The gyro will ______ if the rotor turns in the wrong

The gyro will ______ if the rotor turns in the wrong
F1
The gyro will _______ if the rotor turns in the wrong direction. precess continuously
To maintain the gyro in its axis, it must be capable of _______. precession
This property of the gyroscope and that of revolving system of masses is implicit in a principle
known as the _______. Law of Conservation of angular Momentum
Gyroscopic inertia depends upon the: all of these
Which statement is NOT correct regarding the gyro compass? its accuracy remains the same
in all latitudes
Which can be set while the vessel is heading magnetic east or west? fore and aft magnets
A vessel magnetic compass indicates 086 degrees when heading magnetic east. What action
would you take during compass adjustment? if the blue ends of the magnets are aft and the
fore and aft tray is at the top, you should add some magnets
When adjusting a compass with induced magnetism in vertical soft iron, which of the
following corrects this coefficient of deviation? Flinder’s bar
Which area of voyage planning that involves an operation carried out by the navigation officers
which gathers relevant information benefiting the future stages of the passage plan. Appraisal
This is an essential area of voyage planning that involves the operation carried out by the
navigation officers such as highlighting the ‘NO GO’ areas, laying out the intended tracks.
Planning
This is an essential area of voyage planning which involves the formulation of the tactics
which are intended to carry the plan through. Execution
This is an essential phase in voyage planning which involves the construction of the finished
voyage plan and the instigation of the plan revealing the programs of the vessel and the visual
confirmation that the plan is being drawn to a conclusion. Monitoring
A safe speed throughout the passage, bearing in mind the ship’s draft and the possibility of
squat and reduction in under keel clearance is part of the __________ phase of voyage
planning? Planning
Ensuring that all relevant publications are on board and correct for the forthcoming voyage is
part of the _________phase of voyage planning? Appraisal
The projection of ETA’s towards critical points to allow a more detailed assessment of the
heights and flow of tides is part of the ___________ phase of voyage planning? Execution
Bridge team management refers to _____. a concept that makes command and control of
the ship on the master in order to effect a safe well-planned navigation.
The state of knowing what is going on around the ship. situational awareness
An effective bridge organization includes procedures, that: all of these problems are correct
Appraisal is a part of the _______ of voyage planning preparation stage
Execution of the voyage includes: I. Organization II. Monitoring III. Appraisal Both I and II
Who among the following members of the bridge team is a conning officer when the ship is in
pilotage waters? master
Which of the 18 articles of the STCW Convention obligates parties to give full and complete
effect to the convention? Article I
Which of the following factors shall be among those taken into account by all vessels in
determining safe speed? all of the these
In bridge resource management, which of the following statements are examples of “hazardous
thoughts” I. I can do it II. It won’t happen to me III. Why take chances IV. It’s not my job V.
Don’t tell me what to do VI. We’re all in the same ship I, II, IV, V
In authority and assertiveness, which of the following thoughts is correct if a master or pilot is
considered to be of too high authority? I. total command expected II. lack communication
skills III. I cannot delegate IV. Performance oriented V. needs to prove himself I, II, III, IV &
V
Which is NOT a specific step in short term strategy in bridge team management? I. leave the
problem and do alternatives II. identify the problem III. build plans to deal with the problem
IV. check the plans with the BTM members by an interactive briefing V. perform a summary
briefing on the mutually agreed combined plans VI. monitor that the combined plan is followed
I
Which of the following is not an indication of error chain development? I. ambiguity II.
distraction III. inadequacy and confusion IV. Communication breakdown V. proper conning or
lookout VI. Procedural violation V
When you turn on the fast time constant (differentiator) control of a radar it will ____. reduce
clutter over the entire PPI by shortening the echoes
The radar control that shortens all echoes on the display and reduces clutter caused by rain or
snow is the ____. fast time constant (differentiator)
The radar control used to reduce sea return at close ranges is the ____. sensitivity time
control
The radar control that reduces weak echoes out to a limited distance from the ship is the ____.
sensitivity time control (sea-clutter control)
You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the heading flash
always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type of bearings are
produced? Relative
A radar display which is oriented, so that north is always at the top of the screen, is called a/an:
stabilized display
A radar display in which North is always at the top of the screen is a(n) ___. stabilized
display
Your radar is set on a true motion display. Which of the following will NOT appear to move
across the PPI scope? Echoes from a buoy
Your radar is set on a true motion display. Which of the following will appear to move across
the PPI scope? Own ship’s marker
Your radar displays your ship off center. As you proceed on your course, your ship’s marker
moves on the PPI scope while echoes form land masses remain stationary. What is this display
called? true motion
Which condition indicates that your radar needs maintenance? Serrated range rings
You have been observing your radar screen and notice that a contact on the screen has
remained in the same position, relative to you, for several minutes. Your vessel is making 10
knots through the water. Which statement is TRUE? The contact is on the same course and
speed as your vessel.
You are underway at 10 knots. At 1800 you note a radar contact ahead 10 miles away. At 1812
the contact is dead ahead at a range of 8 miles. The estimated speed of the contact is ______.
dead in the water
A radar contact will remain stationary on a relative motion radar display only when it is: on
the same course and speed as your vessel
The closest point of approach (CPA) of a contact on a relative motion radar may be determined
_____. after the contact has been marked at least twice
The description “Racon” beside an illustration on a chart would mean a ____. radar
transponder beacon
The description “Racon” beside an illustration on a chart would mean a____. radar
transponder beacon
You are approaching a sea buoy which emits racon signal. This signal is triggered by which
type of radar? 3 cm
You are scanning the radar screen for a buoy fitted with racon. How should this signal appear
on the PPI display? Starting with a dash and extending radially outward from the target
A ship’s aspect means? Own ship bearing of target ship
In order to insure that the racon signal is visible on your 3 cm radar, the _____. radar should
be stabilized, head up
How can you detect a dangerous target from a relative motion display? The target is closing
in with no bearing change
What is the most used geographical presentation of target speed and course on a ARPA?
Relative or true speed vectors
What does manual acquisition mean? The operator must select and acquire each target
manually.
What is ARPA? Computerized radar plotting device
What is the IMO minimum range requirement for ARPA? 3.6 and 12 NM.
What is the IMO requirement for ARPA detection? No special requirement
With regards to ARPA, what is the IMO requirement to acquisition? Acquisition can be
manual or automatic
With regards to ARPA, what are the IMO minimum continuously tracking requirements? 30
targets
What is the IMO performance standard for the ARPA target history requirement? Four
quality spaced history positions
Comparing manual and automatic acquisition in ARPA, which is most sensitive? Automatic
acquisition
With regards to ARPA, what is the difference between a tracking gate and a tracking window?
It is the same thing
With regards to ARPA, what is the purpose of digitizing the radar echoes? The ARPA
tracking only works with digital signals
With regards to ARPA, what is the purpose of the steady course filter? Provide stable target
information
With regards to ARPA, can a target reduction of speed activate the fast filter? Yes
With regards to ARPA, how many target parameters must be displayed in alpha numeric
format? 6
Regarding IMO performance standards for ARPA, is it a requirement for simulation of own
ship maneuver? Yes
Is it an IMO requirement for the ARPA to provide warning on connected external equipment?
Yes
Is it an IMO requirement for an ARPA to be sea and ground stabilized? Yes
What are the IMO requirements regarding separation of Radar and ARPA information? ARPA
and radar information should be independently controlled
Is it an IMO requirement for both visual and audible warnings on ARPA? yes
With regards to ARPA, is there an IMO requirement to display data for more than one target
simultaneously? No
With regards to ARPA, why is raster scan display lock up so dangerous? The displayed
information is no longer relevant
What is dangerous with operating the ARPA in mixed mode over time? Forgetting that this
actually is a mixed mode.
What can you expect from the ARPA target tracking system in auto acquisition mode? Small
and weak targets may not be acquired
With regards to ARPA, does the line connecting the PAD or POS with target indicate target
speed? No
With regards to ARPA, can a target course change deactivate the slow filter? No
With regards to ARPA, what does the lost target warning tell? Target can no longer be
plotted
If you input gyro course to the ARPA, what can you expect? No problem
With regards to ARPA, what is the meaning of a flashing triangle apex pointing down? Target
on collision
With regards to ARPA, what is the meaning of a flashing diamond? New target
With regards to ARPA, what is the meaning of XXT at the bottom of the display? Acquisition
area active
To map a hemisphere in oceanography, a picture taken from the inside view is called:
Photograph
To map a hemisphere a projection obtained if the camera is located at the center of the earth is
called: mercator projection
The first chronometer used in navigation was tried at sea, in the year of: 1535
To map a hemisphere a projection obtained if the camera is located at the surface of the earth is
called: gnomonic projection
To map a hemisphere with gnomonic projection requires an: infinite knowledge of the area
To map a hemisphere with stereographic projection requires: definite sheet of paper
Who was the first explorer to determine Latitude and Longitude accurately? Christopher
Columbus
Who wrote one of the first text books of oceanography, published in 1711? Ferdinand
Magellan
He is a British Carpenter’s son who first to develop a time piece that could keep time with
sufficient accuracy on board a moving ship. James Cook
In what year the unit of length was obtained? 1695
The first unit of length was obtained by the Phil. National Assembly
The radius of the earth is: R = 7 x 10 to the 7th power/2
If we are standing on a level ground, our vision encompasses an area of about: 50 sq. km. of
the surface area of our planet
The first evidence of vegetation on land appears in: Cambrain times
Who was the first to determine the size of our planet accurately? Eratothenes
The first determination of the size of our planet earth was in Aswan, Southern Egypt. The
angle found was: 1/20 of a circle
What is the approximate velocity of winds at a low pressure area, if the barometric reading is
991mb using the Classification Scheme developed by Panofsky and Brier? 106.9 Km/hr
This is the approximate velocity of winds at a low pressure area, if the storm central barometric
pressure is 991 mb using the Classification Scheme developed by Panofsky and Brier. 35.5
knots
The actual circumference of the earth is: 30,000 km
Speed of light, denotes as C is derived by ________ subtracting wavelength from frequency
of radiation
If frequency is derived by dividing the speed of light by its frequency , what will be the
frequency of a radio wave of 100 meter wavelength __ 3 megahertz
It is the mass of water vapor per unit mass of dry air _____________ mixing ratio
A value of 12 grams of water vapor per one kilogram of dry air would entail a total mixing
ratio of ______ 1012 grams
When air contains all the water vapor it can hold at a given temperature and barometer
pressure, the air is said to be________ saturated
When air is saturated its actual vapor pressure will equal its saturation a vapor pressure the air
will then be at its ____ dew point temperature
It is defined as the mass of water vapor contained in a unit volume and is expressed in grams
per cubic meter which represents the actual amount of water vapor in air, is called _______
absolute humidity
It is the ratio of the amount of water vapor actually in the air, to the amount of water vapor the
air could hold, at a given temperature and pressure. It is the ratio of the “ actual vapor
pressure” to the “saturated vapor pressure” ______ absolute humidity
If a kilogram of air at constant pressure could hold 12 grams of water at a certain temperature,
but contains only 9 grams at that temperature, it has a relative humidity of __________ 75 %
The capacity of the air to hold moisture is , EXCEPT_________ increased with increasing
temperature
The surface circulation of the ocean is a direct result of the circulation of the: Hurricane
The circulation of the Black Sea depends on the difference between evaporation, precipitation
and: atmospheric pressure
The circulation of the Black Sea depends on the difference between river addition and:
pressure, temperature
The deep circulation of the Mediterranean depends on the density of the High-salinity Eastern
water versus: lower salinity
The density of the surface water in the Mediterranean is much greater than that in the:
Atlantic Ocean
Estuaries are embayment of the ocean that are diluted by run-off from the: land
Estuaries may be vertically stratified in: Temperature
This increases the salinity in the Mediterranean. evaporation
Biological activity in the sea tends to deplete the surface of the nutrients, but: enrich the deep
water
There are two methods by which the ocean currents can be measured, one is by: a fixed
current meter gauge
There are two methods by which ocean current can be measured, one is by: motion relative to
the earth
A simple but ingenuous method for measuring current flows of the ocean was developed by
Carruther in 1967 which he calls after the leaning tower pisa
The velocity of sound in sea water is about: 1.5 ft sec
Sound velocity varies slightly with the pressure, temperature and: salinity
Sound velocity varies slightly with the temperature, salinity and: pressure
Sound velocity varies slightly with salinity, pressure and: altitude
The sound velocity was measured based on: 1 atm pressure, 0 degree R and 5% ºº
The distribution of elevations on the earth’s surface has two peak, one is: a narrow peak
about 10m above sea level
The Distribution of elevations on the earth’s surface has two peak, is: a broader peak at
about 2.5 km below sea level
The natural division between the two distribution of elevations on the earth’s surface, that is,
the minimum between the peaks: does not occur at ground level, but at a depth of about
1.5 km
In general, the sound velocity increases with the: weight of the material
A tsunami is generated by a sudden displacement at the sea floor. This disturbance sends out
wave that travels with a speed of about: 1050 km hr in the open ocean
A vessel discharging cargo at anchor observes an approaching thunderstorm. A flash of
lightning is followed after 12 seconds by thunder. Six minutes later another flash of lightning is
followed in 8 seconds by thunder. How much time does the vessel have to rig hatch tents or
close hatches before the storm reaches her? 12 minutes
You are observing an approaching thunderstorm from seaward while loading in port. When
you saw a flash of lightning, it was followed after 14 seconds by thunder. How far is the
thunderstorm from your position? 2.52 n.m.
In the Northern hemisphere, the earth’s rotation is affecting the direction of the current by
deflecting the set, or direction of flow, towards the __________? Right
In the Southern hemisphere, the earth’s rotation is affecting the direction of the current by
deflecting the set, or direction of flow, towards the __________? Left
An Isobaric configuration formed by a relatively low pressure zone between two cyclones and
two anticyclones is called __________? Col
The elongated area of high pressure extending outwards from an anticyclone area is called:
Ridge
The fast moving current of air with strong lateral and vertical wind shears which is located
immediately below the troposphere is called _________? Jet stream
In the last stages of the extratropical cyclone, the closing of its warm sector by an overtaking
cold front which races about the system’s center is called ___________? Occlusion
In the Northern hemisphere, gusty winds shifting clockwise, a rapid drop in temperature,
thunderstorms or rain squalls. In summer (frequent rain/snow squalls in winter) then a rise in
pressure followed by clearing skies, indicate the passage of a (n)___________? Cold front
Which of the following about a front is true? all of these
On a clear, warm day, you notice the approach of a tall cumulus cloud. The cloud top has hard
well Define edges and rain is falling from the dark lower edge. Should this cloud pass directly
overhead___________? it will be preceded by a sudden increase in wind speed
In low latitudes the range of the diurnal variation of pressure is up to____________? 3.0
millibar
Clouds appearing in the following order : cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, status, and
nimbostratus usually indicate the approach of a (n)___________? Warm front
The navigable semicircle of a storm in the Northern Hemisphere is that area of the storm
measured___________? from the direction of the storm movement counterclockwise
If you are caught up by a cyclone in the Northern hemisphere, and you are in the dangerous
semi circle, the evasive action to be done is ___________? place wind 1-4 points on
starboard bow, altering course to starboard as the wind veers
If you are caught up by a cyclone in the Northern hemisphere, and you are in the navigable
semi circle or in the path of the cyclone, the evasive action to be done is ___________? place
wind on starboard quarter, altering course to port as wind backs
If you are caught up by a cyclone in the Southern hemisphere, and you are in the navigable
semi circle or in the path of the cyclone, the evasive action to be done is ___________? place
wind on port quarter altering course to starboard as wind veers
If you are caught up by a cyclone in the Southern hemisphere, and you are in the dangerous
semi circle, the evasive action to be done is ___________? place wind 1-4 points on port
bow, altering course to port as the wind backs
The area in low latitudes in which the trade winds of the Northern and Southern hemispheres
converge is called _________? Intertropical Convergence Zone
What do mid-channel marks indicate? Deep-water channel or fairway
You are underway in a narrow channel and is being overtaken by a vessel astern. The
overtaking vessel sounds a signal indicating her intention to pass on your starboard side. If
such an action appears dangerous, you should sound ________________. five short rapid
blasts
Based on the Rules, a combined whistle system is regarded as a ______________. Separate
whistle
The construction of sound signal appliances, their performance, and their installation shall be
to the satisfaction of the appropriate authority of the state where the vessel is ______.
Registered
Target indicates tug with tow showing her green light on your port bow, and close to your port
bow the green light of another power driven vessel. What action should you make? Slacken
speed or stop the vessel
In an inconspicuous or semi-submerged vessels or objects being towed a white all-round light
shall be visible at: 3 N.M.
Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision? Assumption shall not be made on
the basis of scanty radar information
In determining the safe speed to comply with rule 6, which of the following factors shall be
among those to take into account by all vessels? I. The maneuverability of the vessel with
special reference to stopping distance and turning ability in the prevailing conditions. II.
At night the presence of background lights such as from shore lights of from back scatter
of her own lights. I and II
In which of the following is the purpose of ship’s routing to improve the safety of navigation
correct? I. In converging areas where the density of traffic is great II. In areas where the
freedom of movement of shipping is inhibited by restricted sea-room, the existence of
obstructions to navigation limited depths, or unfavorable meteorological conditions. I
and II
This rule states that every vessel shall at all times maintain a proper look-out by sight and
hearing as well as by all available means. Rule 5
What is the routeing measure comprising a designated area between the landmark boundary of
a traffic separation scheme and the adjacent coast, not normally to be used by through traffic
and where local special rules may apply? Inshore Traffic zone
Rule 10 (d) prescribes that Inshore traffic zones shall not normally be used by through traffic
which can safely use the appropriate traffic lanes within the adjacent separation schemes.
However vessels of less than _________ meters in length and sailing vessels may in all
circumstance use inshore traffic zones. 20
In Traffic Separation Scheme, a vessel shall normally join the lane at termination of the lane.
When joining at either side, the vessel shall do so by ______________. Entering at small
angle as to the general direction of the traffic as practicable
How many seconds is the duration of a short blast on the ships whistle when used as a fog
signal? 1
How many nautical miles is the audible range of the sound signal intensity of the whistle of a
vessel of less than 20 meters in length as required by Annex III of the 1972 Rules of the Road?
0.5
Under the rules which situation is considered “special” circumstances? Two or more meeting
vessel
Example of a special circumstance ? Three vessels in an approaching situation
You observed a vessel with an additional light in vertical line with the stern light. Which
statement is CORRECT? It is a power-driven towing vessel
A vessel is termed engaged in fishing when ______________. using gear which restricts her
maneuverability
A power-driven engaged in towing is exempted by the Rules to display the required towing
light when rendering assistance. High intensity intermittent or revolving lights
Where the length of the two exceeds 200 meters, the towed vessel will exhibit ____________.
diamond-shaped light where it can best be seen
While heading North, a vessel crossed ahead of you showing her port side light. The bearing of
the side light before it went out of view is 000 degree. What is the most probable course of this
vessel at that time? 292.5 degrees
A vessel is being propelled by her sail and by her engine. How is this vessel considered under
the Rules? A power driven vessel
A pilot vessel may continue to sound her identity signal under what situations? When
underway, but not making way to embark a pilot.
One of these vessels is NOT obliged to comply with rules regarding Traffic Separation
Scheme. What is this? Vessel serving navigational aids of Traffic Separation Scheme
A vessel is engaged in fishing when she is using fishing apparatus which restricts her to
maneuver
Conduct of vessels is Restricted visibility is _______________ Rule 19
What factor is taken consideration when a vessel is restricted in her ability to maneuver? The
nature of her work limits maneuverability as required by the rules.
Which vessel is regarded as “restricted in her ability to maneuver”? Vessel engaged in mine
clearing
Sailing vessel have right of way over power driven vessel, EXCEPT ______________. When
overtaking such vessel
Ship bell of vessels more than 20 meters are constructed with a diameter at the mouth of NOT
less than ________. 300 mm
When a vessel is transferring her cargo while underway, she is considered as Restricted in
her ability to maneuver
A vessel navigating a narrow channel shall ________________. Not cross the channel if it
impedes the safe passage of other vessels
What is the fog signal for a vessel NOT under command? Successive one prolonged / two
short blasts not more than two minutes interval.
A vessel transferring provisions while underway is classified by Rules as a vessel ________.
restricted in her ability to maneuver
Which of the following is NOT a good holding ground for anchor? all of these
The scope of chain to be used depends upon several factors EXCEPT: size of the vessel
The scope of chain to be used depends upon several factors EXCEPT: size of the vessel
On a ship moving ahead, a pivot point is approximately: 1/3 ship length abaft the bow
A rule of thumb in the handling of VLCC is that she losses _____ of her headway for every
______ degree change in heading. 25 – 30 % / 90
A vessel moving at 1 knot moves approximately 100 feet in ______ minute 1
A vessel moving at 2 knots moves approximately _______ in one minute. 200 feet
A 30-knot wind exerts the same force on an equal area as a _______ current. 1 knot
The ship’s turning circle from deep water to shallow water is ______. smaller
An average size ship’s turning circle is usually and slightly _______ when the ship turns to
right than when she turns to the left. smaller
Ships like VLCC’s turning circle to the right is usually ____ her turning circle to the left.
nearly the same as
If the speed of a ship is increased during a turn, the tactical diameter becomes (or remains)
______. smaller
Your vessel is proceeding parallel to a bank. Her stern moves______. towards the bank
A ship can be backed and filled in the ______ area when to the left. smallest
You are proceeding through an open roadstead. Your vessel is an average-size, house aft tanker
ship. If you back your ship, expect her to ______. headway from the wind while she has
headway, back away from the wind when she has no headway
Bow or aft thrusters are sometimes preferable to tugs because _______. it is always available
The disadvantage of a bow thruster is ______. it has no effect on headway to slow down or
hold a ship
The following are a series of conditions that influences the maneuvering characteristics of the
ship EXCEPT: size of the vessel
This system has been used for many years, the fittings of these plates in way of bronze
propellers and other immersed fittings is a common practice. sacrificial anode system
The turning circle of ship is the path followed by the ____________. pivoting point
The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360° is the path followed by the _______.
center of gravity
In relation to the turning circle of the ship, the term “advance” means the distance
___________. gained in the direction of the original course and maximum when ship
turned 90°
The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been
completed, is called the ___________. Tactical diameter
A vessel in shallow water might experience _________. squatting
The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engine full astern until the
vessel is dead on the water is known as__________. head reach
When a large merchant vessel enters shallow water at high speed the _____. bow will suck
down farther than the stern
The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed is:
one-third of the length of the vessel from the bow
When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is _________. about onequarter of the vessel’s length from the stern
As a general rule for most large merchant vessels, squat effects what part of the vessel? stern
When you enter shallow water, you would expect your rudder response to ____ be sluggish,
and your speed to decrease
A wedge of water building up between the bow and nearer bank forces the bow out and away
describes _____. bank cushion
The effect known as “bank cushion” acts in which of the following ways on a single-screw
proceeding along in a narrow channel? it pulls the stern toward the bank
The ship movement where the pivot point plays a part _____. rotational
A ship under headway can make a smaller turning radius if the pivot point is ____. close to
the bow
When going ahead from dead in the water, the stern of a ship with a single right-handed
propeller: turns to starboard
A ship is said to have a positive directional stability when _____ she tends to steady up when
the rudder turned to amidships position
What is the cause of the increase of draft of a ship moving through the water? drop in water
pressure around the ship’s hull
In an emergency and the anchor is dropped while at full ahead, do not slack the cable as soon
as the anchor holds. I. false II. true III. depends upon the size of the ship I only
How will you turn a ship quickly in a following current in restricted water? by dragging one
anchor and astern engine
Your ship, a right-handed single screw is making a headway, when the ship is maneuvered to
crash stop the tendency of the ship will _____. slow down her headway and turn to
starboard
A right handed single screw ship, when taking turning circles both port and starboard at same
speed and rudder angles, which side will probably have the larger area of turn? starboard side
When comparing different turning circles of your ship at same speed and different rudder
angles, which of the rudder angles used has the largest turning circles? 10 degrees
Which of the following is the affect of depth of water on turning radius if the ship is at low
speed? larger turning radius at shallow water
Which is CORRECT? I. directional stability becomes more positive in shallow water (steering
improves) II. diameter of turning circle in shallow water increases to as much as twice that of
the deep water III. in shallow water, speed losses occur with large changes in heading, but to a
Lesser extent than in deep water IV. in deep water, diameter of turning circle is approximately
three times ship’s length V. ship carries her way longer in shallow water than in deep water VI.
in deep and shallow water, head falls off to starboard, but at a greater rate as depth decreases in
shallow water All of these
When does it become evident that the ship has reached shallow water? when the depth of
water is about one point five (1.5) times of the ships draft
In maneuvering the ship in a restricted area or in a narrow channel, which side would be easier
to maneuver the ship using the backing and filling maneuver? starboard side
A ship is having a slow speed, by using the backing maneuver, the ship is considered to be
dead on the water when the _____. quickwater reaches the amidship
In docking, when approaching the quay at one (1) knot, how many meters is ships advance in
one (1) minute. 41 meters
The distance of the ship to its final berth is about 200 meters. Approximately how many
minutes will it take the ship to be in position if the ship speed is two (2) knots 3.2 minutes
Your ship RPM is 120 and gives a maximum speed of 16 knots. How many RPM required if
you need a two (2) knot speed in approaching the berth? 15 RPM
When going astern in a right-handed propeller ship and need to maintain the ship heading, the
rudder would be place at _____ Rudder to starboard enough to compensate the swing
In principles of shiphandling which factor that a master or a pilot has no direct control of the
ship. shallow water factor
What is the main purpose of knowing the turning circle of own ship? to know the area of
maneuverability of the ship
Your ship’s draft is 10 meters, speed 10 knots and having a block coefficient of .70 water.
What will be the under water clearance if the depth of water is 12 meters? 1 meter
In anchoring, using the scope of 6, determine the number of shackles to be used if the depth of
water is 35 meters? 7.5 shackles
In anchoring, it is always best to approach the anchorage area ________. against the current
Your ship is at anchor. What is the approximate area of rotation if your ship has a length of 200
meters, cable used is 6 shackles and depth of water is 35 meters? 347 meters radius
If a ship is holed above the waterline, you should ______. all of these
If a ship is holed or cracked on or near the waterline, you should ____. all of these
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?
They are lighter than air and will settle in the highest part of the vessel
Drains or outlets for drawing off fuel from a fuel tank should ___? be located a the lowest
portion of the tank
Should you discover a leak in the gasoline line to the engine, the best thing to do is ___?
activate the CO2 system
Outlets in fuel lines are ___? Permitted for drawing fuel
The purpose of the shut off valve at the gasoline tank operate from outside the tank space is to:
control the amount of gasoline to the engine
Which of the following devices is required in the fuel supply line at the engine? Flow meter
The top of vents from gasoline tanks should terminate? inside cabins
Gasoline fuel tanks vents should terminate ___? in the engine compartment
Why is it necessary to extend ventilators to the bilges? to keep them dry, and thus easier to
clean
The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to ___? Allow for cutting out branch circuits
Electric generators can be protected against overload? with switches
The principal reason for mounting starting motors, generators and other spark producing
devices as high above the bilges as practicable is to___? Keep them dry when the bilges are
full of water
After machinery is put in motion, you should __? look at the machinery and see that it is
running
During fueling, all doors, hatches and ports __? to windward should be opened, the ones to
leeward should be closed
Gasoline tanks should be filled __? to the top to expel all vapors from the tanks
The Nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __? from making contact with the fill
opening to guard against static spark
Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning precautions during fueling
operations? all engines, motor, fans, etc. should be shut down when fueling
Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked? flow of
cooling water
Prior to starting any enclosed engine, you should: check the flame arrester
Where a mechanical exhaust ventilation system is used with gasoline engines, before starting
the engine (s), the exhaust blower should be run a sufficient time to ____? warm up the
exhaust blower motor
Before starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat, you should make sure for safety that ___?
the gasoline tanks is full
Before any machinery is put in operation, you should ___? just turn the key and start up
Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to ___? keep ports, doors,
windows and hatches closed
A hydraulic Accumulator is designed to: act as a fluid reservoir
When fueling has been completed? The fuel tank fill pipe should be left open to allow
gasoline vapors to vent from the tank
What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system? condenses moisture
A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of ___? shallow water
Where a propeller shaft passé through the hull, water is prevented from entering by means of a:
Propeller boss
A thrust block is designed to: absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow
What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction? lignum vitae
What power source actuates a solenoid valve? air pressure
Which of the following is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main
propulsion? faster response from ahead to astern
Which of the following is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water tube boiler?
receives saturated steam from the generating tubes
The brick work surrounding the fire box of a boiler is known as __? the screen wall
Blowing tubes does which of the following ___? eliminates unburned fuel oil residues from
the firebox
In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in which part of
the boiler is temperature of the steam increased? mud drum
In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the super heater tubes from the fires of the
combustion? water wall tubes
When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one generator driving an
engine automatically shuts down? one generator will motorize
Over speed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause: low voltage trip
What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine? cooling water
pressure
What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?
Carbon on cylinder heads
A centrifugal pump must be primed to ___? lubricate the shaft seals
What causes cavitation in a centrifugal pump? Rough impeller surfaces
Maintaining the close tolerances in diesel fuel pumps and injectors requires the use of __?
fuel/water separators
What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass? mechanical
distribution
In case of any failure on machinery or irregularity on equipment which may lead to the
propulsion speed or the steering of the vessel to be affected, what is the FIRST ACTION to be
taken by the duty engineer? inform the bridge
The amount and condition/appearance of liquid collected in bilges is a clear sign of _____.
specific system losses or flooding
What would be the best method to be followed if the ship is in port and there is an urgent need
to pump out bilge water from the vessel? pump out only to shore tank or barge
What action shall be taken if you find more substantial amount of water than usual has
collected in the bilge wells? ask permission to pump bilges via 15ppm oily water separator
Suppose you are told to store ships lubricants for one year and you estimate you will consume
480 liters in that time. You have an opened drum of 180 liters on board. What quantity will you
order? 24 pails x 20 liters
During maneuvering periods with the main engine, what is the arrangement for starting air
supply by the main air compressors on the control setting of the compressors? one
compressor on AUTO CONTROL, the other on MANUAL
What is that force that tends to twist the material like the force on the shaft to twist it apart?
torsional stress
Kinetic energy is the energy a body has due to its ______. motion
Phenolphthalein is used to test boiler for ______. alkalinity
What do you call the instrument that measures the radial position of the crankshaft or rotor
shaft? bridge gauge
Too high alkalinity of boiler water may cause ______. scale
In which pipe line should you expect to find an illuminated sight glass (bull’s eye)? tank
overflow piping
What are the four processes in a refrigeration process?
Compression/Condensation/Expansion/Evaporation
What is the purpose of a dehydrator in a refrigeration system? to absorb moisture usually
present in the refrigerant
In which machinery can you not add oil under running conditions? air compressors or
refrigerant compressors
If the cooling water temperature exceeds over its recommended value, what can happen? a
less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls
The temperature of the daily tank of 60 degrees C suggests which grade of Fuel in use?
intermediate or heavy fuel oil
In which part of the alternator is the electric power produced? by the stator
What is the function of the Lube Oil Sump Tank? all of these
What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil Tank? as collecting for dirty oil of main
engine intended for purification
The main as well as the emergency switchboard are panels where the electric power is, as well:
fed into monitored and supplied to the consumers
By what means is the power output of an alternator controlled? by the excitation current in
the rotor
The working principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation
current proportioned to _______. the output voltage as well as the output current of the
alternator
According to regulations on board ships, it is required to have pump redundancy. What is
understood by this? all essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility
In case the auxiliary seawater pump fails, with which pump shall you cool the condensers?
with the main seawater pump(s)
Below are some capacities of seawater pumps of a vessel listed. Which pump is the FIRE AND
BALLAST pump? 110/410 cubic meter/hour x 70/35 meters
Following is a listing of water pumps on board. Which one is the Fresh Water Hydrophore
pump? 5 cubic meter/hour x 50 meters
What liquid is used to clean a turbo charger? water
If you find it difficult to obtain suction while pumping the bilge well, which action shall you
take? all of these
How does the change of flow direction in the filter helps in segregating water and dirt? due to
centrifugal force
A pump can empty a tank in 12 hours, another pump can empty the same tank in 4 hours, and
another can empty this tank in 9 hours. If all three pumps are set working together on this tank,
how long would it take to empty it? 2 hours and 15 minutes
In a 4 cycle engine, the intake valve begins to open while the piston is on the: suction stroke
In a 4 cycle engine, the exhaust valve opens while the piston is on its ______. power stroke
What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine? I. loss of
power II. Misfiring III. White exhaust smoke IV. Excessive Consumption of lube oil I, III
and IV
In four stroke cycle diesel engine, a four stroke of the piston is required to complete one cycle
which must take place in regular order, and the second stroke indicates _______. compression
of air
What is the compression system of a refrigeration? it is the absorption of heat under
temperature, compression, pressure and expansion
The last stroke of two-stroke cycle diesel engine is also called: power stroke
What is the source of energy used to convert salt water into fresh water inside a fresh water
generator? the waste heat from the main engine
How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator? by the vapor eductor driven to the
ejector pump
What is the required ppm if boiler distillate water is produced to be used in water tube boilers
of medium pressure by a fresh water generator? 2ppm
Reciprocating pumps are installed in circuits where liquids ______. have a high air content
If you are to replace a mechanical seal of a pump, which part will you dismantle/remove in
order to access to the seal? remove pump casing half, shaft flange and take out pump
assembly
It is noted after overhaul that pump bearings heat up, and is verified that o wrong assembly has
taken place or no parts are touching. The reason is: misalignment of the shaft
What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops from
running condition? the level will decrease
What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are
started at the same time? the generator may trip on overload
A ship’s propeller is 4882 mm diameter with pitch of 4226 mm. The engine RPM is 122. What
is the engine speed of this vessel? 16.70 knots
A vessels main engine runs at 114 RPM. The slip that day was 7.4%. The ships speed that day
was 13.82 knots. What is the pitch of the propeller? 4040 mm
A vessel has a propeller with 3828 mm pitch and makes 109 RPM. The nautical speed is 12.8
knots. What is the slip? 5.3%
The Master issues a night order in the Night Order Book. It is valid for ______. 24-hour period
The Night Order Book consists which of the following? all of these
Which of the following is TRUE? all of these
The Night Order Book includes the following EXCEPT: maintain ships speed at all times
The Night Order Book includes: all of these
Following a ship routing system, an initial route recommendation is issued to a ship _____. 48
to 72 hours prior to sailing
______ is an underway adjustment in track and is intended to avoid or limit the effect
diversion
______ is a recommendation for slowing or increasing the ships speed as much as adjustment
of SOA
______ is a transmission sent to the ship advising the master of expected adverse conditions,
weather advisory
_______ is issued to a ship normally two to three days before sailing as a weather advisory.
initial route recommendation
______ is an underway adjustment in track and is intended to avoid or limit the effect
diversion
_______ is a recommendation to the master to take independent action to avoid, as much
evasion
______ is a transmission sent to the ship advising the master of expected adverse conditions,
their duration, and geographic extent. weather advisory
The greatest potential advantage for a ship weather routing exists when the following the
economic gain of the shipowner as a result of a shorter route
The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 15 miles and height
above water of 29 ft. Your height of eye is 52 ft. and the visibility is 6 miles. At what
approximate range will you see the light? 11.0 miles
The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 5 miles and height above
water of 21 ft. Your height of eye is 32 ft. and the visibility is 1 mile. At what approximate
range will you see the light? 1.5 miles
The predictions in Tide Tables are based on ______. detailed observations
On a Tidal Current Tables, river current prediction may be considerably in error following a:
heavy rain
Tidal Current Charts present a comprehensive view of the velocity of current in different
bodies of water ______. hourly
A good chart can be distinguished from indifferent one by: date of correction
Which nautical publication gives an information if there will be a chance to meet an iceberg
during the course of the voyage? sailing directions
A report which a vessel should make if she is more than 2 hours steaming time the predicted
position is called _______. deviation report
________ represents part of the spherical earth on a plane surface. nautical chart
A cartographer cannot transfer a sphere to a flat surface without distortion, he must project the
surface of a sphere onto a plane surface.An example of this projection is that the cylinder
tangent along the Equator called ________. mercator projection
The projection in which the meridians appear as straight lines converging toward the nearer
pole is called _______. gnomonic projection
Which chart is commonly used for planning great circle track? gnomonic chart
________ results from projecting points on the surface of the Earth onto a tangent plane, from
a point on the surface of the Earth opposite the point of tangency. tereographic projection
If terrestrial points are projected geometrically from infinity toa tangent plane, the projection is
called _____. orthographic projection
The ratio of a given distance on the chart to the actual distance it represents on the earth Scale
The smallest scale chart used for planning, fixing position at sea and for plotting the dead
reckoning while proceeding on a long voyage is the _____. sailing chart
________ are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals. general
charts
________ are intended for navigation and anchorage in harbor and small waterways. harbor
charts
At the top of the center of the chart is the date of ________. first edition of the chart
Chart symbols and abbreviations are shown in _______. Chart No.1
_______ solves problems involving a single course and distance, difference of latitude plane
sailing
______ is similar to plane sailing but uses meridional difference and difference in longitude in
place of difference of latitude and departure. Mercator sailing
_______ combines plane sailing solutions when there are two or more courses and determines
the equivalent course and distance made good by a vessel steaming along a series traverse
sailing
________ is the intersection of departure and difference of longitude when a vessel parallel
sailing
________ uses the mean latitude for converting departure to difference of longitude when
middle latitude sailing
____ involves a solution of courses, distances, and points along a track between two points.
great circle sailing
________ is a sailing in which you take a parallel sailing to limit the altitude of your track
composite sailing
_______ solves problems involving a single course and distance, difference of latitude plane
sailing
______ is similar to plane sailing but uses meridional difference and difference in longitude in
place of difference of latitude and departure. Mercator sailing
________ combines plane sailing solutions when there are two or more courses and determines
the equivalent course and distance made good by a vessel steaming along a series of
rhumblines. traverse sailing
_________ is the intersection of departure and difference of longitude when a vessel is
proceeding due east or west. parallel sailing
________ uses the mean latitude for converting departure to difference of longitude when the
course is not due east or west. middle latitude sailing
A vessel can fix his position with one bearing only at the time when there is a: range bearing
The horizontal intensity component along a geographic meridian is: north component
Which process decreases the strength of magnetic field? degaussing
Under the influence of an external field, magnetism is called: induced magnetism
When a stream of charged particles rotates around the nucleus of an atom: magnetism
The error in the gyro caused by the rolling of the vessel whose effect can reach as maximum on
inter-cardinal heading is called________. quadrantal error
Where the gyro compass has the least directional power is the : geographical poles
This gyro compass error applicable where damping is accompanied by offsetting the point
tangent latitude error
This is a pressure whereby one piece of ice overrides another: rafting
A submerged ice attached to the bottom irrespective of the nature of its formation is called:
anchor ice
The part of the surface of the earth that has more satellite fixes due to orbital precession higher
latitudes
Seawater ice density at its freezing point is: 0.925 gm/cm3
The proper percentage of alcohol/distilled water to be used in liquid compass is_______. 55%
water, 45% alcohol
The actual spread transmission used on a GPS system is called_________. generation of the
code
In lat. 75 N, dec. of sun 15 S, which of the following will occur? sun crosses the prime vertical
below the horizon
In lat. 7 N, dec. of sun 5 S, which of the following occurs: sun crosses the Prime Vertical
below the horizon twice
In lat. 7 N, dec. of sun 0, which of the following will occur? sunrise at 0600 hrs
In lat. 75 N, dec. of the sun 16 N, which of the following will occur? it is total daylight whole
day
When radar waves are trapped in the atmosphere, what would occur: increase of radar range
These are radio waves shorter than 30 centimeter: radio spectrum
The frequency of a radar with a wavelength of 3.2 cm, is about: 9375 MHZ
This is the term given to the sea surface with oily appearance: shuga
An error is caused when great changes take place in the ionosphere which is called:
polarization
__________ detects the incoming target echoes: mixer crystal
The separation between orbital planes of satellite is: 60 degrees
This is fitted on a satellite in order to achieve a gravity-gradient stabilization: 100 foot
extendable boom
The position of the satellite when it passes the North Magnetic Pole is: vertical
If sea ice disintegrate when temperature rises above freezing point, this is called: rotten ice
A route which is often marked by centerline buoys is called: recommended route
TSS should be approved first by the ________ before it adopted by a territorial sea area of
Maritime Safety Committee of IMO
The diurnal inequalities of the tide is caused by the: declination of the moon
In a radar being in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from: ranges
A radar has the ability to distinguish targets and is called: range resolution
The main component of the display unit of a radar is: cathode ray unit
This affords a good indication of the value of the chart. the spacing of charted depths
Charted depths of a wee-surveyed area usually appear: radial straight lines
The state of the atmosphere with respect to temperature, humidity, precipitation, weather
The average long term meteorological conditions of a place or region is called: climate
A relatively thin shell of air, water vapor, and suspended particulates surrounding atmosphere
As altitude increases, air pressure decreases due to decreased weight of air above. troposphere
The top of the troposphere is marked by a transition layer called: tropopause
On top of the tropopause is the layer ______. stratosphere
The standard sea level pressure of the atmosphere is _____ 1013.25 millibars of mercury
The standard sea level pressure of the atmosphere is _____. 29.92 inches
Temperature decreases with height called _____. standard lapse rate
As radiant energy from the sun arrives at the earth, how many percent is reflected back 29%
As radiant energy from the sun arrives at the earth, how many percent is absorbed by 19%
As radiant energy from the sun arrives at the earth, how many percent is absorbed by 52%
The prevailing winds from approximately 5 deg N to 30 deg N are the _____. northeast trade
winds
The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift and depth of the equatorial currents trade
winds
In low latitudes, trade winds converge in an area called ______. intertropical convergence zone
In weather analysis, the approach of a storm is through observation of wind, waves,
atmospheric pressure
Atmospheric pressure is measured by a _____. barometer
_______ is a measure of the atmosphere vapor content. humidity
The ratio of the pressure of water vapor present in the atmosphere to the saturation relative
humidity
______ is the vector sum of the true wind and the reciprocal of the vessel course apparent
wind
In making a synoptic observation, the following should should be considered EXCEPT: safety
of life
What cyclone is in its final stage of development? occluded front
In low altitudes, the range of diurnal variation of pressure is up to _____ millibars 3.0
The direction of the current in the Southern Hemisphere is affected by the earth rotation by
deflecting the set towards the ________. left
The configuration formed by a relatively low pressure zone between two cyclones and two
anti-cyclones is called_________. col
From an anti-cyclone area, the elongated area of high pressure extending outwards is
called_______. ridge
This does not have closed isobars: tropical disturbance
In the eye of the storm: relatively calm and sunny
The movement of the cyclone is: parallel to the isobars in the warm sector
When a storm loses the source of heat because it passes a colder water or land, the storm
assumes the characteristic a/an: extra tropical cyclone
A seiche has a period of anything from: few minutes to an hour
The periodic motion of the sea due to gravitational forces of various celestial bodies is : tidal
phenomenon
This is a local strong wind carrying damp snow or sleet and spray that freezes upon contact
with objects: barber
________ dissipate fog: downslope motion of air
This is a frozen precipitation: sleet
In October, storms that enter the Great Lakes Basin from the west and northwest are the
products of pressure systems known as__________. Alberta Lows
In the ________ state of the atmosphere, water does not exist: plasma
If rain drops from the dark edges of a tall cumulus cloud: the wind speed will not change as it
passes
Near the eye of the storm in the relatively calm area, the sea are: mountainous and confused
On which side of the storm track is the navigable semi-circle in the South Indian Ocean? right
In the southern hemisphere, the dangerous semi-circle lies: to the left of the storm track
A current called Darwin current along the coast of Australia flows: poleward
The balance between the Coriolis force and the subsurface pressure fields is called: geostrophic
equilibrium
Kamchatka current flows: southward
The flow of Agulhas current is generally: westward
The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in the Southern
Hemisphere is_____. southwest, south and southeast
It is the type of cloud which means spreads out, flatten, cover with layer Stratus
It is the type of cloud means heap, a pile, an accumulation cumulus
The layer of the atmosphere above the stratosphere is called: mesosphere
Since air has weight, the downward force exerted by the air is known as : atmospheric pressure
PAGASA has classified the Philippines various regions depending on the frequency of tropical
cyclones passing over each one. Northern Luzon including Batanes has the highest number
where cyclones pass the area at: 5 cyclones in 2 years
A recent study shows that about___________% of the average annual rainfall in the
Philippines is attributed to the occurrence of tropical cyclones in its vicinity especially from
June to December: 47
The seawater temperature essential in the formation of typhoons in the vicinity of the
Philippines or East of the Philippines is________. above 26 deg. Celsius
A sudden blast of wind descending form a mountainous coast to the sea, in the Strait of
Magellan or at the Aleutian Islands: Williwaw
The wind is called a geostropic wind if the isobars are straight and a ________ if isobars are
curved: gradient wind
The name CYCLONE is used in the following except: North Atlantic
For determining a safe speed , all of the following factors are mentioned by the Rules
EXCEPT: the competency of the crew
Your vessel had an oil spill in the Philippine port while refueling, the oil spill must Philippine
Coast Guard
Audibility range in Nautical miles for vessels 75 but less than 200 meters in length shall be __.
1.5 Nm
A term which means any sound signaling appliance capable of producing the prescribed blasts.
whistle
The sound pressure level at any other direction in the horizontal plane shall NOT be more
than_______ below the prescribed sound pressure level on the axis. 10 dB
Limits of the fundamental frequencies for vessel 200 m or more in length. 70-200 Hz
The sound pressure level of a directional whistle shall not be more than_____ below the sound
pressure level on the axis at any direction. 4.0 dB
Fundamental frequency of a whistle shall be___________. 70-200 Hz for vessel 200 meters or
more in length
Sound level pressure of a directional whistle in any direction shall be measured in
that________ which determined the audibility range. 1/3 octave band
Fundamental frequency of signal (whistle) shall lie within the range__________. 70-700 Hz
Under the International Rules how is the height of a light measured? vertical distance above the
uppermost continuous deck
The Frequency band between 20-20,000 Hz is the range of frequency that could be heard by
the human ear. This frequency band is called: AF Frequency
The PPS is strictly for the U.S. Military use only. To deny the PPS accuracy for civilian users,
two cryptographic methods are employed: one is the selective availability (SA) and _______.
Anti-spoofing (AS)
In a dense fog you hear a whistle signal ahead of the prolonged blast followed by three short
blasts. This signal indicates a: Manned vessel being towed
If a departure from the Rules is necessary to avoid immediate danger, a vessel__________.
would be justified in departing from the Rules
The earliest Rules for Preventing Collision at Sea which has been adopted by over thirty
maritime countries including the United States and Germany were known as: Articles
Which statement is true regarding equipment for sound signals? Manual sounding of the
signals must always be possible
The Rules state that certain factors are to be taken into account when determining state of the
wind
Under the Rules a non-displacement craft or seaplane which is not capable of being used as a
means of transportation of water: is not a “vessel”
Within the content of Rule 3 (d) which of the following type of vessels is Not included under
the definition of vessel engage in fishing vessel fishing with trolling lines
The FIRST International Maritime Conference to consider regulations for preventing collision
at sea was held in_________. Washington
What is the requirement for any action taken to avoid collision? Any action taken must not
result in another close-quarters situation
Within the context of Rule 3 (f) which of the following vessels would qualify as a vessel not
under command a vessel riding to anchor chains with anchors unshackled
Which of the situations may NOT involve risk of collision? An approaching vessel has a
generally steady range and increasing bearing
Part B, Section II of the International Regulations for Preventing Collision at Sea, 1972 covers
the Rules on: Conduct of vessels in sight of one another
Your vessel is underway but stopped and making no way through the water. You sight another
vessel approaching, and her compass bearing and range does not appreciably change. This
would indicate that: The other vessel is dead in the water
When two vessels are in immediate danger of collision, the stand-on vessel must: Assist in
taking whatever action is necessary to avoid collision
Within the context of Rule 3 (i) vessel is underway when She is dragging her anchor
The October 1972 International Conference on the regulations for Preventing Collisions
Increasing number of power-driven vessels Increasing number of power-driven vessels
Within the context of the Rules what factor other than the depth of the water in relation
Available navigable water width
Which statement applies to Rule 8 (c) of the 1972 Colregs? If there is sufficient sea room,
alteration of course alone may be the most effective action to avoid a close quarters situation
provided it is made in good time
The following are considered practiced of good seamanship which are not specifically taking
positive action in ample time to comply with the Rules
A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall comply with the following, EXCEPT: if
anchoring is necessary , anchor in the separation zone
Rules regarding traffic separation schemes require: II only
The vessel obliged by the rules to hold her course and speed in a crossing situation is the: I
only
Which of the following defines In extrem I. A collision is inevitable; II. Action II only
In International water, on your port bow, you observe the green light of a vessel. You have
sounded the danger signal . When may you take avoiding actions? When it is apparent the
other vessel is not taking action to avoid a collision
In fog, your radar shows another vessel ahead. Which should you avoid? I. Change of course to
port unless overtaking; II. Altering course toward the vessel on or about your beam. Both I and
II
You are navigating in International waters in fog. You detect another vessel on radar dead
ahead. Which of the following statements applies? Neither vessel may sound the danger signal
You are navigating in International waters in fog. You hear a vessel sound one prolonged Both
I and II
All of the following are distress signals EXCEPT: International Code AA
A tropic hazard which could increase risk of explosion and increase the presence of harmful
vapors during an oil spill: Solar heat
The construction and installation of the lantern on board the ship is to the satisfaction of
________ where the vessel is registered. government of the state
What do you mean by sample time in assessing a situation? Enough time to carefully assess the
situation whether in restricted or clear visibility
Before commencing a turn, several factors have to be considered EXCEPT: turning space
You are stopped with no way upon your vessel at the pilot station. Your vessel is half ahead
with hard over rudder, then full astern on inboard engine
You are approaching a pilot station with the wind on the starboard bow and making a short
burst of ahead full will left rudder
On a ship moving ahead, the pivot point is situated about _____. 1/6 ship length abaft the bow
It is always best to approach the quay when berthing: against the current
When a vessel is expected to unberth during heavy weather, it is best to: any of these
When unberthing with the stream ahead: let go all lines first and leave the back spring last
The anchor holding power in tons on good anchoring ground is about ______. 7 - 8 times the
anchor weight
The length of cable laid out measured from the hawse pipe to the anchor divided scope
The scope of the anchor to be used depends upon: all of these
The scope of the anchor to be used depends upon: all of these
When the vessel normally lie with the anchor and cable fine on its own bow about natural sheer
When the cable nips round the stern and breaks the anchor out of its holding ground, breaking
sheer
When a vessel is anchored with both anchors leading ahead, she is said to be on ___. open
moor
When anchoring in clay bottom, what is one hazard that may cause the anchor to drag? the
anchor may get shod with clay and not develop full holding power
In shiphandling, forces associated with it can are the following EXCEPT: forces under control
forces and moments under indirect control the ships speed and type of propulsion
In shiphandling, the forces not under control are the following EXCEPT: force majeure
Which of the following is FALSE in shiphandling? only the master knows the maneuvering
characteristics of his vessel
The hydrodynamic resistance on a ship in shiphandling are the following EXCEPT: hull
resistance
______ describes a ship tendency to remain at rest when at rest. inertia
______ describes a ship tendency to remain in motion when in motion. momentum
______ describes a ship underwater hull friction. underwater hull resistance
A vessel stopping characteristics are dependent on the following EXCEPT: type of engine
propulsion
The larger the vessel you are handling and maneuvering, the ______ must be used less initial
speed
Maneuvers useful in ship handling to achieve transverse speed can be the following round turn
During maneuver, the best way to control a reduced speed is by ______. kick ahead
Which of the following is TRUE about speed in shiphandling? all of these
The characteristic movements of a vessel can be described by a coordinate system 6 degrees of
freedom
The 3 movements of a vessel along its axis are the following EXCEPT: roll
The 3 movements of a vessel rotating about its axis are the following EXCEPT: sway
In ship handling, displacement over time is called ______. velocity
In ship handling, change of velocity per unit time is called ______. acceleration
The maneuvering information of a vessel should be presented through: all of these
The following are the presentation of maneuvering information EXCEPT: master card
On maneuvering information, which of the following describe the current condition pilot card
On maneuvering information, which describes the general particulars and detailed wheelhouse
poster
On maneuvering information, which describes full details of the maneuvering maneuvering
booklet
In the maneuvering booklet, the following is contained EXCEPT: speed of the vessel with the
corresponding RPM
Normally, fully automated vessels with UMS certificate carry smaller number of crew, do
officers/crew require a higher level of skill
What is the most important connection of the Chief Engineer with the Deck Department?
knowledge of all sailing plans and cargo loading/discharging
What is the most important deck connection of watch keeping engineers? executing orders
from and issuing warnings to the bridge
Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into a current of air which provides scavenging
Flashpoint of the oil is the temperature at which ______. fuel oil must be heated to allow
flammable vapors to form on its surface
A unit of measure used to express the chloride content of boiler water is _____. PPM
What is the purpose of a counterbore in a cylinder? to distribute the oil film evenly over the
cylinder surface
Thermal efficiency refers to heat engines and is the ratio of ______. output on the
shaft/flywheel over internally produced power
What do you call the valve that prevent steam pressure from exceeding the allowable safety
valve
The basic type of reversing air starting system that can be used only on two stroke - rotating
camshaft
The heat used to change a liquid to vapor is called latent heat of ______. vaporation
A refrigerant gives up heat when it _______. condenses
The lowest temperature obtained in a refrigerator system is the temperature of the ______.
liquid in the evaporator
The actual refrigerating or cooling effect is produced by ________. lowering pressure of
refrigerant
The two main types of evaporators are: dry and flooded
The greatest decrease in the temperature of the refrigerant is at the ______. condenser
A receiver in a refrigeration system is used to ______. store the refrigerant
Humidity is a measure of ______. water vapor content
Ambient temperature means ______. temperature of air in the surrounding space
Moisture in the refrigeration system will cause a ______. faulty expansion valve
What will happen if a brine in a refrigeration system has a high specific gravity? it will
crystallize
Diesel engines are considered safer than gasoline engines because ___? The fuel used is less
volatile
Generally speaking, the fuel injected into a diesel engine combustion chamber is heat of
compression
The quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has close the fuel
supply valve
Which of the following is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion? less fuel
consumption per SHP
All diesel engines are classified as ___? compression ignition
Each cylinder in a two stroke cycle engine experience combustion __? once each crankshaft
revolution
How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear? perfectly clear
What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine? exhaust temperature
What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine? tachometer
What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine? increases efficiency
How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two cycle diesel engine? ports
Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers or: air receiver
What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine? They regulate the
combustion cycle
The most serious effect of air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it? causes
corrosion
What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion? viscosity
Lubricating oil should be changed on a heavy duty diesel engine when___? it has been in use
for a specified interval
How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time? run it at
minimum speed for a period of time
What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean? late fuel injection
The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are over speed, low lube oil high jacket
water temperature
If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken?
open crankcase explosion covers
What is the bets indication of the loading of diesel engine? exhaust gas temperature
Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause? black smoke
If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, you should__? secure the starting
air supply valve
What is the one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature? severe heat stresses
on mechanical parts
Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium? compressed air
What are the three basic types of engine starters? air, hydraulic, electric
All marine low speed diesels are of what design? two stroke
One major disadvantage of a low speed diesel as compared to a steam main the extra weight
required of the diesel reduction gearing
Which of the following exhausts should be carefully inspected at regular intervals? engine
The exhaust pipe shall be kept gas tight throughout its entire length because? the joint gaskets
may be blown
Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are? those with diesel
engines
Backfire flame arrestors are installed on ___? fuel tanks
A carburetor is placed on the engines to ___? mix the fuel and air
A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a (n)__? backfire flame arrestor
Which of the following devices is required to be installed under the carburetor of flame arrestor
The engine head block, and exhaust manifold shall be ___ (small passenger air cooled
If a gasoline engine falls to start, the procedure to find the cause is to? ventilate the space, then
check the battery, spark plugs, carburetor and fuel lien
If a gasoline engine turns over but is hard to start, the cause is generally__? defective ignition
Fuel system safety may best be achieved by? proper air/gasoline fuel mixture ratio
Gasoline fumes tend to__? disperse to atmosphere
Gasoline vapor is of such weight relative to air that it will tend to collect: above the carburetor
level
Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel? fuel vapors can only be ignited
by an open flame
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?
They are lighter than air and will settle in the highest part of the vessel
Should you discover a leak in the gasoline line to the engine, the best thing to do is ___?
activate the CO2 system
Outlets in fuel lines are ___? Permitted for drawing fuel
The purpose of the shut off valve at the gasoline tank operate from outside the tank space
control the amount of gasoline to the engine
Which of the following devices is required in the fuel supply line at the engine? Flow meter
The top of vents from gasoline tanks should terminate? inside cabins
Gasoline fuel tanks vents should terminate ___? in the engine compartment
Radar does not transmit continuously because it would: prevent detection of targets
The error introduced into the satellite signal in the ephemeris data is: epsilon error
If the south end of the gyro rotor case is towards the north when started, it will: precess
constantly
If the gyro rotor turns in the wrong direction, the gyro will: red reciprocal
The speed adjustment of the master gyro should be made within: 3 knots
1,360 watts per square meter solar energy is received by the earth and is called: solar constant
The percentage of the sea surface covered with ice at OKTA is__________. 50%
The time of sunrise when the vessel was at the Tropic of Capricorn on or about Sept. 21? about
0600
When the observer is on the equator , which of the following is TRUE? day and night are equal
A typical radar pulse length is: 500 to 3000 pulse per second
A typical radar pulse length is: 0.05 to 1.25 microseconds
How long is the wave length of the L2 carrier wave of GPS? 24.5 cm
The most significant error in GPS positioning is: ionospheric error
An example of gyroscopic inertia is: quoit
When fixing a position from three bearings of an object forming a cocked hat, the ship is:
anywhere along the last bearing
A good chart can be distinguished from indifferent one by: the date of correction
The observer’s Zenith at lat. 60 n is: 60 n of the celestial equator
The sun will stay on the horizon whole day if: the observer is at the South Pole on or about
Sept. 21
What is Right Ascension? angular distance of a celestial body east of Aries
The body touches the prime vertical when the: latitude and declination are equal and same
name
On all liquid compasses, what kind of oil is used? grain alcohol
On a course of 316, you are heading towards a range whose charted bearing is 317. What
would be the gyro error if the variation of the locality is 9 E? 1.5 E
Your first observation of the wind in the northern hemisphere was NE and successive
observations are NNE and N, velocity is increasing, most likely the storm will be passing:
north of you
Successive observations of the wind were N south of you
What specific volume of the Admiralty List of Radio Signals that contains the list of coast
radio stations, Inmarsat, GMDSS, SAR and ship reporting system? Vol I
In order for the satellite to align itself with the earth magnetic field, what is activated?
Electromagnet
In calculating a running fix position, what is the minimum number of fixed objects needed to
your lines of position from? One
A Great Circle crosses the equator at 1340 E. It will also cross the equator at what other
longitude? 46 deg.W
The latitude of the upper vertex of a great circle is 360N. What is the latitude of the lower
vertex? 46 deg. W
The latitude of the upper vertex of a great circle is 36 deg. N. What is the latitude of the lower
vertex? 36 deg. S
_________ error is an error introduced by the titling of the mounting system of the compass
due to horizontal acceleration caused by the motion of the vessel. This error applies to the
reading of the compass or its repeaters rather than to compass itself. Gimbaling
A gyro has 3 perpendicular axis through the center of gravity. Which of the following axis is
NOT included? quadrantal axis
The axle of the gyro tends to settle in the plane of the Virtual Meridian. The horizontal angle
between the vertical planes of the Virtual and True Meridians is called: Steaming Error
Which of the following is an example of gyroscopic inertia? deck quoit
Which of the following is an example of gyroscopic inertia? Rifling of a gun barrel
Which of the following is an example of gyroscopic inertia? The Earth
The radius of a motion of a particle having a mass equal to that of the spinning body is called:
Gyration
The horizontal angle between the vertical plane through the gyro axle and the True Meridian is
called: Latitude Error
An observer at Latitude 45º -00 South took a gyro bearing of the sun on the horizon and found
to be 078 deg.. The declination of the sun obtained from the almanac gives 14 deg.-00N.
Calculate the gyro error. 8º W
If the surface of the spheroid is altered so as to be everywhere perpendicular to the direction of
gravity, the Earth is considered a/an: Geoid
A cloudy patch of matter in the heavens outside the galaxy is called: Extragalactic nebula
The component of space motion in the line of sight is called: Heliocentric parallax
When the moon rises during sunrise, therefore it is: New Moon
The sun rises exactly at the time when the moon is setting. The moon is at__________.
Opposition
After passing the first Quarter phase, the moon become full moon at: Opposition
If the age of the moon is approximately 14&1/2 days, it is said to be at: Opposition
If the GHA of the moon differs by 180 by that of the sun, it said to be at: Opposition
If the moon reaches appoint wherein it is completely illuminated, it is at: Opposition
If declination plus the Latitude equals 90 deg. and same names, therefore. Body is tangent to
the horizon at lower transit
The Geographical longitude of the body will be numerically equal to the Meridian angle only
when: the body is setting
In the Celestial Equator System of coordinates, when the body is along the Pn-Ps line,
therefore the Meridian Angle is: 90º
In the celestial equator system of coordinates, when the body diurnal circle coincides with the
celestial equator, the altitude during upper transit will be equal to the: Co-latitude
In the orthographic projection of the horizon system of coordinates, when the body rises to the
right of the Prime Vertical (PV), the amplitude is named: E-S
In the orthographic projection of the horizon system of coordinates, when the body rises to the
left of the Prime Vertical (PV), the amplitude is named. E-N
The intercepted arc of the horizon between the principal vertical circle and the vertical circle
passing through the body when rising or setting is called: Azimuth
The amplitude will be numerically equal to the declination only when: Latitude is zero
All of the following arcs or angles can be measured in the Horizon system of coordinates
EXCEPT: Declination
All of the following arcs or angles can be measured in the Horizon system of coordinates
EXCEPT: Meridian angle
Which of the following when subtracted from 90º will give the radius of almucantar? Altitude
The azimuth angle when prefixed south means that: I. The amplitude is East-South; II. The
true-azimuth is taken from south; III. The latitude is south. III only
Your vessel is at Lat. 24º 35 N; Long. 110º 56 E. From the nautical Almanac, the GHA of the
sun is 86 deg. 25 What is the meridian angle of the sun? 162º 39 E
The angle measured form the observer meridian either eastward or westward to the body and
named East if rising and West if setting. Meridian angle
If the GHA of the sun in the time diagram is 36º, what is the GAT? 02h 25m 52s
In the time diagram, the time-arc of the celestial equator between the hour circle of the vernal
equinox to the observer Meridian is called: Local Sidereal Time
The optical principle of a marine sextant is when a ray of light is reflected from a plane
surface, the angle of reflection is equal to the_________. Angle of incidence
During meridian passage, the LHA and meridian angle of the body is zero. What is its altitude?
Maximum altitude
In the daily pages of the Nautical Almanac, a circle with the right hand side fully shaded
indicates: Last quarter
During meridian passage, the LHA and meridian angle of the body is zero. What is its altitude?
Maximum altitude
In the daily pages of the Nautical Almanac, a circle with the right hand side fully shaded
indicates: Last quarter
The GMT of LAN was found to 14h 02m 24s. from the daily pages of the Nautical Almanac,
the GHA of the sun at 14h indicates 33º 40.5 Find the corresponding increments for 2m 24s. 0º
36
The GHA of Aries taken from the Almanac at 1200H GMT is 239 deg. 55.3 Find the
corresponding increments for 30m 24s. 7 deg. 36
The GHA of the sun at 1200H GMT was found in the daily pages of the almanac to be 356
deg. 28.4 What is the equations of time? 14m 06s
The GHA of the sun at 1200h GMT was found in the Almanac to 002 deg. 31.6 What is the
equation of time? 6m 06s
The GHA of the sun at 1200 GMT was found from the Nautical Almanac 358 deg. 28.4. What
will be the GMT of Meridian Passage? 11h 23m 04s
This cannot be used as a standard time sine it differs fro every meridian . Its principal use in
rising, setting and twilight tables. LMT
On June 10 in Longitude 58 deg. 42 E,. the sextant meridian altitude (Hs) of the Sun U.L, was
87 deg. 32.0 bearing South, I.E. 1.3 on the arc, Dip Corrn. Is 4.8, Main Corrn. is 15.9.
Calculate for Obs. Lat. If the sun decl is 23 deg. 17.4N. 26 deg. 7.4N
On Sept. 23 in Longitude 19 deg.15 E., the sextant meridian altitude (Hs) of the Sun L.L., was
48 deg. 36.0 bearing south, I.E. 1.7 off the arc, DIP Corrn.=6.9, Main Corrn. 15.1, Decl. of the
sun is 0 deg.. Calculate for the Obs. Latitude. 41 deg. 14.1 N
On June 13 Long. 27 deg. 42 W the observed altitude (Ho) of the sun U.L. at meridian passage
was 64 deg. 42.2 bearing NORTH, Decl of the sun was 28 deg. 26.4 N. Calculate for the
observer latitude. 1 deg. 54.1 S
On Sept. 2 in Long. 12 deg. 58 W the observed altitude (Ho) of the sun L.L. at meridian
passage was 68 deg. 23.3 bearing SOUTH, Decl of the sun was 1 deg. 28.2 S. Find the
observer latitude. 20 deg. 08.5 S
At meridian passage, upper transit, the observer latitude was found to be .7 N, Declination is
1046.3 N. Find the Observed Altitude (Ho) 48deg. 11.6 S
The LMT of sunrise on the standard meridian is 0552H. your longitude is E. What is you ZT of
sunrise? 0512
229. The local mean time of sunrise at lat. 23 deg.30 S, Long. 36 deg14W is 0422H. Find the
corresponding zone time of sunrise? 04h 46m 56
The local mean time of the sunset at long. 75 deg E is 18h 40m 00s. What is the corresponding
local zone time of sunset? 18h 40m 00s
What is the time difference between Pt. A (ZD=+8) and B (ZD=-8)? Pt. B is 16 hours ahead of
Pt. A
During foggy weather you hear on e short blast, one prolonged blast, and one short blast. It
should indicate to you one of the following: a vessel at anchor
The characteristic on which range resolution depends is pulse length
This is defined as the speed the molecules making up the atmosphere in order to overcome the
force of gravity. velocity of escape
On weather maps, cold front is colored: blue
On weather maps, warm fron is colored: red
On weather maps, occluded front is colored: purple
On weather maps, stationary front is colored: red/blue
On weather maps, blue color indicates: cold front
On weather maps, red color indicates: warm front
On weather maps, purple color indicates: occluded front
On weather maps, alternate red and blue color indicates: stationary front
The value of the nautical chart depends upon the ___________. the character and the accuracy
of the survey on which it is based.
What are leaning type of letters in Nautical charts used for? underwater and floating features
The date of the chart-Nautical charts bear three dates which are important to persons using
them. The first edition date (month year) printed centrally in the upper margin. This issue
contains all up to date which are hand corrected in the old issues.
When a first edition of a chart is printed, the original date of issue of a new chart is shown at
the top center margin and; lower left hand corner
What type projection is formed if a plane is tangent to the earth, and the points are
geometrically form the center of the Earth? Oblique gnomonic
Chart with a natural scale of 1:180,000 is classified as a: General chart
The revision date of a chart is printed on what area of the chart? lower-left corner
Which of the following should be consulted to obtain information about the general current
circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean? Pilot chart
You are entering a harbor for the first time, which of the publications would you consult?
Coast pilot
What publication contains information about the port facilities in Cadiz, Spain? World Port
Index
The Sailing Directions (Planning Guide) contain information on all of the following EXCEPT:
Coastal features
What is the longitude of the geographical position of a body whose GHA is 10º 30? 149º 30 E
Your vessel is at the equator at midnight on 1 January, and a star is observed rising. At what
time will this same star rise on 1 February, assuming your vessels location is still at the
equator? 2158
What is the latitude of a place where the sun is at the zenith of the observer at: 2327 N
What is the latitude of a place where the sun is at the horizon at midnight of Jun 21? 66º 33 N
Find the height of the observer in Lat 450N when he is casting a shadow 10 feet long at local
apparent noon on a day when the sun declination is 20º N? 21.45 feet
The distance between any two meridians measured along a parallel of latitude ____. decreases
with increased latitude
A line connecting points of equal magnetic intensity. isodynamic line
What is the semi-circular deviation which is proportional to the sine of the compass heading?
Coefficient B
“The orbit of each planet is an ellipse with the sun at one of its foci” is a law that is
associated with_____________. Kepler
What are the relative positions of the sun, the earth, and a planet when the planet is at inferior
conjunction? The planet is between the earth and the sun.
When the sun is between the Earth and Planet Venus, Venus is said to be at______. superior
conjunction
When planet Venus is between the Earth and Sun, Venus is said to be at_________. inferior
conjunction
As the inferior planet moves along its orbit from superior conjunction to inferior conjunction
its elongation________. increases
The angle between the lines connecting the Sun and the Earth and between elongation
Why is planet Venus not visible at midnight in any latitude? its greatest elongation is only 46º
Planetary aberration is due, in part, to________________. refraction of light as it enters the
Earth atmosphere
The vernal equinox is the point in the celestial sphere where the sun declination is: 0º
increasing to maximum north
The autumnal equinox is the point in the celestial sphere where the sun declination
is___________. 0º increasing to maximum south
When the sun is at summer solstice its declination is____________. maximum north
When the sun is at the summer solstice its declination is__________. north and decreasing to
0º
The Earth is closest to the sun in what month? January
Places situated in Lat 300 N are within the _____________. North Temperate Zone
How far in angular distance is the Arctic Circle from the North Pole? 23º 27
Between the parallels of about 23º 26 N and about the sun is directly overheard at some time
during the year. If you are situated between these two parallels how many times in a year will
the sun pass your zenith? twice
The points of intersection of the ecliptic and the celestial equator are called_______.
Equinoxes
The hour cycle that passes through the First Point of Aries is known as the______. equinoctial
colure
What condition will exist if the axis of rotation of the earth is perpendicular to the plane of its
orbit? The length of days and nights are equal throughout the year in both hemisphere
In what planetary configuration should Venus be situated if it is an evening star? between
greatest elongation east and inferior conjunction
In what planetary configuration should Venus be situated if it is a morning star? between
inferior conjunction and greatest elongation west
When Venus disappears in the sky it can be presumed to be at or near________. inferior or
superior conjunction
Venus attains maximum brilliance of about five weeks before and after_________. inferior
conjunction
The moon will wax from__________. New Moon to First Quarter
The moon will wane from____________. Full Moon to Last Quarter
The full moon nearest the autumnal equinox is called____________. Harvest moon
The celestial sphere as seen by an observer at the equator is called the_______. right sphere
The celestial sphere as seen by an observer at the geographical poles is called the: parallel
sphere
The celestial sphere as seen by an observer at Lat 30ºN is called the___________. right sphere
There are two conditions that must be fulfilled at the same time in order for a solar the moon
must be at full moon
The result of gravitational forces exerted principally by the sun and moon precession of the
earth axis
The same side of the moon is always turned towards the Earth because_______. the period of
rotation is equal to the period of revolution
The moon is rising while sun is setting. What is the approximate phase of Full moon
Planetary aberration is due in part, to______________. the body orbital motion during the time
required for its light to reach the earth
Diurnal aberration is due to_______________. rotation of the Earth on its axis
As observed from the Earth, the angle between lines from the Earth to the Sun elongation
When the moon is at New Moon its elongation is _______________. zero
Elongation becomes zero at________________. inferior conjunction
With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the selective availability is
set to zero
Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent to
Precise Positioning Service receiver capability? Selective Availability
Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from several
satellites simultaneously? Continuous
The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by________. DGPS, within
a coverage area
A low HDOP (Horizontal Dilution of Precision) number such as 2 indicates a: good fix
When using GPS, how many position lines are required for a 2 dimensional fix? 3
When using GPS, how many position lines are required for a 3 (dimensional 4
Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does Four
Most GPS receiver use the Doppler shift of the carrier phase to compute______. Speed
The speed of sound in a water is approximately____________. 4.5 times its speed in air
When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate___________. two depth
readings
When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to _________. receive a strong
return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day, and one nearer the surface at night
When using a recording depth finder in the open ocean, what phenomena is most likely to
produce a continuous trace that may not be from the actual ocean bottom? Echoes from a deep
scattering layer
In modern fathometers the sonic or ultrasonic sound waves are produced transducer
Which factor has the greatest effect on the amount of gain required to obtain Type of bottom
The radar control that shortens all echoes on the display and reduces clutter caused by rain or
snow is the ________________. fast time constant (differentiator)
The radar control used to reduce sea return at close ranges is the __________. sensitivity time
control
Your radar displays your ship off center. As you proceed on your course, True motion
The closest point of approach (CPA) of a contact on a relative motion radar after the contact
has been marked at least twice
The description “Racon” beside an illustration on a chart would mean a ______. radar
transponder beacon
You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light may be identified a coded signal
appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the light
What is the latitude of a place where the observer is stepping on his shadow at at the equator
What is the length of the shadow of a man, 6 feet tall, when standing in an open field at local
apparent noon of a certain day when the sun declination is about 200S and his latitude is 20º S
and his latitude is 20º S? 0
When radar waves are trapped in a layer of the atmosphere called a surface radio duct, which
of the following would be created? Increase of radar range
The ability of radar to distinguish separate targets on the same bearing but having small
differences in range is called _______. Range resolution
If the rotor on a gyro is turning in the wrong direction it will cause the gyro to: Read reciprocal
directions
The transmission time duration of a single pulse of radio-frequency energy is a function of the :
Pulse length
The minimum range at which a target can be detected is basically determined by which of the
following? Pulse length
A stationary front is a ______________.: I. cold front; II. Warm front Either I or II
On a weather map, a stationary front is represented as ______________. alternating red and
blue lines with half circles and triangles
On a weather map, the half circles in a stationary front are pointing towards _____ . colder air
On a weather map, triangles are pointing toward the _______. warmer air
A warm front marks the region _________________ where a warm air is replacing cold air
On a weather map, warm fronts are drawn as ____________. a solid red line
On a weather map, warm fronts are drawn as _________. a solid red line with half circles
This is a kind of front which appears on weather maps as a solid purple line occluded front
This term is applied to spreading of the isotherms at a front, which means Frontolysise
This term is applied to the closing of the isobars at a front which means that Frontogenesis
Frontolysis occurs when ___________. the isobars are cyclonic
Frontogenesis occurs when ______________. the isobars are anti-cyclonic
Isohyet is a ________________. line joining places having equal rainfall
Isohel is a ________________. line joining places of equal sunshine
Isallobar is a ________________. line joining places having an equal change of pressure
Pressure Gradient is a _______________. difference in pressure in unit distance measured at
right angles to
This is an error caused in a barometer due to a constant change in height pumping
All readings of a barometer should be corrected to sea level. Increase I. a ecrease in pressure
approximately 1 millibar for every 10 meters II. a decrease in pressure approximately 10
millibars for every 10 meters I only
At what temperature reading will the Centigrade and Fahrenheit scale be negative 40º
Isohaline is a _____________________. line joining places having equal salinity
You are steaming west in the North Atlantic in an extratropical cyclonic to the north of you
According to Buys Ballot’s Law, when an observer in the Northern Hemisphere
experiences a northwest wind, the center of the low pressure is located to the ____ . northeast
If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure area to be 100 north to northwest
According to Buys Ballot law, when an observer in the northern hemisphere south-southeast
According to Buys Ballot Law, when an observer in the southern hemisphere south-southwest
If a weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure system to be 100 south-southwesterly
The apparent wind speed can be zero only when two conditions are present. wind speed equals
the ship speed
The apparent wind speed can be zero only when two conditions are present. must be from
dead astern
The velocity of the apparent wind can be more than the true wind, and come true wind must be
from dead ahead
The velocity of the apparent wind can be less than the true wind and from true wind from dead
astern
The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in southwest, south and
southeast
The inner cloud bands of a hurricane, when viewed from a distance, form a bar of the storm
Which condition exists in the eye of a hurricane? An extremely low barometric pressure
What kind of conditions would your observe as the eye of a storm passes Huge waves
approaching from all directions, clearing skies, light winds and an extremely low barometer.
In the relatively calm area near the hurricane center, the seas are___________. mountainous
and confused
The largest waves or swells created by a typhoon or hurricane will forward and to the right of
its course
The dense black cumulonimbus clouds surrounding the eye of a hurricane cloud walls
The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a tropical wind circulation and
forward motion of the storm
Tropical cyclones do not form within 5º of the Equator because_____________. of negligible
Coriolis force
The navigable semicircle of a typhoon in the Southern Hemisphere is to the right of the storm
track
You are attempting to locate your position with reference to a hurricane center on the storm
track behind the center
If it is impossible to avoid a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere, the that half of the storm
lying to the left of the storm path
What is the average speed of movement of a hurricane prior to recurvature? 10 to 12 knots
A tropical wave is usually preceded by ______________. good weather
A tropical wave is located 200 miles due west of your position, which is north Farther away to
the west
The pressure gradient between the horse latitudes and doldrums runs_________ . north-south
Little or no change in the barometric reading over a twelve hour that present weather
conditions will continue
What do the numbers on isobars indicate? barometric pressure
Pressure gradient is a measure of ______________. pressure difference over horizontal
distance
The diurnal pressure variation is most noticeable in the _____________. doldrums
The diurnal variation of pressure is most noticeable_____________. in the doldrums
Which weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front in the A line of cumulonimbus
clouds
Which condition will occur after a cold front passes? Humidity decreases
After a cold front passes the barometric pressure usually_________. rises, often quite rapidly,
with clearing skies
As a cold front passes an observer, pressure_____________. rises and winds become gusty
A cold front moving in from the northwest can produce____________. thunderstorms, hail,
and then rapid clearing
The steepness of a cold front depends on________________. its velocity
A boundary between two masses is a _______________. front
What is TRUE about a front? All of these
Clouds appearing in the following order: cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, warm front
The first indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be: high cirrus
clouds gradually changing to cirrostratus and then to altostratus
Fetch is the _____________. stretch of water over which wave-forming wind blows
On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by: water depth
exceeding 100 feet
An upper layer of warm, dry air over a surface layer of a cold, moist air Super-refraction
If a layer of cold, moist air over rides a shallow layer of warm, dry air, which Sub-refraction
Which instrument is the most useful in forecasting fog? a sling psychrometer
Frost smoke will occur when Extremely cold air from shore passes over warmer water
Fog forms when the air Temperature equals or is below the dew point temperature
Fog is most commonly associated with a (an) Warm front at night
Fog forms when the air temperature is at or below The dew point
Which characteristic is common to advection fog? all of the above
Which of the following will act to dissipate fog? Downslope motion of an air mass along a
coast
Ascending and descending air masses with different temperatures is part of Convection
The process in which an air mass changes in temperature and or moisture Modification
In ship handling, the force/s that is/are under direct control is/are: all of these
In ship handling, the force/s that is/are under indirect control is/are: all of these
In ship handling, which of the following are NOT under control? all of these
In ship handling, which of the following is NOT obtained from a personal experience
Which of the following is NOT a hydrodynamic resistance in current
Which of the following is TRUE? the greater displacement, the greater inertia and momentum
A vessel stopping characteristics is/are dependent on: all of these
Which of the following is FALSE? decreasing the transverse speed, the stopping distance will
be greatly reduced
Maneuver/s that is/are useful to achieve increased transverse speed is/are: all of these
Which is the best way to control a maneuver? kick ahead
Which of the following is FALSE? the stopping distance is proportional to the engine power
A vessel has independent movements. This is called _____. 6 degrees of freedom
When a vessel starts to swing _______. surge decreases, sway and yaw increases
Maneuvering information should be presented through: all of these
Which of the following is FALSE? all ships must be provided with pilot card
The pilot card provides information ______. all of these
Which of the following is NOT included in the maneuvering characteristics of a ship in deep
water? turning circle to port
Which of the following is NOT included in the speed control characteristics advance and
transfer
Which of the following propellers has a turnable housing that it can Schottel
The following are forces acting on the hull during maneuvering EXCEPT: current set forces
When a vessel is on open moor, it is _______. anchored with two anchors
All thrusters work on reaction principle of ______. Newton 3rd law
Vessel going alongside portside to in a current, which line should be given headline
Vessel to undock with a stream ahead, which line would be cast off last? astern line
Vessel to dock starboard side to with a right handed propeller, which of the approach the wharf
with a small angle
Using a scope of 6, determine how many feet of anchor cable you should put out 72 feet
Why is it necessary to veer a sufficient amount of chain when anchoring a vessel? To insure
that the anchor flukes bite into the ocean bottom
Using a scope of 5, determine how many feet of cable you would put out to anchor in 5
fathoms of water 150 feet
Anchoring in 5 fathoms under normal conditions requires approximately. 2 shots of chain
Using a scope of five, determine how many shots of chain you should put out 5
Which of the following would be the best guide for determining the proper One shot of chain
for every fifteen feet of water
Generally speaking, the most favorable bottom for anchoring is. A mixture of mud and clay
Which type of bottom provides most anchors with the best holding ability? Sandy mud
When anchoring in a clay bottom, what is one hazard that may cause the anchor The anchor
may get shod with clay and develop full holding power
The best method to stop a vessel which is dragging anchor in a sand is to. Pay out more cable
A danforth lightweight anchor does not hold well in which type of bottom? Grass
The best method of determining if a vessel is dragging anchor is to note. Changes in bearing of
fixed objects onshore
Which of the following provides little or not indication that a vessel is dragging? Changing
radar range to an object abeam
A drift lead indicates that the vessel is dragging anchor when the lines is: Taut and leading
forward
The most serious problem in a crowded anchorage at slack water is: Anchored vessels
swinging into each other
When anchoring a vessel, it is best to release the anchor when: Going slow astern
The best time to let go of the anchor is when your vessel is: Moving slowly astern over the
ground
When anchoring in calm water, it is best to: Have slight sternway on the vessel while letting go
the anchor
When anchoring in a current, you should: Anchor while stemming in the current
Preparing to anchor while headed downstream in a strong current, it is best to: Swing your
vessel to stem the current
The easiest way to anchor a vessel in a current is to: Stern the current and be falling aft very
slowly when the anchor is dropped
When anchoring in a river where the current is form one direction only, the best So that their
lines form an angle
Which is the correct procedure for anchoring a small to medium size vessel in Under power,
back the anchor out until it is near, but clear of the bottom
Which statement(s) is/are correct when anchoring in deep water? All of these
Mooring with two anchors has what major advantage over anchoring with The radius of the
vessel’s swing will be shortened
When attempting to free an anchor jammed in the hawsepipe, the simplest A simple kick, such
as starting the windlass at full power
You are coming to anchor in 8 fathoms of water. In this case, the: Anchor may be dropped
from the hawse pipe
Which of the following would NOT be used to describe the amount of anchor On the bottom
Your vessel is anchored in an open roadstead with three shots of chain out on the Veer out
more chain on the port anchor
What is a danger signal? 5 or more short rapid blasts on the whistle
A vessel is in sight of another vessel when: she can be observed visually from the other vessel
Which statement is true concerning 2 sailing vessels approaching each other? a sailing vessel
overtaking another is the give-way vessel
What type of vessel or operation is indicated by a vessel showing 2 cones with vessel trawling
A power-driven vessel has on her port side a sailing vessel which is on a keep clear
At specified interval, a vessel towing in fog shall sound: 1 prolonged and 2 short blasts in
succession
A vessel towing in fog shall sound a fog signal of: 1 prolonged and 2 short blasts every 2
minutes
Continuous sounding of a fog whistle by a vessel is a signal: of distress
A 50-meter vessel is towing astern and the length of the bow is 100 meters. 2 masthead lights
forward, 2 masthead lights aft, a stern light, and a towing light
A vessel, which is unable to maneuver due to some exceptional circumstance, when making
way at night, 2 all-around red lights, sidelights, and a stern light
Which signal, other than a distress signal, can be used by a vessel to searchlight
Which statement is true concerning the light used with whistle signals? it is only used to
supplement short blasts of the whistle
What is the minimum sound signaling equipment required aboard a vessel 14 a bell and a
whistle
The towing light is defined as a(n): yellow light having the same characteristics as the stern
light
An all-flashing yellow light may be exhibited by a(n): Air cushion vessel in the nondisplacement mode
When should a fog signal of a manned vessel being towed be sounded? after the towing vessel
fog signal
A lantern combing the 2 sidelights of a vessel running lights may be shown on a: 15-meter
sailing vessel
A sailing vessel is NOT required to keep out of the way of a: power-driven vessel
While under way in fog, you hear a vessel sound 1 prolonged blast followed by a vessel towing
Vessel A is underway and towing when vessel B is sighted off the starboard bow. Which vessel
is the stand-on vessel? Vessel B is the stand-on vessel because it is the starboard of vessel A
If you saw flames aboard a vessel but could see the vessel was not on fire, vessel was required
immediate assistance
By day, when it is impracticable for a small vessel engaged in diving operations a rigid replica
of the international Code flag A
A vessel will NOT show sidelights when: not under command, not making way
Which display indicates a vessel conducting mineclearance operations? 1 ball near the
foremast and 1 ball at each yardarm
Which vessel may show 2 headmast lights in a vertical line? a vessel less than 50 meters in
length with a 20-meter tow
What dayshape should a vessel being towed exhibit if tow exceeds 200 meters? 1 diamond
Which statement is true when you are towing more than 1 barge astern at night? Each barge in
the tow must be lighted.
A vessel is propelled both by sail and by engines. Under the Rules, the vessel is: considered a
power-driven vessel
The white masthead light required for a power-driven vessel under the Rules 225.0
An unbalanced cylinder load may be indicated by: high exhaust temperature
On diesel engine fuel systems, to drain water and sediment, what type of valves are allowed?
valves with caps or plugs
When a diesel engine is producing white smoke, it indicates: low combustion temperature
When the compression ratio for a diesel engine is normally low, misfiring at light load is
usually caused by: excessive cylinder cooling
The most practical way of detecting overload in on cylinder of an operating check the exhaust
gas temperature frequently
Turbulence in the combustion chambers of a diesel engine is induced by: directional intake
ports
If an operating diesel engine begins smoking, the trouble may be in only cut off the fuel to each
cylinder in turn and note the exhaust smoke intensity
If a diesel engine is operating with excessively high exhaust temperatures on reduce the engine
load
The rate of fuel injection depends primarily upon: timing of the fuel pumps
Overheating of a diesel engine cylinder can be caused by late fuel injection or: leaking fuel
valve
In actual diesel operation, the pressure usually continues to rise for a short injected shortly
before top dead center
If the engine is smoking, how would you determine which cylinder is causing the smoke? I.
check pyrometers for temperature difference; II. Cut out individual cylinders and check
exhaust. both I and II
Dispersion of fuel in a cylinder is dependent on the: any of these
A clogged fuel oil filter could result in: any of these
Early fuel injection timing will cause cylinder pressure to be: above normal and exhaust
temperature below normal
A practical way of checking for excessive fuel oil injection in a diesel engine is to: check
exhaust gas temperature
Which of the statement is true regarding combustion in a diesel engine? maximum cylinder
firing pressure does not occur until the piston passes T.D.C. (top dead center)
The most likely cause of a sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder is:
malfunctioning valves
Fuel injection nozzle holders are indirectly cooled by: direct contact with surrounding water
jacket
Injection nozzles are directly cooled by: water flowing through passages in the nozzle holder
Ignition delay is caused by: the fuel
When speaking of governor stability, the principal characteristic is: the ability of the governor
to return the engine to the set speed without minor fluctuations in speed
When we refer to the speed regulation of an engine: we are discussing the methods used to
compensate for friction losses in the engine
Engine speed governors work on the basic principle: that any change in engine load
immediately causes a change in engine speed
A governor that is used to limit the load of a diesel must consist of: a variable maximum fuel
stop
To avoid hunting above or below engine RPM, hydraulic governors have a: compensating
device
Oil grooves are found on: bearings
On a diesel engine propulsion, which of the following is FALSE? slow start and stop of
propeller
The propeller on a vessel has a diameter of 23.7 feet and a pitch of 24.8 feet. 11.80%
The propeller of the vessel has a diameter of 20.6 feet and a pitch of 23.4 feet. What would be
the apparent slip if the vessel cruised of 538 miles in a 24 hour day (observed distance) at an
average RPM of 87? -11.60%
If the speed necessary for reaching port at a designated time is 20.7 knots and 86
If the speed necessary for reaching port at a designated time is 17.4 knots and the pitch of the
propeller is 25.6 feet, how many revolutions per minute will the shaft have to turn, assuming a
3% positive slip? 71
If the pitch of the propeller is 19.7 feet, and the revolutions per day are 287.6 miles
If the pitch of the propeller is 20.6 feet, and the revolutions per day are 107,341, calculate the
days run allowing 3% positive slip. 352.7 miles
You have steamed 916 miles at 13 knots, and consumed 166 tons of fuel. If you have 203 tons
of usable fuel remaining, how far can you steam at 14 knots? 966 miles
You have steamed 803 miles at 13 knots, and consumed 179 tons of fuel. If you have 371 tons
of usable fuel remaining, how far can you steam at 16 knots? 1099 miles
While steaming at 19.5 knots, your vessel burns 297 bbls of fuel per day. What 135 bbls
Your vessel consumes 215 barrels of fuel per day at a speed of 18.0 knots. 101 bbls
You have steamed 142 miles and consumed 21.0 tons of fuel. If you maintain the same speed,
how many tons of fuel will you consume while steaming 465 miles? 68.8 tons
You have steamed 142 miles and consumed 15.0 tons of fuel. If you maintain the same speed,
how many tons of fuel will you consume while steaming 472 miles? 49.9 tons
You wish to make good a course of 0530T while turning for an engine speed of 16 knots. The
set is 3450T, and the drift is 2.4 knots. What course should you steer? 0610T
You wish to make good a course of 0350T while turning for an engine speed of 12 knots. The
set is 3400T, and the drift is 2 knots. What speed will you make good along the track line? 13.0
knots
You wish to make good a course of 3500T while turning for an engine speed of 10 knots. The
set is 0700T, and the drift is 1.5 knots. What speed will you make good along the track line?
10.2 knots
The temperature at which fuel oil must be heated to allow flammable vapors flashpoint
The chloride content of boiler water is expressed in a unit of measure called: PPM
The counterbore in a cylinder is _________. to distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder
surface
Heat engines are thermal efficiency referring tothe ratio of ______. output on the
shaft/flywheel over internally produced power
The valve that prevent steam pressure from exceeding the allowable working safety valve
The clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into a current of air which scavenging
The reversed air starting system that can be used only on two stroke ported rotating camshaft
To change a liquid to vapor is called latent heat of ______. vaporation
When would a refrigerant gives up heat? When it _______. condenses
The temperature of the _______ is the lowest temperature obtained in a liquid in the evaporator
The cooling effect of refrigeration is produced by ________. lowering pressure of refrigerant
What are the two main types of evaporators? dry and flooded
In refrigeration where is the greatest decrease in the temperature of the refrigerant? condenser
What is a receiver in a refrigeration system for? store the refrigerant
What would ambient temperature mean? temperature of air in the surrounding space
If there is moisture in a refrigeration system, it will cause a ______. faulty expansion valve
If a brine in a refrigeration system has a high specific gravity, ________. it will crystallize
What is a measure of humidity? water vapor content
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