange as it might appear.
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Chapter 12
Wrapping Up the Exam
. Review all of your answers—If you finish early, use the time allotted
to you to review the answers. Chances are you will have time left over at
the end, so use it wisely! Make sure that everything you have marked has
a proper answer that makes sense to you. But try not to overthink! Give
it your best shot and be confident in your answers.
Beyond the CompTIA A+ Exam
CompTIA started a new policy on January 1, 2011. A person who passes the A+
exams will be certified for three years. To maintain the certification beyond that
time, you must enroll in the CompTIA Continuing Education Program. This
program has an annual fee and requires that you obtain Continuing Education
Units (CEUs) that count toward the recertification. For more information on
this policy, see the following link:
http://certification.comptia.org/getCertified/stayCertified.aspx
Final Note: I wish you the best of luck on your exams and in your IT career
endeavors. Please let me know when you pass your exams. I would love to hear
from you! Also, remember that I am available to answer any of your questions
about this book via my website at www.davidlprowse.com.
Sincerely,
David L. Prowse
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