VMCE_V9
Number: VMCE_V9
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
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VMCE_V9
Veeam Certified Engineer (VMCE) Certification v9
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of the following built-in predefined tests can be performed to verify a VM replica started in a Virtual Lab? (Choose the 3 appropriate options)
A. Application test
B. Heartbeat test
C. Memory test
D. Hard drive test
E. CRC check
F. Ping test
Correct Answer: ABF
Section: (none)
Explanation
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QUESTION 2
Which EMC SAN storage systems are compatible with the Backup from SAN Snapshot feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (choose the 2 appropriate options)
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A. EMC VNXe
B. EMC ISILON
C. EMC VNX
D. EMC Data Domain
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
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QUESTION 3
Which procedure is an option to finalize replica failback?
A. Quick Migration
B. Replica failback does not need to be finalized.
C. Commit Failback
D. VMware Storage vMotion
E. Permanent Failback
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 4
When is the full backup created in a backup copy job for each GFS retention point?
A. Never. Backup copy jobs do not use full backups.
B. After the simple retention policy is met and the .vbk has been updated to the scheduled date
C. On the day that the full backupis scheduled
D. Each GFS point is made when an active full is run on the backup.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 5
When should SQL Server Standard (or higher) be deployed for the instance used by Veeam Backup & Replication instead of the SQL Server Express instance
installed by default?
A. Veeam Backup Administrator chooses to keep the database remote
B. Enterprise Plus versionis used
C. Veeam BackupEnterprise Manager is installed
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D. For the large-scale environments
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 6
A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job. A Windows-based server is used as a repository. Which placement of the Veeam Data Mover
Service(s) would result in the most optimal configuration?
A. One - at the remote target site
B. One - at the production site
C. At least two - one at the production site and one at the remote site
D. Veeam Data Mover services are not required to transfer data offsite
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 7
Which backup method is described below? “After a full VM backup is created, subsequent backups are incremental. Only data blocks that have changed since the
last job run are backed up. All the changes are injected into the created .vbk file to rebuild it to the most recent state of a VM.”
A. Forever forwardincremental backup
B. Reverse incremental backup
C. Forward incremental backup with synthetic fulls with transform to rollbacks
D. Forward incremental backup
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
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QUESTION 8
During the SureBackup job execution, redo logs are created for each verified VM. Where are the redo logs for the job located?
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A. In a special folder of the Backup & Replication server
B. In the backup file itself
C. On the datastore specified in SureBackup job settings
D. On the backup repository
E. On the datastore specified in Virtual Lab settings
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 9
Extreme compression produces the smallest backup file, but it may also reduce:
A. Backup performance
B. Time needed to perform a backup
C. Blocks of free space
D. Identical blocks of data
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
Extreme compression provides the smallest size of the backup file but reduces thebackupperformance
References:
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QUESTION 10
Which editions of Veeam Backup & Replication include Backup from Storage Snapshots?
A. All Enterprise Plus Editions
B. Enterprise Plus Edition for Hyper-V only
C. Standard, Enterprise and Enterprise Plus Edition for Hyper-V
D. Standard, Enterprise and Enterprise Plus Edition for VMware
E. Enterprise Plus Edition for VMware only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Match each Veeam ONE component with the correct description of its functions.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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Section: (none)
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QUESTION 12
From within which of the following software products can the Veeam Backup & Replication Infrastructure be remotely monitored when plug-ins/add-ons are
installed? (choose the 2 appropriate options)
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A. Continuum
B. GFI MAX
C. Kaseya
D. LabTech
E. N-Able
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 13
Which job statistics index can be used to identify the slowest component of the data path of a backup job?
A. Warnings
B. “Action”log
C. Processing rate
D. Bottleneck statistics
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 14
Which of the following objectives is achieved by adding additional proxy servers, in conjunction with parallel processing? (choose the 2 appropriate options)
A. Avoiding creation of VMware snapshots.
B. Distributing backup processing across multiple proxy servers
C. Decreasing backup duration
D. Setting the I/O latency limit for production storages
E. Decreasing backup size
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 15
Which can be used if the user key for an encrypted backup is forgotten or lost?
A. Veeam ONE
B. The user must request a metakey from support.
C. There is no way to restore the data in this case.
D. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 16
Which of the following Veeam products can estimate the required free space needed on target backup repositories?
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A. Veeam ONE
B. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager
C. Veeam Backup & Replication
D. Veeam plug-in for vSphere Web Client
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 17
Is it possible to switch between backup methods when creating regular backup files?
A. Yes, the new method willtransform all existing backups in the appropriate way and continue creating backupsin the same backuprepository.
B. Yes, in this case you will have to specify a new backup repository.
C. Yes, the new method leaves existing backups as they are and continues creating backups in the same backup repository.
D. No, if you want to create backups using another method, you have to create another backupjob.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 18
Under certain circumstances, VMware Change Block Tracking (CBT) may be unavailable to Veeam Backup & Replication. What effect will a lack of CBT
information have on the Veeam backup job?
A. Veeam will perform a full backup automatically
B. You will not be able to later copy this file to tape or offsite
C. The backup job will fail
D. The backupjob duration will increase
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 19
Since the last remote replica from backup job, the source backup job ran three times, making 3 new restore points. Now the replica from backup job is run again.
How many restore points will this replica from backup job create?
A. None
B. One
C. Three
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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 20
What is replica metadata used for?
A. Storing a set of VM configuration files
B. Storing replica temporary cache
C. Detecting changed blocks of data between two replica states
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
Replica metadata used to store replica checksums. Veeam Backup & Replication uses this file to quickly detect changed blocks of data between two replica states.
A metadata file is written to the backup repository.
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QUESTION 21
Which of the following actions can be performed to finalize Instant VM Recovery? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)
A. VMware Storage vMotion
B. Failback
C. Permanent failover
D. FileCopy
E. Quick Migration
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 22
Which of the following jobs is NOT affected by parallel processing?
A. Backup copy job
B. Replication job
C. Backup job
D. All of the above are affected by parallel processing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Backup copy jobs do not support parallel processing.
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QUESTION 23
When configuring an On-Demand Sandbox, when should the Backup Administrator indicate that the Application Group should keep running once the job
completes?
A. When running a SureBackup job
B. When configuring a SureBackup job
C. When configuring a Virtual Lab
D. When creating an Application Group
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 24
What are some of the benefits of using replication from HP, NetApp or EMC storage snapshot compared to the regular replication process? (Choose the 2
appropriate options)
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A. Lower impact on WAN link
B. Lower impact on production storage
C. Lower RPO
D. Lower RTO
E. Higher transfer speed
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 25
When should you consider disabling multithreaded data transfer?
A. When severaljobs are scheduled to run at the same time
B. When the simple deployment scenario is used
C. When the backup traffic needs to be routed over a non-production network
D. When it is required to keep production storage availability from being impacted by the load from backup tasks
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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schedule several jobs to run at the same time,
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QUESTION 26
Which type of jobs can be sent to tape using a “Backup to Tape” job? (choose the 2 appropriate options)
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A. Backup
B. Backup Copy
C. Replication
D. Configuration Backup
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 27
Which services are installed on every Veeam Backup Proxy server? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)
A. Veeam Installer service
B. Veeam Backup service
C. Veeam Backup Catalog service
D. Veeam Data Mover service
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 28
If the network is disconnected during the data transfer process, the “resume on disconnect” feature will NOT reestablish the connection for which of the following
Veeam Backup & Replication jobs?
A. Backup
B. Cloud Connect backup
C. Tape backup
D. Replication
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 29
Which job type cannot be set to use job-level encryption?
A. Backup copy job
B. Configuration backup
C. Backup to tape
D. Replication job
E. Backup job
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 30
Which of the following are true regarding a synthetic full backup as compared to an active full backup? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)
A. In terms of content and retention,the synthetic full backup file is identical to an active full backup file.
B. Synthetic full backups consume more of network bandwidth.
C. If the backup repository performance is weak, creating synthetic fulls is the best choice.
D. The synthetic full backup file has a .vsb extension whereas the active full has a .vbk extension
E. Synthetic fulls impose less load on the production environment.
Correct Answer: BE
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QUESTION 31
How can a Backup Administrator configure user permissions and restrict those permissions to tasks such as Guest OS file restores or search for Guest OS files?
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A. Install the Veeam Backup ReplicationRemote Console on a workstation
B. Create a Business View categoryin Veeam ONE
C. Use Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager roles
D. Create an Active Directory Universal Group
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 32
When VMware vSphere CBT is not available, Veeam Backup & Replication:
A. Uses Veeam’s proprietary
B. Sends an e-mail alert that VMware vSphere CBT is disabled
C. Resets VMware vSphere CBT which requires to power the VM off
D. Runs a new active full backup
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 33
Which of the following describes Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)
A. Analyzes the system,installs and upgrades necessary components and services depending on the role selected for the server
B. Deploys and coordinates executable modules that perform mainjob activities on behalf of Veeam Backup & Replication
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C. Performs data compression, deduplication and data transfer
D. Communicates with the VSS framework during backup, replication and other jobs, and performing recovery tasks
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 34
It was decided to set up Veeam Backup & Replication to ensure parallel tasks do not impact production storage availability. Which parameters should be adjusted in
the I/O Control section of the menu to do this? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)
A. Throttle I/O of existing tasks at:
B. Turn off parallel processing at:
C. Stop assigning new tasks to datastore at:
D. Stop processing until the latencyis lower than:
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 35
A Backup Administrator has restored a VM, on Hyper-V, using Instant VM Recovery. Which additional step should be taken to finalize the Instant VM Recovery
process?
A. Unmount the Instant Recovery VM
B. Stop publishing
C. Migrate to production
D. Delete the Instant Recovery VM
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 36
Can Universal Application-Item Recovery (U-AIR) be performed in the absence of a Virtual Lab?
A. Yes, if the proper infrastructure is configured.
B. No, a Virtual Lab is always required.
C. Yes, but only with a configured application group.
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 37
When a file is copied using a backup copy job, which of the following should be the same for the restore point on the source backup repository, and the restore point
on the target backup repository?
A. Backup repository type
B. Encryption key
C. Data block size
D. Creation frequency
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
The data block size for restore points on the target backup repository is set at the first synchronization cycle of the backup copy job.
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QUESTION 38
Which is the main advantage of using SAN snapshots for backups?
A. Speeds up the backup process.
B. Decreases the amount of time the VM is running on a VMware snapshot.
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C. Helps you avoid creating a VMware snapshot.
D. Saves space in the repository.
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 39
Which Virtual Lab configurations are available when configuring recovery verification for replicas? (Choose the 3 appropriate options)
A. Basic multi-host
B. Advanced multi-host
C. Advanced single-host
D. Basic single-host
E. Basic single-network
F. Advanced multi-network
Correct Answer: BCD
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 40
Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be used to keep the production VM online while the production host is patched?
A. Replica seeding
B. SureReplica
C. Failback of the Replica VM
D. Planned Failover of the Replica VM
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
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